What type of midwife should I become?

What type of midwife should I become?
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Answer :

Well mister sister...this happens to be up my alley. I made this same decision myself a few years back. I am now happily practicing as a nurse-midwife. Ultimately, I decided that getting a CNM would be allow me more options...like...the ability to practice in a hospital, the ability to prescribe medication, the ability to be insured. (certified midwives can be insured, but there is only one insurance company that provides for homebirth in the country right now), and the ability to make a decent living doing what I love. I think the main advantage of becoming a certified midwife is the training. It is much more of an apprentice based model. Hope that helps.
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Related questions

Would you like to go to school to become a midwife?

Description : Would you like to go to school to become a midwife?

Last Answer : No, I would not like to go to school to become a midwife. However, I am sure there are people who would like to do so.

Is there a midwife school one attends to become a midwife, or what steps would you need to take to become a midwife?

Description : Is there a midwife school one attends to become a midwife, or what steps would you need to take to become a midwife?

Last Answer : Many midwives attend nursing school, or a midwife training program. Regardless of what path you take, there are exams you must pass before becoming a midwife. Good luck!

How to Become a Midwife

Description : How to Become a Midwife

Last Answer : How to Become a Midwife Midwives are part of a health care profession who provide prenatal and postpartum care to mothers and their infants in low-risk cases. There are two kinds of midwifery in ... high-risk, you must pass on your expecting mother to obsetrician for a more specialized primary care.

Has anyone else here trained as a Midwife?

Description : Has anyone else here trained as a Midwife?

Last Answer : I did not take midwife training, but I had 4 home births (yeah, I’m kind of hard core). PM me for the details if you wish.

Has anyone experienced/considered childbirth at home attended by a midwife?

Description : Has anyone experienced/considered childbirth at home attended by a midwife?

Last Answer : and miss out on the epidural? No way! My son was born in a hospital…...

Midwife What ?

Last Answer : Midwife Yes Those Poorly educated Women , those Baby Delivery Get it done. Them Midwife To say Is.

Certified Nurse Midwife?

Description : Certified Nurse Midwife?

Last Answer : A Certified Nurse Midwife provides care to pregnant women underthe supervision of a obstetrician or obstetrician-gynecologist.These nurses undergo in depth training that covers all aspect ofprenatal care ... the medical practice of deliveringinfants. A midwife is also expected to perform moral an

Where can I find a midwife school?

Description : Where can I find a midwife school?

Last Answer : Midwifery education in Canada leads to a baccalaureate level degree in midwifery. It

The nurse advises the patient undergoing photodynamic therapy (PDT) for macular degeneration to avoid exposure to direct sunlight or bright lights for a) the first five days after the procedure. Photodynamic therapy includes the use of verteporfin, a light-activated dye. The dye within the blood vessels near the surface of the skin could become activated with exposure to strong light, such as sunlight or bright lights. Ordinary indoor light is not a problem. The patient should be counseled to wear protective clothing, such as long-sleeved shirts, sunglasses, and wide-brimmed hats, if the patient has to go outdoors during daylight hours in the first five days post-treatment. Inadvertent sunlight exposure can lead to severe blistering of the skin and sunburn.

Description : The nurse advises the patient undergoing photodynamic therapy (PDT) for macular degeneration to avoid exposure to direct sunlight or bright lights for a) the first five days after the procedure. ... should avoid exposure to direct sunlight or bright lights for the first five days post-treatment.

Last Answer : a) the first five days after the procedure. Photodynamic therapy includes the use of verteporfin, a light-activated dye. The dye within the blood vessels near the surface of the skin could ... days post-treatment. Inadvertent sunlight exposure can lead to severe blistering of the skin and sunburn.

The nurse providing education regarding sexually transmitted diseases includes which of the following statements regarding herpes virus 2 (herpes genitalis)? a) In pregnant women with active herpes virus, babies delivered vaginally may become infected with the virus. Therefore, a cesarean delivery may be performed if the virus recurs near the time of delivery.

Description : The nurse providing education regarding sexually transmitted diseases includes which of the following statements regarding herpes virus 2 (herpes genitalis)? a) In pregnant women with active herpes virus, babies ... very difficult to kill. Usually, the virus is killed at room temperature by drying.

Last Answer : a) In pregnant women with active herpes virus, babies delivered vaginally may become infected with the virus. Therefore, a cesarean delivery may be performed if the virus recurs near the time of delivery.

