The most likely mechanism of antihypertensive action of thiazide diuretics in the long-term is: A. Reduction of circulating blood volume B. Reduction in cardiac output C. Decreased sympathetic tone D. Reduction in total peripheral vascular resistance and improved compliance of resistance vessels

The most likely mechanism of antihypertensive action
of thiazide diuretics in the long-term is:
A. Reduction of circulating blood volume
B. Reduction in cardiac output
C. Decreased sympathetic tone
D. Reduction in total peripheral vascular resistance and improved compliance of resistance
vessels
by

1 Answer

Answer :

D. Reduction in total peripheral vascular resistance and improved compliance of resistance
vessels
by

Related questions

All of the following contribute to the antihypertensive action of propranolol except: A. Direct vasodilatation B. Decreased renin release from kidney C. Adaptation of blood vessels to reduced cardiac output D. Less noradrenaline release from sympathetic nerve endings

Description : All of the following contribute to the antihypertensive action of propranolol except: A. Direct vasodilatation B. Decreased renin release from kidney C. Adaptation of blood vessels to reduced cardiac output D. Less noradrenaline release from sympathetic nerve endings

Last Answer : A. Direct vasodilatation

All of the following contribute to the antihypertensive action of propranolol except: A. Direct vasodilatation B. Decreased renin release from kidney C. Adaptation of blood vessels to reduced cardiac output D. Less noradrenaline release from sympathetic nerve endings

Description : All of the following contribute to the antihypertensive action of propranolol except: A. Direct vasodilatation B. Decreased renin release from kidney C. Adaptation of blood vessels to reduced cardiac output D. Less noradrenaline release from sympathetic nerve endings

Last Answer : A. Direct vasodilatation

As antihypertensives the thiazide diuretics have the following advantages except: A. High ceiling antihypertensive action B. Absence of CNS side effects C. Absence of tolerance development D. Low cost

Description : As antihypertensives the thiazide diuretics have the following advantages except: A. High ceiling antihypertensive action B. Absence of CNS side effects C. Absence of tolerance development D. Low cost

Last Answer : A. High ceiling antihypertensive action

The following is not a feature of thiazide diuretics used as antihypertensive: A. They do not cause symptomatic postural hypotension B. The dose has to be titrated over a wide range according to the response C. They restore responsiveness to other antihypertensives when tolerance has developed D. They decrease renal calcium excretion which may improve calcium balance in elderly patients

Description : The following is not a feature of thiazide diuretics used as antihypertensive: A. They do not cause symptomatic postural hypotension B. The dose has to be titrated over a wide range ... has developed D. They decrease renal calcium excretion which may improve calcium balance in elderly patients

Last Answer : B. The dose has to be titrated over a wide range according to the response

Methyldopa lowers BP by: A. Inhibiting dopa decarboxylase in adrenergic nerve endings B. Generating α-methyl noradrenaline in brain which reduces sympathetic tone C. Generating α-methyl noradrenaline which acts as a false transmitter in peripheral adrenergic nerve endings D. Activating vascular dopamine receptors

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Last Answer : B. Generating α-methyl noradrenaline in brain which reduces sympathetic tone

The antihypertensive action of calcium channel blockers is characterized by the following except: A. Delayed onset; blood pressure starts falling after 1–2 weeks therapy B. Lack of central side effects C. No compromise of male sexual function D. Safety in peripheral vascular diseases

Description : The antihypertensive action of calcium channel blockers is characterized by the following except: A. Delayed onset; blood pressure starts falling after 1–2 weeks therapy B. Lack of central side effects C. No compromise of male sexual function D. Safety in peripheral vascular diseases

Last Answer : A. Delayed onset; blood pressure starts falling after 1–2 weeks therapy

Combined tablets of thiazide or high ceiling diuretics with potassium chloride are not recommended because: A. Potassium absorbed while diuresis is occurring is largely excreted out B. Potassium administered concurrently diminishes the diuretic action C. Potassium chloride in tablet formulation is likely to cause gut ulceration D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Combined tablets of thiazide or high ceiling diuretics with potassium chloride are not recommended because: A. Potassium absorbed while diuresis is occurring is largely excreted out B. Potassium administered concurrently ... is likely to cause gut ulceration D. Both A' and C' are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

Morphine induced fall in blood pressure involves the following factors except: A. Direct cardiac depression B. Direct reduction of vascular tone C. Vasomotor centre depression D. Histamine release

