Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors reduce the following haemodynamic parameters in congestive heart failure except: A. Systemic vascular resistance B. Right atrial pressure C. Cardiac output D. Heart rate × pressure product

Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors reduce
the following haemodynamic parameters in congestive heart failure except:
A. Systemic vascular resistance
B. Right atrial pressure
C. Cardiac output
D. Heart rate × pressure product
by

1 Answer

Answer :

C. Cardiac output
by

Related questions

Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors afford maximum protection against progression of heart failure when used: A. At the higher therapeutic dose range over long term B. At the maximum tolerated dose only till haemodynamic compensation is restored C. At low doses over long term D. At low doses along with diuretics/digoxi

Description : Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors afford maximum protection against progression of heart failure when used: A. At the higher therapeutic dose range over long term B. At the maximum tolerated dose only till ... restored C. At low doses over long term D. At low doses along with diuretics/digoxi

Last Answer : A. At the higher therapeutic dose range over long term

Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors are contraindicated in: A. High renin hypertensives B. Diabetics C. Congestive heart failure patients D. Pregnant women

Description : Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors are contraindicated in: A. High renin hypertensives B. Diabetics C. Congestive heart failure patients D. Pregnant women

Last Answer : D. Pregnant women

Clinically, the angiotensin antagonists share the following features of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors except: A. Antihypertensive efficacy B. Potential to reverse left ventricular hypertrophy C. Lack of effect on carbohydrate tolerance D. Potential to induce cough in susceptible individuals

Description : Clinically, the angiotensin antagonists share the following features of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors except: A. Antihypertensive efficacy B. Potential to reverse left ventricular hypertrophy ... of effect on carbohydrate tolerance D. Potential to induce cough in susceptible individuals

Last Answer : D. Potential to induce cough in susceptible individuals

Potentiation of bradykinin appears to play a role in the following effects of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors except: A. Fall in BP in the short term B. Fall in BP in the long term C. Cough in susceptible individuals D. Angioedema in susceptible individuals

Description : Potentiation of bradykinin appears to play a role in the following effects of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors except: A. Fall in BP in the short term B. Fall in BP in the long term C. Cough in susceptible individuals D. Angioedema in susceptible individuals

Last Answer : B. Fall in BP in the long term

Which of the following statements most closely describes the current status of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors in congestive heart failure: A. They are the first choice drugs unless contraindicated B. They are used when diuretics alone fail C. They are a substitute for digitalis D. They are to be used as adjuncts only in resistant cases

Description : Which of the following statements most closely describes the current status of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors in congestive heart failure: A. They are the first choice drugs unless contraindicated B. ... substitute for digitalis D. They are to be used as adjuncts only in resistant cases

Last Answer : D. They are to be used as adjuncts only in resistant cases

Advantages of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors as antihypertensive include the following except: A. They tend to reverse left ventricular hypertrophy B. Their efficacy is not reduced by nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs C. They do not worsen blood lipid profile D. They do not impair work performance

Description : Advantages of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors as antihypertensive include the following except: A. They tend to reverse left ventricular hypertrophy B. Their efficacy is not reduced by nonsteroidal ... . They do not worsen blood lipid profile D. They do not impair work performance

Last Answer : B. Their efficacy is not reduced by nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs

Which of the following statements about hypertension in diabetes patients is/are correct? A. Hypertension worsens the macrovascular disease of diabetes patients. B. Hypertension accelerates the progression of diabetic nephropathy. C. Hypertension is associated with sodium retention in diabetes patients. D. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors should be used in all patients with chronic hyperglycemia, regardless of the presence of hypertension. E. Diuretics, as single-drug therapy, are not indicated in the treatment of hypertension in diabetes patients.

Description : Which of the following statements about hypertension in diabetes patients is/are correct? A. Hypertension worsens the macrovascular disease of diabetes patients. B. Hypertension accelerates the ... single-drug therapy, are not indicated in the treatment of hypertension in diabetes patients.