Which of the following ECG characteristics is usually seen when a patient’s serum potassium level is low? a) U wave The U wave is an ECG waveform characteristic that may reflect Purkinje fiber repolarization. It is usually seen when a patient’s serum potassium level is low. b) T wave The T wave is an ECG characteristic reflecting repolarization of the ventricles. It may become tall or “peaked” if a patient’s serum potassium level is high. c) P wave The P wave is an ECG characteristic reflecting conduction of an electrical impulse through the atria. d) QT interval The QT interval is an ECG characteristic reflecting the time from ventricular depolarization to repolarization.

Description : Which of the following ECG characteristics is usually seen when a patient's serum potassium level is low? a) U wave The U wave is an ECG waveform characteristic that may ... interval The QT interval is an ECG characteristic reflecting the time from ventricular depolarization to repolarization.

Last Answer : a) U wave The U wave is an ECG waveform characteristic that may reflect Purkinje fiber repolarization. It is usually seen when a patient’s serum potassium level is low.

For individuals known to be dying by virtue of age and/or diagnoses, which of the following signs indicate approaching death: a) Increased restlessness As the oxygen supply to the brain decreases, the patient may become restless. b) Increased wakefulness As the body weakens, the patient will sleep more and begin to detach from the environment. c) Increased eating For many patients, refusal of food is an indication that they are ready to die. d) Increased urinary output Based upon decreased intake, urinary output generally decreases in amount and frequency.

Description : For individuals known to be dying by virtue of age and/or diagnoses, which of the following signs indicate approaching death: a) Increased restlessness As the oxygen supply to the ... Increased urinary output Based upon decreased intake, urinary output generally decreases in amount and frequency.

Last Answer : a) Increased restlessness As the oxygen supply to the brain decreases, the patient may become restless.

The most common type of brain neoplasm is the a) glioma. Gliomas are the most common brain neoplasms, accounting for about 45% of all brain tumors.

Description : The most common type of brain neoplasm is the a) glioma. Gliomas are the most common brain neoplasms, accounting for about 45% of all brain tumors. b) angioma. Angiomas account for approximately 4% of brain ... for 15-20% of all brain tumors. d) neuroma. Neuromas account for 7% of all brain tumors.

Last Answer : a) glioma. Gliomas are the most common brain neoplasms, accounting for about 45% of all brain tumors.

Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for transient ischemic attacks and ischemic strokes? a) History of smoking. Modifiable risk factors for TIAs and ischemic stroke include hypertension, Type 1 diabetes, cardiac disease, history of smoking, and chronic alcoholism.

Description : Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for transient ischemic attacks and ischemic strokes? a) History of smoking. Modifiable risk factors for TIAs and ischemic stroke include hypertension, Type ... ) Advanced age Advanced age, gender, and race are non-modifiable risk factors for stroke.

Last Answer : a) History of smoking. Modifiable risk factors for TIAs and ischemic stroke include hypertension, Type 1 diabetes, cardiac disease, history of smoking, and chronic alcoholism.

A patient has had neurologic deficits lasting for more than 24 hours, and now the symptoms are resolving. The nurse concludes that the patient has had which type of stroke? a) Reversible ischemic neurologic deficit With a reversible ischemic neurologic deficit, the patient has more pronounced signs and symptoms that last more than 24 hours; symptoms resolve in a matter of days without any permanent neurologic deficit.

Description : A patient has had neurologic deficits lasting for more than 24 hours, and now the symptoms are resolving. The nurse concludes that the patient has had which type of stroke? a) Reversible ... and symptoms have stabilized with no indication of further progression of the hypoxic insult to the brain.

Last Answer : a) Reversible ischemic neurologic deficit With a reversible ischemic neurologic deficit, the patient has more pronounced signs and symptoms that last more than 24 hours; symptoms resolve in a matter of days without any permanent neurologic deficit.

Which type of glaucoma presents an ocular emergency? a) Acute angle-closure glaucoma Acute angle-closure glaucoma results in rapid progressive visual impairment.

Description : Which type of glaucoma presents an ocular emergency? a) Acute angle-closure glaucoma Acute angle-closure glaucoma results in rapid progressive visual impairment. b) Normal tension glaucoma Normal tension ... is treated initially with topical medications, with oral medications added at a later time.

Last Answer : a) Acute angle-closure glaucoma Acute angle-closure glaucoma results in rapid progressive visual impairment.

Which of the following statements describes the clinical manifestations of a delayed hypersensitivity (type IV) allergic reaction to latex? a) Signs and symptoms are localized to the area of exposure, usually the back of the hands. Clinical manifestations of a delayed hypersensitivity reaction are localized to the area of exposure.