Description : Morphine induced fall in blood pressure involves the following factors except: A. Direct cardiac depression B. Direct reduction of vascular tone C. Vasomotor centre depression D. Histamine release

Last Answer : A. Direct cardiac depression

The primary site of action of thiazide diuretics is: A. Proximal tubule B. Ascending limb of loop of Henle C. Cortical diluting segment D. Collecting ducts

Description : The primary site of action of thiazide diuretics is: A. Proximal tubule B. Ascending limb of loop of Henle C. Cortical diluting segment D. Collecting ducts

Last Answer : C. Cortical diluting segment

Thiazide diuretics enhance K+ elimination in urine primarily by: A. Inhibiting proximal tubular K+ reabsorption B. Inhibiting Na+ K+-2Cl– cotransport in the ascending limb of loop of Henle C. Increasing the availability of Na+ in the distal tubular fluid to exchange with interstitial K+ D. Potentiating the action of aldosterone

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Last Answer : C. Increasing the availability of Na+ in the distal tubular fluid to exchange with interstitial K

Thiazide diuretics do not potentiate the antihypertensive action of one of the following drugs: A. Metoprolol B. Nifedipine C. Hydralazine D. Captopril

Description : Thiazide diuretics do not potentiate the antihypertensive action of one of the following drugs: A. Metoprolol B. Nifedipine C. Hydralazine D. Captopril

Last Answer : B. Nifedipine

Methyldopa differs from clonidine in the following respect: A. It is less likely to cause rebound hypertension on sudden discontinuation B. It does not reduce plasma renin activity C. It has a central as well as peripheral site of antihypertensive action D. It does not produce central side effect

Description : Methyldopa differs from clonidine in the following respect: A. It is less likely to cause rebound hypertension on sudden discontinuation B. It does not reduce plasma renin activity C. It has a central as well as peripheral site of antihypertensive action D. It does not produce central side effect

Last Answer : A. It is less likely to cause rebound hypertension on sudden discontinuation

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct concerning the cardiovascular response to shock? a. Changes in cardiac contractile function shift the Frank Starling curve up and down b. Venoconstriction from skeletal muscle is a significant contributor to the restoration of blood volume with shock c. Arterial vasoconstriction affects all vascular beds equally d. The total circulating blood volume is equally split between the arterial and venous system

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Long-term thiazide therapy can cause hyperglycaemia by: A. Reducing insulin release B. Interfering with glucose utilization in tissues C. Increasing sympathetic activity D. Increasing corticosteroid secretion

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Last Answer : A. Reducing insulin release

ndapamide differs from other diuretics in that: A. It has selective antihypertensive action at doses which cause little diuresis B. It is a more efficacious antihypertensive C. Its antihypertensive action develops more rapidly D. All of the above

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Last Answer : A. It has selective antihypertensive action at doses which cause little diuresis

Low dose therapy with the following category of antihypertensive drugs has been found to be more advantageous in the long-term than high dose therapy with the same drugs: A. β adrenergic blockers B. α1 adrenergic blockers C. Central sympatholytics D. Diuretics

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Last Answer : D. Diuretics

The primary mechanism of beneficial effect of glyceryl trinitrate in classical angina pectoris is: A. Increase in total coronary blood flow B. Redistribution of coronary blood flow C. Reduction of cardiac preload D. Reduction of cardiac afterload

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The following factor is not involved in the causation of hypotension due to spinal anaesthesia: A. Histamine release B. Reduced sympathetic vasoconstrictor tone C. Decreased venous return from the lower limbs D. Bradycardia

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Individual drugs of thiazide and related class of diuretics differ markedly from each other in the following respect? A. Diuretic efficacy B. Diuretic potency C. Side effects D. Propensity to cause hyperkalemia

Description : Individual drugs of thiazide and related class of diuretics differ markedly from each other in the following respect? A. Diuretic efficacy B. Diuretic potency C. Side effects D. Propensity to cause hyperkalemia

Last Answer : B. Diuretic potency

Choose the correct statement about thiazide diuretics: A. They act in the proximal convoluted tubule B. They are uricosuric C. They augment corticomedullary osmotic gradient D. They induce diuresis in acidosis as well as alkalosis

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Last Answer : D. They induce diuresis in acidosis as well as alkalosis

