Description : In Ames’ assay, liver homogenate is included in the culture medium because (A) It converts pro-carcinogens into carcinogens (B) Liver can metabolise histidine (C) Salmonella mainly infects liver (D) Liver is very susceptible to cancer
Last Answer : Answer : A
Description : Ames assay is a rapid method for detection of (A) Oncoviruses (B) Retroviuses (C) Chemical carcinogens (D) Typhoid
Last Answer : Answer : C
Description : Deficiency of vitamin B12 can be diagonised by (A) Carr-Price reaction (B) Ames assay (C) Watson-Schwartz test (D) Schilling test
Last Answer : Answer : D
Last Answer : (D) Schilling test
Description : Buffering action of haemoglobin is mainly due to its (A) Glutamine residues (B) Arginine residues (C) Histidine residues (D) Lysine residues
Description : Zinc finger motif is formed in some proteins by binding of zinc to (A) Two cysteine residues (B) Two histidine residues (C) Two arginine residues (D) Two cysteine and two histidine residues or two pairs of two cysteine residues each
Description : Which of the following amino acids produce a vasoconstrictor on decarboxylation? (A) Histidine (B) Tyrosine (C) Threonine (D) Arginine
Last Answer : Answer : B
Description : All α-amino acids have one asymmetric carbon atom except (A) Arginine (B) Glycine (C) Aspartic acid (D) Histidine
Description : In small intestine trypsin hydrolyzes peptide linkages containing (A) Arginine (B) Histidine (C) Serine (D) Aspartate
Description : α-helix is disrupted by certain amino acids like (A) Proline (B) Arginine (C) Histidine (D) Lysine
Description : The amino acid which contains an indole group is (A) Histidine (B) Arginine (C) Cystine (D) Tryptophan
Description : All amino acids have one asymmetric carbon atom, except (A) Arginine (B) Aspargine (C) Histidine (D) Glycine
Description : The amino acids in which the R groups have a net positive charge at pH 7.0 are (A) Lysine, Arginine, Histidine (B) Lysine, Aspargine (C) Histidine, Aspargine (D) Glutamine, Arginine
Description : It is the only amino acid having an ionizing ‘R’ group with a pK’ near 7 and is important in the active site of some enzymes: (A) Arginine (B) Cystein (C) Cystine (D) Histidine
Description : Which one of the amino acids could serve as the best buffer at pH 7? (A) Glutamic acid (B) Arginine (C) Valine (D) Histidine
Description : An amino acid not involved in urea cycle is (A) Arginine (B) Histidine (C) Ornithine (D) Citrulline
Description : The amino acid which contains an indole group is (A) Histidine (B) Arginine (C) Glycine (D) Tryptophan
Description : The amino acid which contains a guanidine group is (A) Histidine (B) Arginine (C) Citrulline (D) Ornithine
Description : A vasodilating compound is produced by the decarboxylation of the amino acid: (A) Arginine (B) Aspartic acid (C) Glutamine (D) Histidine
Description : Histamine is formed from histidine by the enzyme histidine decarboxylase in the presence of (A) NAD (B) FMN (C) HS-CoA (D) B6-PO4
Description : Presence of arginine can be detected by (A) Sakaguchi reaction (B) Million-Nasse reaction (C) Hopkins-Cole reaction (D) Gas chromatography
Description : True statements concerning hypoadrenal shock include which of the following? A. Adrenocortical insufficiency may manifest itself as severe shock refractory to volume and pressor therapy. B. ... test should be performed to help establish the diagnosis of acute adrenocortical insufficiency.
Last Answer : Answer: AD DISCUSSION: Shock due to acute adrenocortical insufficiency is relatively uncommon but must be considered when shock refractory to volume replacement and pressor therapy is present. ... and it is the corticosteroid of choice while the ACTH stimulation test is being performed
Description : Of the following blood tests, which confirms the presence of antibodies to HIV? a) Enzyme-linked immunoabsorbant assay (ELISA) ELISA, as well as Western blot assay, identifies and confirms the presence ... test. Rather, it is an enzyme that transforms single-stranded RNA into a double-stranded DNA.
Last Answer : a) Enzyme-linked immunoabsorbant assay (ELISA) ELISA, as well as Western blot assay, identifies and confirms the presence of antibodies to HIV.
Description : .A test method using organism to deter mine the presence of herbicide effect is a). Herbicide analysis b). Bio assay c). Bio control d). None of these
Last Answer : b). Bio assay
Description : The is used to determine an antibiotic‘s minimal inhibitory concentration (NEC). a. Ames test b. tube dilution method c. agar disk diffusion method d. Kirby-Bauer test
Last Answer : b. tube dilution method
Description : Conversion of a procarcinogen into a carcinogen often requires (A) Proteolysis (B) Microsomal hydroxylation (C) Exposure to ultraviolet radiation (D) Exposure to X-rays
Description : Tubercular bacilli grow best in a. Absence of O2 b. Presence of CO2 c. Presence of O2 d. None of these
Last Answer : Ans: B
Description : The organisms which can grow both in presence and absence of oxygen a. Aerobes b. Anaerobes c. Faculative anaerobes d. Strict aerobes
Last Answer : Ans: A
Description : Name a component of gasoline that has been classified by the U.S. EPA as a "known human carcinogen".