Description : Which of the following statements describes the clinical manifestations of a delayed hypersensitivity (type IV) allergic reaction to latex? a) Signs and symptoms are localized to the area of ... minutes after exposure to latex, an immediate hypersensitivity (type I) allergic reaction has occurred.

Last Answer : a) Signs and symptoms are localized to the area of exposure, usually the back of the hands. Clinical manifestations of a delayed hypersensitivity reaction are localized to the area of exposure.

Which type of hypersensitivity reaction involves immune complexes formed when antigens bind to antibodies? a) Type III Type III hypersensitivity is associated with systemic lupus erythematosus, rheumatoid arthritis, serum sickness, certain types of nephritis, and some types of bacterial endocarditis.

Description : Which type of hypersensitivity reaction involves immune complexes formed when antigens bind to antibodies? a) Type III Type III hypersensitivity is associated with systemic lupus erythematosus, rheumatoid ... , or delayed-type, hypersensitivity occurs 24-72 hours after exposure to an allergen.

Last Answer : a) Type III Type III hypersensitivity is associated with systemic lupus erythematosus, rheumatoid arthritis, serum sickness, certain types of nephritis, and some types of bacterial endocarditis.

Which type of biopsy is used for nonpalpable lesions found on mammography? a) Stereotactic Stereotactic biopsy utilizes computer location of the suspicious area found on biopsy, followed by core needle insertion and sampling of tissue for pathologic examination.

Description : Which type of biopsy is used for nonpalpable lesions found on mammography? a) Stereotactic Stereotactic biopsy utilizes computer location of the suspicious area found on biopsy, followed by core needle insertion ... core biopsy is used when a tumor is relatively large and close to the skin surface.

Last Answer : a) Stereotactic Stereotactic biopsy utilizes computer location of the suspicious area found on biopsy, followed by core needle insertion and sampling of tissue for pathologic examination.

Of the following terms, which is used to refer to a type of gestational trophoblastic neoplasm? a) Hydatidiform mole Hydatidiform mole occurs in 1 in 1000 pregnancies.

Description : Of the following terms, which is used to refer to a type of gestational trophoblastic neoplasm? a) Hydatidiform mole Hydatidiform mole occurs in 1 in 1000 pregnancies. b) Dermoid cyst A dermoid cyst is an ... d) Bartholin's cyst Bartholin's cyst is a cyst in a paired vestibular gland in the vulva.

Last Answer : a) Hydatidiform mole Hydatidiform mole occurs in 1 in 1000 pregnancies.

Which type of medication may be used in the treatment of a patient with incontinence to inhibit contraction of the bladder? a) Anticholinergic agent Anticholinergic agents are considered first-line medications for urge incontinence.

Description : Which type of medication may be used in the treatment of a patient with incontinence to inhibit contraction of the bladder? a) Anticholinergic agent Anticholinergic agents are ... be treated using pseudoephedrine and phenylpropanolamine, ingredients found in over-the-counter decongestants.

Last Answer : a) Anticholinergic agent Anticholinergic agents are considered first-line medications for urge incontinence.

Which of the following clinical characteristics is associated with Type 2 diabetes (previously referred to as non-insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus [NIDDM])? a) Can control blood glucose through diet and exercise Oral hypoglycemic agents may improve blood glucose levels if dietary modification and exercise are unsuccessful.

Description : Which of the following clinical characteristics is associated with Type 2 diabetes (previously referred to as non-insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus [NIDDM])? a) Can control blood glucose ... islet cell antibodies Individuals with Type 2 diabetes do not demonstrate islet cell antibodies.

Last Answer : a) Can control blood glucose through diet and exercise Oral hypoglycemic agents may improve blood glucose levels if dietary modification and exercise are unsuccessful.

Which of the following clinical characteristics is associated with Type 1 diabetes (previously referred to as insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus [IDDM])? a) Presence of islet cell antibodies Individuals with Type 1 diabetes often have islet cell antibodies.

Description : Which of the following clinical characteristics is associated with Type 1 diabetes (previously referred to as insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus [IDDM])? a) Presence of islet cell antibodies ... Requirement for oral hypoglycemic agents Individuals with Type 1 diabetes need insulin to preserve life.

Last Answer : a) Presence of islet cell antibodies Individuals with Type 1 diabetes often have islet cell antibodies.