Thiazide diuretics and furosemide have directionally opposite effect on the net renal excretion of the following substance: A. Uric acid B. Calcium C. Magnesium D. Bicarbonate

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Last Answer : B. Calcium

Thiazide diuretics are the preferred first line antihypertensives for the following category of patients: A. Young hypertensives B. Physically and sexually active male hypertensives C. Elderly obese hypertensives D. Diabetic hypertensives

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Last Answer : C. Elderly obese hypertensives

The principles of antihypertensive drug usage enunciated in JNC VI and WHO-ISH guidelines include the following except: A. Therapy for grade I and II hypertension should be initiated with a single drug B. Dose of thiazide diuretic should be 12.5-25 mg hydrochlorothiazide or equivalent per day C. All subjects with BP higher than 140/90 mmHg should be put on antihypertensive medication immediately D. If the drug chosen initially fails to lower BP, it should be replaced by a drug/combination from another class

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Last Answer : C. All subjects with BP higher than 140/90 mmHg should be put on antihypertensive medication immediately

The most important mechanism of bacterial resistance to an aminoglycoside antibiotic is: A. Plasmid mediated acquisition of aminoglycoside conjugating enzyme B. Mutational acquisition of aminoglycoside hydrolysing enzyme C. Mutation reducing affinity of ribosomal protein for the antibiotic D. Mutational loss of porin channels

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Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors reduce the following haemodynamic parameters in congestive heart failure except: A. Systemic vascular resistance B. Right atrial pressure C. Cardiac output D. Heart rate × pressure product

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Last Answer : C. Cardiac output

The following factors enhance renin release from the kidney except: A. Fall in blood pressure B. Reduction in blood volume C. Enhanced sympathetic activity D. Volume overload

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Last Answer : D. Volume overload

Beneficial effects of β-adrenoceptor blockers in CHF include the following except: A. Antagonism of ventricular wall stress enhancing action of sympathetic overactivity B. Antagonism of vasoconstriction due to sympathetic overactivity C. Prevention of pathological remodeling of ventricular myocardium D. Prevention of dangerous cardiac arrhythmias

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Last Answer : B. Antagonism of vasoconstriction due to sympathetic overactivity

Relationship between arterial blood pressure (BP), cardiac outpur (CO) and peripheral vascular resistance (PVR) can be described as (a) BP = COxPVR (b) BP = CO/PVR (c) BP = PVR/CO (d) None of the above

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Last Answer : Ans: A

Which of the following statements about septic shock are true? A. A circulating myocardial depressant factor may account for the cardiac dysfunction sometimes seen with shock due to sepsis or SIRS. B. A cardiac index (CI) of 6 liters per minute per square meter of body surface, a pulmonary capillary wedge pressure of 15 mm. Hg, and a systemic vascular resistance index (SVRI) of 800 dynes-sec/(cm 5-m 2) is a hemodynamic profile consistent with septic shock. C. An increase in SvO 2 in septic patients may be explained by the finding of anatomic arteriovenous shunts. D. Results of human trials employing antimediator therapy, such as antiendotoxin antibodies, IL-1 receptor antagonist, and tumor necrosis factor (TNF) antibodies, have confirmed animal studies that demonstrate a significant im

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Last Answer : Answer: AB DISCUSSION: Shock due to sepsis or SIRS frequently manifests as a hyperdynamic cardiovascular response, consisting of an elevated CI and a decreased SVR or SVRI. Occasionally, ... been encouraging thus far in human clinical trials, despite the promising results from many animal studies

Select the action of vasopressin exerted through the V1 subtype receptors: A. Release of coagulation factor VIII and von Willebrands factor from vascular endothelium B. Increased peristalsis of gut C. Dilatation of blood vessels D. Increased water permeability of renal collecting ducts

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Last Answer : B. Increased peristalsis of gut

Which one of the following is lest likely to be useful in the therapy of hypercalcemia? (a) Calcitonin (b) Glucocorticoids (c) Plicamycin (d) Parenteral infusion of phosphate (e) Thiazide diuretics

Description : Which one of the following is lest likely to be useful in the therapy of hypercalcemia? (a) Calcitonin (b) Glucocorticoids (c) Plicamycin (d) Parenteral infusion of phosphate (e) Thiazide diuretics