Last Answer : ANSWER: XENZENE
Description : The U.S. EPA recently concluded that environmental tobacco smoke should be considered (quote) w) "a possible human teratogen" x) "a priority air pollutant" y) "a known human carcinogen" z) "a possible human carcinogen"
Last Answer : ANSWER: Y -- A KNOWN HUMAN CARCINOGEN
Description : In haemolytic jaundice, urine shows (A) Absence of bile pigments and urobilinogen (B) Presence of bile pigments and urobilinogen (C) Absence of bile pigments and presence of urobilinogen (D) Presence of bile pigments and absence of urobilinogen FATS AND FATTY ACID METABOLISM 91
Description : In obstructive jaundice, urine shows (A) Absence of bile pigments and urobilinogen (B) Presence of bile pigments and urobilinogen (C) Absence of bile pigments and presence of urobilinogen (D) Presence of bile pigments and absence of urobilinogen
Description : Which of the following suggests a diagnosis of familial combined hyperlipidaemia (FCHL) rather than heterozygous familial hypercholesterolaemia (FH)? 1) Tendon xanthomas 2) Presence of glucose ... premature coronary artery disease 4) Presence of arcus senilus 5) Absence of hyperuricaemia
Last Answer : Answers-2 The genetic dislipidaemias occur in one third of patients who have suffered from their first myocardial infarction below the age of 50 years in men. The commonest is familial combined ... xanthomata and arcus cornea are rarely present in children, but are very important signs to identify.
Description : What is the advantage of radio-immuno assay?
Last Answer : Very small quantities of substances could be accurately measured.
Description : The Ames test is an effective procedure for a. Identifying disease-causing bacterial species. b. Detecting potential human carcinogens. c. Determining if DNA replication has occurred. d. Detecting antibiotic resistance.
Last Answer : b. Detecting potential human carcinogens.
Description : The Ames test is used to a. Identify Potential Human Carcinogens. b. Discover Auxotrophic Mutants. c. Find Pathogenic Bacterial Species. d. Identify Antibiotic Resistant Mutants.
Last Answer : a. Identify Potential Human Carcinogens.
Description : .E.coli cells with a mutated z gene of the lac operon cannot grow in medium containing only lactose as the source of energy because (a) the lac operon is constitutively active in these cells ( ... coli cells do not utilise lactose (d) they cannot transport lactose from the medium into the cell.
Last Answer : (b) they cannot synthesise functional beta galactosidase
Description : The following statement(s) is/are true concerning newer detection methods of systemic infection. a. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) is a rapid immunologic assay used for ... detected using advanced molecular techniques include cytomegalovirus (CMV) and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d Although the classic detection of infection based on clinical signs of infection and bacterial culture remain the most common clinical tools, increasing ... including CMV and HIV. Furthermore, preliminary investigations into possible detection of fungal pathogens are underway
Description : Rancidity of butter is prevented by the addition of (A) Vitamin D (B) Tocopherols (C) Presence of priotin (D) Presence of ‘Cu’ FATS AND FATTY ACID METABOLISM 97
Description : Salmonella typhimurium characteristics. -Biology
Last Answer : answer:
Description : What is Salmonella typhimurium? -Biology
Description : What does Salmonella typhimurium need to thrive? -Biology
Description : Where is Salmonella typhimurium found? -Biology
Description : Ulcerative enteritis is caused by C A. Salmonella typhimurium B. Mycoplasma iowe C. Clostridium colinum D. None of the these
Last Answer : Clostridium colinum
Description : Match the organism with its use in biotechnology. (A) Bacillus (i) Cloning vector thuringiensis (B) Thermus (ii) Construction of first aquaticus rDNA molecule (C) Agrobacterium (iii)DNA polymerase tumefaciens (D) Salmonella (iv) Cry proteins ... (ii) (c) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) (d) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
Last Answer : (b) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
Description : Which one of the following is used as vector for cloning genes into higher organisms? (a) Baculovirus (b) Salmonella typhimurium (c) Rhizopus nigricans (d) Retrovirus
Last Answer : (d) Retrovirus
Description : Which of the following causes plague? (a) Trichinella spiralis (b) Salmonella typhimurium (c) Yersinia pestis (d) Leishmania donovani
Last Answer : (c) Yersinia pestis
Description : Semi-conservative replication of DNA was first demonstrated in (a) Escherichia coli (b) Streptococcus pneumoniae (c) Salmonella typhimurium (d) Drosophila melanogaster.
Last Answer : (c) Salmonella typhimurium
Description : 4. ———– is used as a vector for cloning into higher organisms a. Retrovirus b. Baculovirus c. Salmonella typhimurium d. Rhizopusnigricans
Last Answer : a. Retrovirus
Description : Is a carcinogen a mutagen? -Biology