Which of the following terms is used to describe a chronic liver disease in which scar tissue surrounds the portal areas? a) Alcoholic cirrhosis This type of cirrhosis is due to chronic alcoholism and is the most common type of cirrhosis.

Description : Which of the following terms is used to describe a chronic liver disease in which scar tissue surrounds the portal areas? a) Alcoholic cirrhosis This type of cirrhosis is due to chronic alcoholism and ... to the state of liver disease in which the liver continues to be able to function effectively.

Last Answer : a) Alcoholic cirrhosis This type of cirrhosis is due to chronic alcoholism and is the most common type of cirrhosis.

Which type of jaundice in adults is the result of increased destruction of red blood cells? a) Hemolytic Hemolytic jaundice results because, although the liver is functioning normally, it cannot excrete the bilirubin as quickly as it is formed.

Description : Which type of jaundice in adults is the result of increased destruction of red blood cells? a) Hemolytic Hemolytic jaundice results because, although the liver is functioning normally, it cannot ... is the result of liver disease. d) Non-obstructive Non-obstructive jaundice occurs with hepatitis.

Last Answer : a) Hemolytic Hemolytic jaundice results because, although the liver is functioning normally, it cannot excrete the bilirubin as quickly as it is formed.

Which of the follow statements provides accurate information regarding cancer of the colon and rectum? a) Cancer of the colon and rectum is the second most common type of internal cancer in the United States. Cancer of the colon and rectum is the second most common type of internal cancer in the United States.

Description : Which of the follow statements provides accurate information regarding cancer of the colon and rectum? a) Cancer of the colon and rectum is the second most common type of internal cancer in the ... colon cancer. Colon cancer occurrence is higher in people with a family history of colon cancer.

Last Answer : a) Cancer of the colon and rectum is the second most common type of internal cancer in the United States. Cancer of the colon and rectum is the second most common type of internal cancer in the United States.

Which type of diarrhea is caused by increased production and secretion of water and electrolyes by the intestinal mucosa into the intestinal lumen? a) Secretory diarrhea Secretory diarrhea is usually high volume diarrhea and is caused by increased production and secretion of water and electrolytes by the intestinal mucosa into the intestinal lumen.

Description : Which type of diarrhea is caused by increased production and secretion of water and electrolyes by the intestinal mucosa into the intestinal lumen? a) Secretory diarrhea Secretory diarrhea is usually ... bowel. d) Diarrheal disease The most common cause of diarrheal disease is contaminated food.

Last Answer : a) Secretory diarrhea Secretory diarrhea is usually high volume diarrhea and is caused by increased production and secretion of water and electrolytes by the intestinal mucosa into the intestinal lumen.

In which type of cardiomyopathy does the heart muscle actually increase in size and mass weight, especially along the septum? a) Hypertrophic Because of the structural changes, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy had also been called idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) or asymmetric septal hypertrophy (ASH).

Description : In which type of cardiomyopathy does the heart muscle actually increase in size and mass weight, especially along the septum? a) Hypertrophic Because of the structural changes, hypertrophic ... of the right ventricle is progressively infiltrated and replaced by fibrous scar and adipose tissue

Last Answer : a) Hypertrophic Because of the structural changes, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy had also been called idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) or asymmetric septal hypertrophy (ASH).

Which type of chest configuration is typical of the patient with COPD? a) Barrel chest “Barrel chest” results from fixation of the ribs in the inspiratory position. b) Pigeon chest Pigeon chest results from a displaced sternum. c) Flail chest Flail chest results when the ribs are fractured. d) Funnel chest Funnel chest occurs when there is a depression in the lower portion of the sternum and is associated with Mafan’s syndrome or rickets.

Description : Which type of chest configuration is typical of the patient with COPD? a) Barrel chest Barrel chest results from fixation of the ribs in the inspiratory position. b) Pigeon chest Pigeon chest ... depression in the lower portion of the sternum and is associated with Mafan's syndrome or rickets.

Last Answer : a) Barrel chest “Barrel chest” results from fixation of the ribs in the inspiratory position.

Which type of sleep apnea is characterized by lack of airflow due to pharyngeal occlusion? a) Obstructive Obstructive sleep apnea occurs usually in men, especially those who are older and overweight. b) Simple Types of sleep apnea do not include a simple characterization. c) Mixed Mixed sleep apnea is a combination of central and obstructive apnea with one apneic episode. d) Central In central sleep apnea, the patient demonstrates simultaneous cessation of both airflow and respiratory movements.