Last Answer : Ans: E

Choose the correct statement about the action of nitrates on coronary vessels: A. They mitigate angina pectoris by increasing total coronary flow B. They preferentially dilate conducting arteries without affecting resistance arterioles C. They preferentially dilate autoregulatory arterioles without affecting the larger arteries D. They increase subepicardial blood flow without affecting subendocardial blood flow

Description : Choose the correct statement about the action of nitrates on coronary vessels: A. They mitigate angina pectoris by increasing total coronary flow B. They preferentially dilate conducting ... the larger arteries D. They increase subepicardial blood flow without affecting subendocardial blood flow

Last Answer : B. They preferentially dilate conducting arteries without affecting resistance arterioles

Angiotensin II causes rise in blood pressure by: A. Direct vasoconstriction B. Releasing adrenaline from adrenal medulla C. Increasing central sympathetic tone D. All of the above

Description : Angiotensin II causes rise in blood pressure by: A. Direct vasoconstriction B. Releasing adrenaline from adrenal medulla C. Increasing central sympathetic tone D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

The usual cardiovascular effect of levodopa is: A. Bradycardia due to increased vagal tone B. Rise in blood pressure due to increased noradrenaline content of adrenergic nerve endings C. Fall in blood pressure due to decrease in sympathetic tone D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Description : The usual cardiovascular effect of levodopa is: A. Bradycardia due to increased vagal tone B. Rise in blood pressure due to increased noradrenaline content of adrenergic nerve endings C. Fall in blood pressure due to decrease in sympathetic tone D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Last Answer : C. Fall in blood pressure due to decrease in sympathetic tone

n a failing heart therapeutic dose of digoxin has no effect on the following parameter: A. Cardiac output B. Heart rate C. Tone of ventricular fibres D. Cardiac vagal tone

Description : n a failing heart therapeutic dose of digoxin has no effect on the following parameter: A. Cardiac output B. Heart rate C. Tone of ventricular fibres D. Cardiac vagal tone

Last Answer : C. Tone of ventricular fibres

Therapeutic dose of digoxin in a normal individual has the following effects, except (a) Increase in the speed of myocardial contractility (b) No significant change in cardiac output (c) Relaxation of peripheral vascular bed (d) Increase in the force of myocardial contractility

Description : Therapeutic dose of digoxin in a normal individual has the following effects, except (a) Increase in the speed of myocardial contractility (b) No significant change in cardiac output (c) Relaxation of peripheral vascular bed (d) Increase in the force of myocardial contractility

Last Answer : Ans: C

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning septic shock? a. The clinical picture of gram negative septic shock is specifically different than shock associated with other infectious agents b. The circulatory derangements of septic shock precede the development of metabolic abnormalities c. Splanchnic vascular resistance falls in similar fashion to overall systemic vascular resistance d. Despite normal mechanisms of intrinsic expansion of the circulating blood volume, exogenous volume resuscitation is necessary

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning septic shock? a. The clinical picture of gram negative septic shock is specifically different than shock associated with ... mechanisms of intrinsic expansion of the circulating blood volume, exogenous volume resuscitation is necessary

Last Answer : Answer: d The clinical findings in sepsis and septic shock represent the host response to infection. Gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria, viruses, fungi, rickettsiae, and ... intravascular volume, exogenous volume resuscitation must be provided to restore venous return and ventricular filling

A 68-year-old male who underwent a repair of an abdominal aortic aneurysm 5 days ago, develops tachycardia, tachypnea, hypotension with cool, pale, mottled cyanotic extremities. He is agitated and complains of shortness of breath. Which of the following statement(s) is/ are correct concerning his diagnosis and management? a. Myocardial ischemia secondary to preexisting coronary artery disease is most likely the underlying cause of this problem b. Invasive hemodynamic monitoring with a Swan-Gantz catheter will demonstrate a low cardiac output, a high systemic vascular resistance, and elevated cardiac filling pressures c. The use of morphine sulphate and nitrates should be part of the initial management d. The primary pharmacologic treatment involves the use of moderate doses of inotropic ag

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Last Answer : Answer: a, b, d Intrinsic cardiogenic shock results from failure of the heart as an effective pump. Coronary artery disease is the most common cause of myocardial ... hemodynamic monitoring. Infusion of afterload-reducing agents can be administered in conjunction with inotropic support