Last Answer : Answer: ABCDE DISCUSSION: All of the answers listed are correct. By damaging endothelial cells, hypertension worsens macrovascular disease in all patients but especially in diabetics. Hypertension ... is not indicated because the chronic state of dehydration in such patients may become worse

Sildenafil is contraindicated in patients taking the following class of drugs: A. α-adrenergic blockers B. β-adrenergic blockers C. Organic nitrates D. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors

Description : Sildenafil is contraindicated in patients taking the following class of drugs: A. α-adrenergic blockers B. β-adrenergic blockers C. Organic nitrates D. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors

Last Answer : C. Organic nitrates

Sildenafil is contraindicated in patients taking the following class of drugs: A. α-adrenergic blockers B. β-adrenergic blockers C. Organic nitrates D. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors

Description : Sildenafil is contraindicated in patients taking the following class of drugs: A. α-adrenergic blockers B. β-adrenergic blockers C. Organic nitrates D. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors

Last Answer : C. Organic nitrates

Under physiological conditions the rate limiting enzyme in the generation of angiotensin II is: A. Renin B. Angiotensin converting enzyme C. Aminopeptidase D. Angiotensinase

Description : Under physiological conditions the rate limiting enzyme in the generation of angiotensin II is: A. Renin B. Angiotensin converting enzyme C. Aminopeptidase D. Angiotensinase

Last Answer : A. Renin

Morphine affords symptomatic relief of dyspnoea in acute left ventricular failure by the following mechanisms except: A. Bronchodilatation B. Depression of respiratory centre C. Reduction in cardiac preload D. Shift of blood from pulmonary to systemic circuit

Description : Morphine affords symptomatic relief of dyspnoea in acute left ventricular failure by the following mechanisms except: A. Bronchodilatation B. Depression of respiratory centre C. Reduction in cardiac preload D. Shift of blood from pulmonary to systemic circuit

Last Answer : A. Bronchodilatation

The following type of vasodilator is not beneficial in CHF due to systolic dysfunction: A. Calcium channel blocker B. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor C. Nitrate D. Hydralazine

Description : The following type of vasodilator is not beneficial in CHF due to systolic dysfunction: A. Calcium channel blocker B. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor C. Nitrate D. Hydralazine

Last Answer : A. Calcium channel blocker

A 68-year-old male who underwent a repair of an abdominal aortic aneurysm 5 days ago, develops tachycardia, tachypnea, hypotension with cool, pale, mottled cyanotic extremities. He is agitated and complains of shortness of breath. Which of the following statement(s) is/ are correct concerning his diagnosis and management? a. Myocardial ischemia secondary to preexisting coronary artery disease is most likely the underlying cause of this problem b. Invasive hemodynamic monitoring with a Swan-Gantz catheter will demonstrate a low cardiac output, a high systemic vascular resistance, and elevated cardiac filling pressures c. The use of morphine sulphate and nitrates should be part of the initial management d. The primary pharmacologic treatment involves the use of moderate doses of inotropic ag

Description : A 68-year-old male who underwent a repair of an abdominal aortic aneurysm 5 days ago, develops tachycardia, tachypnea, hypotension with cool, pale, mottled cyanotic extremities. He ... use of moderate doses of inotropic agents e. Afterload reduction with nitroprusside is absolutely contraindicated

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, d Intrinsic cardiogenic shock results from failure of the heart as an effective pump. Coronary artery disease is the most common cause of myocardial ... hemodynamic monitoring. Infusion of afterload-reducing agents can be administered in conjunction with inotropic support

The following apply to use of spironolactone in CHF except: A. It is indicated only in NYHA class III/IV cases as additional drug to conventional therapy B. It affords prognostic benefit in severe heart failure over and above that afforded by ACE inhibitors C. It helps overcome refractoriness to diuretics D. It affords rapid symptomatic relief

Description : The following apply to use of spironolactone in CHF except: A. It is indicated only in NYHA class III/IV cases as additional drug to conventional therapy B. It affords prognostic benefit in ... by ACE inhibitors C. It helps overcome refractoriness to diuretics D. It affords rapid symptomatic relief