Description : Which type of sleep apnea is characterized by lack of airflow due to pharyngeal occlusion? a) Obstructive Obstructive sleep apnea occurs usually in men, especially those who are older ... central sleep apnea, the patient demonstrates simultaneous cessation of both airflow and respiratory movements.

Last Answer : a) Obstructive Obstructive sleep apnea occurs usually in men, especially those who are older and overweight.

Fentanyl (Sublimaze) is categorized as which type of intravenous anesthetic agent? a) Neuroleptanalgesic Fentanyl is 75-100 times more potent than morphine and has about 25% of the duration of morphine (IV). b) Tranquilizer Examples of tranquilizers include midazolam (Versed) and diazepam (Valium). c) Opioid Opioids include morphine and meperidine hydrochloride (Demerol). d) Dissociative agent Ketamine is a dissociative agent.

Description : Fentanyl (Sublimaze) is categorized as which type of intravenous anesthetic agent? a) Neuroleptanalgesic Fentanyl is 75-100 times more potent than morphine and has about 25% of the duration ... morphine and meperidine hydrochloride (Demerol). d) Dissociative agent Ketamine is a dissociative agent.

Last Answer : a) Neuroleptanalgesic Fentanyl is 75-100 times more potent than morphine and has about 25% of the duration of morphine (IV).

Which of the following terms best describes a living will? a) Medical directive The living will is a type of advance medical directive in which the individual of sound mind documents treatment preferences. b) Proxy directive A proxy directive is the appointment and authorization of another individual to make medical decisions on behalf of the person who created an advance directive when he/she is no loner able to speak for him/herself.

Description : Which of the following terms best describes a living will? a) Medical directive The living will is a type of advance medical directive in which the individual of sound mind documents treatment preferences. b) ... to make health care decisions on his/her behalf when he/she is unable to do so.

Last Answer : a) Medical directive The living will is a type of advance medical directive in which the individual of sound mind documents treatment preferences.

The drug, Interleukin-2, is an example of which type of biologic response modifier? a) Cytokine Other cytokines include interferon alfa and filgrastim. b) Monoclonal antibodies Monoclonal antibodies include rituximab, trastuzumab, and gemtuzumab. c) Retinoids Retinoic acid is an example of a retinoid. d) Antimetabolites Antimetabolites are cell cycle-specific antineoplastic agents.

Description : The drug, Interleukin-2, is an example of which type of biologic response modifier? a) Cytokine Other cytokines include interferon alfa and filgrastim. b) Monoclonal antibodies Monoclonal ... an example of a retinoid. d) Antimetabolites Antimetabolites are cell cycle-specific antineoplastic agents.

Last Answer : a) Cytokine Other cytokines include interferon alfa and filgrastim.

The nurse anticipates that the immunosuppressed patient is at greatest risk for which type of shock? a) Septic Septic shock is associated with immunosuppression, extremes of age, malnourishment, chronic illness, and invasive procedures. b) Neurogenic Neurogenic shock is associated with spinal cord injury and anesthesia. c) Cardiogenic Cardiogenic shock is associated with disease of the heart. d) Anaphylactic Anaphylactic shock is associated with hypersensitivity reactions.

Description : The nurse anticipates that the immunosuppressed patient is at greatest risk for which type of shock? a) Septic Septic shock is associated with immunosuppression, extremes of age, ... disease of the heart. d) Anaphylactic Anaphylactic shock is associated with hypersensitivity reactions.

Last Answer : a) Septic Septic shock is associated with immunosuppression, extremes of age, malnourishment, chronic illness, and invasive procedures.

In which type of shock does the patient experiences a mismatch of blood flow to the cells? a) Distributive Distributive or vasogenic shock results from displacement of blood volume, creating a relative hypovolemia. b) Cardiogenic Cardiogenic shock results from the failure of a heart as a pump. c) Hypovolemic In hypovolemic shock, there is a decrease in the intravascular volume. d) Septic In septic shock, overwhelming infection results in a relative hypovolemia.

Description : In which type of shock does the patient experiences a mismatch of blood flow to the cells? a) Distributive Distributive or vasogenic shock results from displacement of blood volume, ... intravascular volume. d) Septic In septic shock, overwhelming infection results in a relative hypovolemia.

Last Answer : a) Distributive Distributive or vasogenic shock results from displacement of blood volume, creating a relative hypovolemia.