Rapid intravenous injection of clonidine causes rise in BP due to: A. Stimulation of vasomotor centre B. Release of noradrenaline from adrenergic nerve endings C. Agonistic action on vascular α2 adrenergic receptors D. Cardiac stimulation

Description : Rapid intravenous injection of clonidine causes rise in BP due to: A. Stimulation of vasomotor centre B. Release of noradrenaline from adrenergic nerve endings C. Agonistic action on vascular α2 adrenergic receptors D. Cardiac stimulation

Last Answer : C. Agonistic action on vascular α2 adrenergic receptors

The antianginal effect of propranolol may be attributed to which one of the following (a) Block of exercise – induced tachycardia (b) Decreased end – diastolic ventricular volume (c) Dilation of consticted coronary vessels (d) Increased cardiac force (e) Increased resting heart rate

Description : The antianginal effect of propranolol may be attributed to which one of the following (a) Block of exercise – induced tachycardia (b) Decreased end – diastolic ventricular volume (c) Dilation of consticted coronary vessels (d) Increased cardiac force (e) Increased resting heart rate

Last Answer : Ans: A

Used alone the following antihypertensive drug tends to increase cardiac work and can precipitate angina: A. Clonidine B. Hydralazine C. Captopril D. Prazosin

Description : Used alone the following antihypertensive drug tends to increase cardiac work and can precipitate angina: A. Clonidine B. Hydralazine C. Captopril D. Prazosin

Last Answer : B. Hydralazine

Digitalis slows the heart in congestive heart failure by: A. Increasing vagal tone B. Decreasing sympathetic overactivity C. Direct depression of sinoatrial node D. All of the above

Description : Digitalis slows the heart in congestive heart failure by: A. Increasing vagal tone B. Decreasing sympathetic overactivity C. Direct depression of sinoatrial node D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Morphine induced constipation involves the following mechanisms except: A. Increase in tone and decrease in propulsive activity of intestinal muscles B. Antivagal action C. Spasm of gastrointestinal sphincters D. Reduction of gastrointestinal secretions

Description : Morphine induced constipation involves the following mechanisms except: A. Increase in tone and decrease in propulsive activity of intestinal muscles B. Antivagal action C. Spasm of gastrointestinal sphincters D. Reduction of gastrointestinal secretions

Last Answer : B. Antivagal action

Fixed dose combination formulations are not necessarily appropriate for: A. Drugs administered in standard doses B. Drugs acting by the same mechanism C. Antitubercular drugs D. Antihypertensive drugs

Description : Fixed dose combination formulations are not necessarily appropriate for: A. Drugs administered in standard doses B. Drugs acting by the same mechanism C. Antitubercular drugs D. Antihypertensive drugs

Last Answer : C. Antitubercular drugs

The primary mechanism of beneficial effect of glyceryl trinitrate in classical angina pectoris is (a) Increase in total coronary blood flow (b) Redistribution of coronary blood flow (c) Reduction of cardiac preload (d) Reduction of cardiac after load

Description : The primary mechanism of beneficial effect of glyceryl trinitrate in classical angina pectoris is (a) Increase in total coronary blood flow (b) Redistribution of coronary blood flow (c) Reduction of cardiac preload (d) Reduction of cardiac after load

Last Answer : Ans: C

Shortacting nifedipine formulation is not recommended now for treatment of hypertension because: A. It tends to increase heart rate and cardiac work B. It invokes pronounced reflex sympathetic discharges C. It can impair haemodynamics in patients with diastolic dysfunction D. All of the above

Description : Shortacting nifedipine formulation is not recommended now for treatment of hypertension because: A. It tends to increase heart rate and cardiac work B. It invokes pronounced reflex sympathetic discharges C. It can impair haemodynamics in patients with diastolic dysfunction D. All of the above

Last Answer : D. All of the above

Raised plasma aldosterone level in CHF contributes to disease progression by exerting the following effects except: A. Fibrotic remodeling of myocardium B. Hyperkalemia and hypermagnesemia C. Increasing cardiac preload by Na+ and water retention D. Enhancing cardiotoxicity of sympathetic overactivity

Description : Raised plasma aldosterone level in CHF contributes to disease progression by exerting the following effects except: A. Fibrotic remodeling of myocardium B. Hyperkalemia and hypermagnesemia C. ... cardiac preload by Na+ and water retention D. Enhancing cardiotoxicity of sympathetic overactivity

Last Answer : B. Hyperkalemia and hypermagnesemia