Last Answer : D. It affords rapid symptomatic relief

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the neuroendocrine responses to shock? a. Sympathetic nerve endings release epinephrine which is responsible for greater than 80% of systemic vascular resistance b. Endogenous epinephrine is the primary contributor to systemic vascular resistance c. Increased pancreatic secretion of glucagon contributes to glucose intolerance associated with injury and sepsis d. The renin-angiotensin axis further augments the sympathetic-mediated vasoconstriction

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the neuroendocrine responses to shock? a. Sympathetic nerve endings release epinephrine which is responsible for greater than 80% ... injury and sepsis d. The renin-angiotensin axis further augments the sympathetic-mediated vasoconstriction

Last Answer : Answer: c, d The neuroendocrine response to shock attempts to achieve restoration of effective blood volume, mobilization of metabolic substrates, and maintenance of central ... . Angiotensin II is an extremely effective vasoconstrictor that further augments sympathetic-mediated vasoconstriction

The most likely mechanism of antihypertensive action of thiazide diuretics in the long-term is: A. Reduction of circulating blood volume B. Reduction in cardiac output C. Decreased sympathetic tone D. Reduction in total peripheral vascular resistance and improved compliance of resistance vessels

Description : The most likely mechanism of antihypertensive action of thiazide diuretics in the long-term is: A. Reduction of circulating blood volume B. Reduction in cardiac output C. Decreased sympathetic tone D. Reduction in total peripheral vascular resistance and improved compliance of resistance vessels

Last Answer : D. Reduction in total peripheral vascular resistance and improved compliance of resistance vessels

The sympathetic and parasympathetic systems exert functionally opposite influences on the following parameters except: A. Heart rate B. Atrial refractory period C. Pupil diameter D. Intestinal motility

Description : The sympathetic and parasympathetic systems exert functionally opposite influences on the following parameters except: A. Heart rate B. Atrial refractory period C. Pupil diameter D. Intestinal motility

Last Answer : B. Atrial refractory period

The sympathetic and parasympathetic systems exert functionally opposite influences on the following parameters except: A. Heart rate B. Atrial refractory period C. Pupil diameter D. Intestinal motility

Description : The sympathetic and parasympathetic systems exert functionally opposite influences on the following parameters except: A. Heart rate B. Atrial refractory period C. Pupil diameter D. Intestinal motility

Last Answer : B. Atrial refractory period

Which of the following statements about septic shock are true? A. A circulating myocardial depressant factor may account for the cardiac dysfunction sometimes seen with shock due to sepsis or SIRS. B. A cardiac index (CI) of 6 liters per minute per square meter of body surface, a pulmonary capillary wedge pressure of 15 mm. Hg, and a systemic vascular resistance index (SVRI) of 800 dynes-sec/(cm 5-m 2) is a hemodynamic profile consistent with septic shock. C. An increase in SvO 2 in septic patients may be explained by the finding of anatomic arteriovenous shunts. D. Results of human trials employing antimediator therapy, such as antiendotoxin antibodies, IL-1 receptor antagonist, and tumor necrosis factor (TNF) antibodies, have confirmed animal studies that demonstrate a significant im

Description : Which of the following statements about septic shock are true? A. A circulating myocardial depressant factor may account for the cardiac dysfunction sometimes seen with shock due to sepsis or ... animal studies that demonstrate a significant improvement in survival with the use of such agents.

Last Answer : Answer: AB DISCUSSION: Shock due to sepsis or SIRS frequently manifests as a hyperdynamic cardiovascular response, consisting of an elevated CI and a decreased SVR or SVRI. Occasionally, ... been encouraging thus far in human clinical trials, despite the promising results from many animal studies

Angiotensin II plays a key role in the following risk factor for ischaemic heart disease: A. Hypercholesterolemia B. Ventricular hypertrophy C. Carbohydrate intolerance D. Cardiac arrhythmia

Description : Angiotensin II plays a key role in the following risk factor for ischaemic heart disease: A. Hypercholesterolemia B. Ventricular hypertrophy C. Carbohydrate intolerance D. Cardiac arrhythmia