Through which of the following activities does the patient learn to consciously contract excretory sphincters and control voiding cues? a) Biofeedback Cognitively intact patients who have stress or urge incontinence may gain bladder control through biofeedback. b) Kegel exercises Kegel exercises are pelvic floor exercises that strengthen the pubococcygeus muscle. c) Habit training Habit training is used to try to keep the patient dry by strictly adhering to a toileting schedule and may be successful with stress, urge, or functional incontinence. d) Bladder training Habit training is a type of bladder training.

Description : Through which of the following activities does the patient learn to consciously contract excretory sphincters and control voiding cues? a) Biofeedback Cognitively intact patients who have stress or urge ... functional incontinence. d) Bladder training Habit training is a type of bladder training.

Last Answer : a) Biofeedback Cognitively intact patients who have stress or urge incontinence may gain bladder control through biofeedback.

Which type of Mendelian inherited condition results in both genders being affected equally in a vertical pattern? a) Automosomal dominant inheritance An individual who has an autosomal dominant inherited condition carries a gene mutation for that condition on one chromosome of a pair. b) Automosomal recessive inheritance The pattern of inheritance in autosomal recessive inherited conditions is different from that of autosomal dominant inherited conditions in that it is more horizontal than vertical, with relatives of a single generation tending to have the condition. c) X-linked inheritance X-linked conditions may be inherited in families in recessive or dominant patterns.

Description : Which type of Mendelian inherited condition results in both genders being affected equally in a vertical pattern? a) Automosomal dominant inheritance An individual who has an autosomal dominant ... that combine during early embryonic development leading to incomplete closure of the neural tube.

Last Answer : a) Automosomal dominant inheritance An individual who has an autosomal dominant inherited condition carries a gene mutation for that condition on one chromosome of a pair.

Which of the following types of cells have a latent ability to regenerate? a) Stable Stable cells have a latent ability to regenerate if they are damaged or destroyed and are found in the kidney, liver, and pancreas, among other body organs. b) Labile Labile cells multiply constantly to replace cells worn out by normal physiologic processes. c) Permanent Permanent cells include neurons — the nerve cell bodies, not their axons. Destruction of a neuron causes permanent loss, but axons may regenerate. d) Epithelial Epithelial cells are a type of labile cell that multiply constantly to replace cells worn out by normal physiologic processes.

Description : Which of the following types of cells have a latent ability to regenerate? a) Stable Stable cells have a latent ability to regenerate if they are damaged or destroyed and are found in the ... a type of labile cell that multiply constantly to replace cells worn out by normal physiologic processes.

Last Answer : a) Stable Stable cells have a latent ability to regenerate if they are damaged or destroyed and are found in the kidney, liver, and pancreas, among other body organs.

What is the minimum age for becoming a nurse in 19th century?

Description : What is the minimum age for becoming a nurse in 19th century?

Last Answer : Your question presumes that 21st cenury standards were applied in the 19th century. There was no certification of nurses until late in the 19th century. Florence Nightingale, the mother of Nursing didn; ... in 1890 was vastlly different from nursing in 1810. But both were in the 19th century.

What should I do with about 30 pints of frozen breast milk?

Description : What should I do with about 30 pints of frozen breast milk?

Last Answer : Well, do you have cats?

If you were sick in the hospital, what would differentiate a mediocre nurse from an outstanding nurse?

Description : If you were sick in the hospital, what would differentiate a mediocre nurse from an outstanding nurse?

Last Answer : Compassion and a cheerful and drama free personality. They care, and they’re patient, no matter how difficult their day is, you will never know it. A great nurse knows to quit if they burn out and start hating their job.

Which website is good for medical information?

Description : Which website is good for medical information?

Last Answer : I have gotten a lot of useful infor off WebMD.com.

Is pediatric nursing a good job?

Description : Is pediatric nursing a good job?

Last Answer : We had only one nurse on here and she is not active any more. I know that all kinds of nurses are in high demand; so I would think there are plenty of jobs for pediatric nurses. The question ... can handle the emotions. Why don't you see how you feel after you do the pediatric clinical rotation?

Have you ever been in a hospital/care facility when the roommate died?

Description : Have you ever been in a hospital/care facility when the roommate died?

Last Answer : If there's warning that someone is going to die, they're usually moved to a special room by themselves for palliative care. There's usually clues that someone is going, such as Cheyne-Stokes breathing, which ... one will see what's going on if they happen to be walking down a hallway at the time.

Can you give me any tips on picking up someone from the hospital?

Description : Can you give me any tips on picking up someone from the hospital?

Last Answer : Just thinking that maybe a blanket and pillow in the car would be good in case she has the shakes.