Last Answer : B. Ventricular hypertrophy

In post-myocardial infarction and other high cardiovascular risk subjects but without hypertension or heart failure, prolonged ACE inhibitor medication has been found to: A. Increase the chances of sudden cardiac death B. Reduce the incidence of fatal as well as nonfatal myocardial infarction or stroke C. Lower the risk of developing heart failure and diabetes D. Both ‘B‘ and ‘C’

Description : In post-myocardial infarction and other high cardiovascular risk subjects but without hypertension or heart failure, prolonged ACE inhibitor medication has been found to: A. Increase the chances of sudden cardiac death ... Lower the risk of developing heart failure and diabetes D. Both B and C'

Last Answer : D. Both ‘B‘ and ‘C

The following drug increases cardiac output in congestive heart failure without having any direct myocardial action: A. Captopril B. Digoxin C. Amrinone D. Dobutamine

Description : The following drug increases cardiac output in congestive heart failure without having any direct myocardial action: A. Captopril B. Digoxin C. Amrinone D. Dobutamine

Last Answer : A. Captopril

Morphine induced fall in blood pressure involves the following factors except: A. Direct cardiac depression B. Direct reduction of vascular tone C. Vasomotor centre depression D. Histamine release

Description : Morphine induced fall in blood pressure involves the following factors except: A. Direct cardiac depression B. Direct reduction of vascular tone C. Vasomotor centre depression D. Histamine release

Last Answer : A. Direct cardiac depression

Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs reduce the diuretic action of furosemide by: A. Preventing prostaglandin mediated intrarenal haemodynamic actions B. Blocking the action in ascending limb of loop of Henle. C. Enhancing salt and water reabsorption in distal tubule D. Increasing aldosterone secretion

Description : Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs reduce the diuretic action of furosemide by: A. Preventing prostaglandin mediated intrarenal haemodynamic actions B. Blocking the action in ascending limb of loop ... C. Enhancing salt and water reabsorption in distal tubule D. Increasing aldosterone secretion

Last Answer : A. Preventing prostaglandin mediated intrarenal haemodynamic actions

Which of the following are not determinants of a postoperative cardiac complication? A. Myocardial infarct 4 months previously. B. Clinical evidence of congestive heart failure in a patient with 8.5 gm. per dl. hemoglobin. C. Premature atrial or ventricular contractions on electrocardiogram. D. A harsh aortic systolic murmur. E. Age over 70 years.

Description : Which of the following are not determinants of a postoperative cardiac complication? A. Myocardial infarct 4 months previously. B. Clinical evidence of congestive heart failure in a patient with 8.5 gm ... on electrocardiogram. D. A harsh aortic systolic murmur. E. Age over 70 years.

Last Answer : Answer: B DISCUSSION: Clinical evidence of congestive heart failure in a patient with 8.5 gm. per dl. hemoglobin concentration is a misleading sign. Evidence of congestive ... or ventricular contractions on the electrocardiogram are less strong determinants of a postoperative cardiac complication

Quinidine has the following action on electrophysiological properties of the heart except: A. Decreases automaticity of Purkinje fibres B. Abolishes after depolarizations C. Prolongs refractory period of atrial fibres D. Decreases membrane responsiveness of atrial and ventricular fibres

Description : Quinidine has the following action on electrophysiological properties of the heart except: A. Decreases automaticity of Purkinje fibres B. Abolishes after depolarizations C. Prolongs refractory period of atrial fibres D. Decreases membrane responsiveness of atrial and ventricular fibres

Last Answer : B. Abolishes after depolarizations

Acute renal failure (ARF) may be caused by all of the following except (a) Acute tubular necrosis (ATN) due to drug therapy (e.g., aminoglycosides, contrast media) (b) Severe hypotension or circulatolry collapse (c) Decreased cardiac output, as from congestive heart failure (d) Hemolysis, myoglobinuria (e) Hyperkalemia

Description : Acute renal failure (ARF) may be caused by all of the following except (a) Acute tubular necrosis (ATN) due to drug therapy (e.g., aminoglycosides, contrast media) (b) Severe hypotension ... (c) Decreased cardiac output, as from congestive heart failure (d) Hemolysis, myoglobinuria (e) Hyperkalemia

Last Answer : Ans: E

n a failing heart therapeutic dose of digoxin has no effect on the following parameter: A. Cardiac output B. Heart rate C. Tone of ventricular fibres D. Cardiac vagal tone

Description : n a failing heart therapeutic dose of digoxin has no effect on the following parameter: A. Cardiac output B. Heart rate C. Tone of ventricular fibres D. Cardiac vagal tone

Last Answer : C. Tone of ventricular fibres

ignocaine is effective in the following cardiac arrhythmia(s): A. Atrial fibrillation B. Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia C. Digitalis induced ventricular extrasystoles D. All of the above

Description : ignocaine is effective in the following cardiac arrhythmia(s): A. Atrial fibrillation B. Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia C. Digitalis induced ventricular extrasystoles D. All of the above

Last Answer : C. Digitalis induced ventricular extrasystoles

Lignocaine is the preferred antiarrhythmic for emergency control of cardiac arrhythmias following acute myocardial infarction because: A. It has a rapidly developing and titratable antiarrhythmic action B. It causes little myocardial depression and hypotension C. It has broad spectrum antiarrhythmic efficacy in atrial as well as ventricular arrhythmias D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Description : Lignocaine is the preferred antiarrhythmic for emergency control of cardiac arrhythmias following acute myocardial infarction because: A. It has a rapidly developing and titratable antiarrhythmic action B. It causes ... atrial as well as ventricular arrhythmias D. Both A' and B' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Long-term maintenance therapy with digoxin is the best option in the following category of CHF patients: A. Hypertensive patients B. Patients with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C. Patients with associated atrial fibrillation D. Patients having cardiac valvular defects

Description : Long-term maintenance therapy with digoxin is the best option in the following category of CHF patients: A. Hypertensive patients B. Patients with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C. Patients with associated atrial fibrillation D. Patients having cardiac valvular defects

Last Answer : C. Patients with associated atrial fibrillation

Select the correct statement about combining antihypertensive drugs: A. Antihypertensive combinations should always be preferred over single drugs B. Combinations of antihypertensives with similar pattern of haemodynamic action are superior to those with dissimilar pattern C. Antihypertensives which act on different regulatory systems maintaining blood pressure should be combined D. A diuretic must be included whenever antihypertensives are combined

Description : Select the correct statement about combining antihypertensive drugs: A. Antihypertensive combinations should always be preferred over single drugs B. Combinations of antihypertensives with similar ... should be combined D. A diuretic must be included whenever antihypertensives are combined

Last Answer : C. Antihypertensives which act on different regulatory systems maintaining blood pressure should be combined

The following is true of mannitol except: A. It inhibits solute reabsorption in the thick ascending limb of loop of Henle B. It is contraindicated in patients with increased intracranial tension C. It is contraindicated in acute left ventricular failure D. It is not used to treat cardiac or hepatic or renal edema

Description : The following is true of mannitol except: A. It inhibits solute reabsorption in the thick ascending limb of loop of Henle B. It is contraindicated in patients with increased intracranial tension C. It ... acute left ventricular failure D. It is not used to treat cardiac or hepatic or renal edema

Last Answer : B. It is contraindicated in patients with increased intracranial tension

The selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors have overcome the following limitation(s) of typical tricyclic antidepressants: A. Frequent anticholinergic, sedative and hypotensive side effects B. High risk of cardiac arrhythmias and seizures in overdose C. Delayed response

Description : The selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors have overcome the following limitation(s) of typical tricyclic antidepressants: A. Frequent anticholinergic, sedative and hypotensive side effects B. High risk of cardiac arrhythmias and seizures in overdose C. Delayed response

Last Answer : D. It does not block neuronal uptake of biogenic amines

The following is true of β-adrenergic blocker therapy in CHF: A. They are added to conventional therapy after cardiac compensation is restored B. They are indicated only in severe (NYHA class IV) heart failure C. They are to be used only at low doses D. All of the above

Description : The following is true of β-adrenergic blocker therapy in CHF: A. They are added to conventional therapy after cardiac compensation is restored B. They are indicated only in severe (NYHA class IV) heart failure C. They are to be used only at low doses D. All of the above

Last Answer : A. They are added to conventional therapy after cardiac compensation is restored

The basis for use of β-adrenergic blockers in congestive heart failure (CHF) is: A. They exert positive inotropic effect in CHF B. They counteract deleterious effect of sympathetic overactivity on the myocardium C. They exert antiischaemic effect on the heart D. They prevent cardiac arrhythmias

Description : The basis for use of β-adrenergic blockers in congestive heart failure (CHF) is: A. They exert positive inotropic effect in CHF B. They counteract deleterious effect of sympathetic overactivity on the myocardium C. They exert antiischaemic effect on the heart D. They prevent cardiac arrhythmias

Last Answer : B. They counteract deleterious effect of sympathetic overactivity on the myocardium

The basis for use of β -adrenergic blockers in congestive heart failure (CHF) is: A. They exert positive inotropic effect in CHF B. They counteract deleterious effect of sympathetic overactivity on the myocardium C. They exert antiischaemic effect on the heart D. They prevent cardiac arrhythmias

Description : The basis for use of β -adrenergic blockers in congestive heart failure (CHF) is: A. They exert positive inotropic effect in CHF B. They counteract deleterious effect of sympathetic overactivity on the myocardium C. They exert antiischaemic effect on the heart D. They prevent cardiac arrhythmias

Last Answer : B. They counteract deleterious effect of sympathetic overactivity on the myocardium

The following are true about cardiac contraction: a. the P wave initiates the atrial contraction b. atrial contribution to ventricular filling is most effective at fast heart rate. c. b wave is generated by atrial contraction d. fourth heart sound occurs during atrial contraction

Description : The following are true about cardiac contraction: a. the P wave initiates the atrial contraction b. atrial contribution to ventricular filling is most effective at fast heart rate. c. b wave is generated by atrial contraction d. fourth heart sound occurs during atrial contraction

Last Answer : fourth heart sound occurs during atrial contraction

All of the following are true about neurogenic shock except: A. There is a decrease in systemic vascular resistance and an increase in venous capacitance. B. Tachycardia or bradycardia may be observed, along with hypotension. C. The use of an alpha agonist such as phenylephrine is the mainstay of treatment. D. Severe head injury, spinal cord injury, and high spinal anesthesia may all cause neurogenic shock.

Description : All of the following are true about neurogenic shock except: A. There is a decrease in systemic vascular resistance and an increase in venous capacitance. B. Tachycardia or bradycardia may be ... Severe head injury, spinal cord injury, and high spinal anesthesia may all cause neurogenic shock.

Last Answer : Answer: C DISCUSSION: Neurogenic shock occurs when severe head injury, spinal cord injury, or pharmacologic sympathetic blockade leads to sympathetic denervation and loss of vasomotor tone. ... of treatment. The use of alpha-adrenergic agonist is infrequently necessary to treat neurogenic shock

Digoxin given for cardiac failure is extremely valuable in patients of (a) Thyrotoxicosis (b) Beriberi (c) Cor pulmonale (d) Atrial fibrillation

Description : Digoxin given for cardiac failure is extremely valuable in patients of (a) Thyrotoxicosis (b) Beriberi (c) Cor pulmonale (d) Atrial fibrillation

Last Answer : Ans: D

All of the following contribute to the antihypertensive action of propranolol except: A. Direct vasodilatation B. Decreased renin release from kidney C. Adaptation of blood vessels to reduced cardiac output D. Less noradrenaline release from sympathetic nerve endings

Description : All of the following contribute to the antihypertensive action of propranolol except: A. Direct vasodilatation B. Decreased renin release from kidney C. Adaptation of blood vessels to reduced cardiac output D. Less noradrenaline release from sympathetic nerve endings

Last Answer : A. Direct vasodilatation

All of the following contribute to the antihypertensive action of propranolol except: A. Direct vasodilatation B. Decreased renin release from kidney C. Adaptation of blood vessels to reduced cardiac output D. Less noradrenaline release from sympathetic nerve endings

Description : All of the following contribute to the antihypertensive action of propranolol except: A. Direct vasodilatation B. Decreased renin release from kidney C. Adaptation of blood vessels to reduced cardiac output D. Less noradrenaline release from sympathetic nerve endings

Last Answer : A. Direct vasodilatation

Therapeutic dose of digoxin in a normal individual has the following effects, except (a) Increase in the speed of myocardial contractility (b) No significant change in cardiac output (c) Relaxation of peripheral vascular bed (d) Increase in the force of myocardial contractility

Description : Therapeutic dose of digoxin in a normal individual has the following effects, except (a) Increase in the speed of myocardial contractility (b) No significant change in cardiac output (c) Relaxation of peripheral vascular bed (d) Increase in the force of myocardial contractility

Last Answer : Ans: C

Which of the following drugs can afford both haemodynamic improvement as well as disease modifying benefits in CHF: A. Furosemide B. Milrinone C. Losartan D. Digoxin

Description : Which of the following drugs can afford both haemodynamic improvement as well as disease modifying benefits in CHF: A. Furosemide B. Milrinone C. Losartan D. Digoxin

Last Answer : C. Losartan

How do parasympathetic neural signals affect the working of the heart? (a) Reduce both heart rate and cardiac output. (b) Heart rate is increased without affecting the cardiac output. (c) Both heart rate and cardiac output increase. (d) Heart rate decreases but cardiac output increases.

Description : How do parasympathetic neural signals affect the working of the heart? (a) Reduce both heart rate and cardiac output. (b) Heart rate is increased without affecting the cardiac output. (c) Both heart rate and cardiac output increase. (d) Heart rate decreases but cardiac output increases.

Last Answer : (a) Reduce both heart rate and cardiac output.

The following class of gastric antisecretory drug also reduce gastric motility and have primary effect on juice volume, with less marked effect on acid and pepsin content: A. Histamine H2 blockers B. Anticholinergics C. Proton pump inhibitors D. Prostaglandins

Description : The following class of gastric antisecretory drug also reduce gastric motility and have primary effect on juice volume, with less marked effect on acid and pepsin A. Histamine H2 blockers B. Anticholinergics C. Proton pump inhibitors D. Prostaglandins

Last Answer : B. Anticholinergics

Rapid intravenous injection of clonidine causes rise in BP due to: A. Stimulation of vasomotor centre B. Release of noradrenaline from adrenergic nerve endings C. Agonistic action on vascular α2 adrenergic receptors D. Cardiac stimulation

Description : Rapid intravenous injection of clonidine causes rise in BP due to: A. Stimulation of vasomotor centre B. Release of noradrenaline from adrenergic nerve endings C. Agonistic action on vascular α2 adrenergic receptors D. Cardiac stimulation

Last Answer : C. Agonistic action on vascular α2 adrenergic receptors

The following is true of proton pump inhibitors except: A. They are the most effective drugs for Zolinger Ellison syndrome B. Their prolonged use can cause atrophy of gastric mucosa C. They inhibit growth of H. pylori in stomach D. They have no effect on gastric motilit

Description : The following is true of proton pump inhibitors except: A. They are the most effective drugs for Zolinger Ellison syndrome B. Their prolonged use can cause atrophy of gastric mucosa C. They inhibit growth of H. pylori in stomach D. They have no effect on gastric motilit

Last Answer : B. Their prolonged use can cause atrophy of gastric mucosa

Advantages of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) include the following except: A. No interference with ejaculation and orgasm B. Minimal sedative action C. Unlikely to cause fall in BP D. Lack of seizure precipitating potential

Description : Advantages of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) include the following except: A. No interference with ejaculation and orgasm B. Minimal sedative action C. Unlikely to cause fall in BP D. Lack of seizure precipitating potential

Last Answer : A. No interference with ejaculation and orgasm