Which type of glaucoma presents an ocular emergency? a) Acute angle-closure glaucoma Acute angle-closure glaucoma results in rapid progressive visual impairment.

Question

Which type of glaucoma presents an ocular emergency? a) Acute angle-closure glaucoma Acute angle-closure glaucoma results in rapid progressive visual impairment.

Which type of glaucoma presents an ocular emergency?
a) Acute angle-closure glaucoma
Acute angle-closure glaucoma results in rapid progressive visual
impairment.
b) Normal tension glaucoma
Normal tension glaucoma is treated with topical medication.
c) Ocular hypertension
Ocular hypertension is treated with topical medication.
d) Chronic open-angle glaucoma
Chronic open-angle glaucoma is treated initially with topical
medications, with oral medications added at a later time.

asked Oct 3, 2021 by anonymous

1 Answer

Related questions

After 48 hours of a cataract extraction operation, a patient complained of ocular pain and visual loss. On examination, this eye looked red with ciliary injection, corneal oedema and absent red reflex. The first suspicion must be: a. Secondary glaucoma. b. Anterior uveitis. c. Bacterial endophthalmitis. d. Acute conjunctivitis

Description : After 48 hours of a cataract extraction operation, a patient complained of ocular pain and visual loss. On examination, this eye looked red with ciliary injection, corneal oedema and absent red ... a. Secondary glaucoma. b. Anterior uveitis. c. Bacterial endophthalmitis. d. Acute conjunctivitis

Last Answer : ANSWER: C

Which of the following mitral valve conditions generally produces no symptoms? a) Prolapse Mitral valve prolpase is a deformity that usually produces no symptoms and has been diagnosed more frequently in recent years, probably as a result of improved diagnostic methods. b) Stenosis Mitral valve stenosis usually causes progressive fatigue. c) Regurgitation Mitral valve regurgitation, in its acute stage, usually presents as severe heart failure. d) Infection Mitral valve infection, when acute, will produce symptoms typical of infective endocarditis.

Description : Which of the following mitral valve conditions generally produces no symptoms? a) Prolapse Mitral valve prolpase is a deformity that usually produces no symptoms and has been diagnosed more ... ) Infection Mitral valve infection, when acute, will produce symptoms typical of infective endocarditis.

Last Answer : a) Prolapse Mitral valve prolpase is a deformity that usually produces no symptoms and has been diagnosed more frequently in recent years, probably as a result of improved diagnostic methods.

Which of the following states is characterized by a decline in intellectual functioning? a) Dementia Dementia is an acquired syndrome in which progressive deterioration in global intellectual abilities is of such severity that it interferes with the person’s customary occupational and social performance. b) Depression Depression is a mood disorder that disrupts quality of life. c) Delirium Delirium is often called acute confusional state. d) Delusion Delusion is a symptom of psychoses.

Description : Which of the following states is characterized by a decline in intellectual functioning? a) Dementia Dementia is an acquired syndrome in which progressive deterioration in global intellectual abilities is of ... is often called acute confusional state. d) Delusion Delusion is a symptom of psychoses.

Last Answer : a) Dementia Dementia is an acquired syndrome in which progressive deterioration in global intellectual abilities is of such severity that it interferes with the person’s customary occupational and social performance.

When the nurse observes that the patient’s systolic blood pressure is less than 80–90 mm Hg, respirations are rapid and shallow, heart rate is over 150 beats per minute, and urine output is less than 30 cc per hour, the nurse recognizes that the patient is demonstrating which stage of shock? a) Compensatory In compensatory shock, the patient’s blood pressure is normal, respirations are above 20, and heart rate is above 100 but below 150. b) Progressive In progressive shock, the patient’s skin appears mottled and mentation demonstrates lethargy. c) Refractory In refractory or irreversible shock, the patient requires complete mechanical and pharmacologic support. d) Irreversible In refractory or irreversible shock, the patient requires complete mechanical and pharmacologic support.

Description : When the nurse observes that the patient's systolic blood pressure is less than 80-90 mm Hg, respirations are rapid and shallow, heart rate is over 150 beats per minute, and ... d) Irreversible In refractory or irreversible shock, the patient requires complete mechanical and pharmacologic support.

Last Answer : a) Compensatory In compensatory shock, the patient’s blood pressure is normal, respirations are above 20, and heart rate is above 100 but below 150.

Currently, the first choice drug for open angle glaucoma is: A. Miotic eye drops B. Ocular α2 adrenergic agonists C. Ocular prostaglandin analogues D. Ocular β adrenergic blockers

Description : Currently, the first choice drug for open angle glaucoma is: A. Miotic eye drops B. Ocular α2 adrenergic agonists C. Ocular prostaglandin analogues D. Ocular β adrenergic blockers

Last Answer : D. Ocular β adrenergic blockers

Currently, the first choice drug for open angle glaucoma is: A. Miotic eye drops B. Ocular α2 adrenergic agonists C. Ocular prostaglandin analogues D. Ocular β adrenergic blockers

Description : Currently, the first choice drug for open angle glaucoma is: A. Miotic eye drops B. Ocular α2 adrenergic agonists C. Ocular prostaglandin analogues D. Ocular β adrenergic blockers

Last Answer : D. Ocular β adrenergic blockers

Which phase of the trajectory model of chronic illness is characterized by the gradual or rapid decline in the trajectory despite efforts to halt the disorder? a) Dying The dying phase is characterized by stoppage of life-maintaining functions. b) Unstable The unstable phase is characterized by development of complications or reactivation of the illness. c) Acute The acute phase is characterized by sudden onset of severe or unrelieved symptoms or complications that may necessitate hospitalization for their management. d) Downward The downward phase occurs when symptoms worsen or the disability progresses despite attempts to control the course through proper management.

Description : Which phase of the trajectory model of chronic illness is characterized by the gradual or rapid decline in the trajectory despite efforts to halt the disorder? a) Dying The dying phase ... symptoms worsen or the disability progresses despite attempts to control the course through proper management.

Last Answer : a) Dying The dying phase is characterized by stoppage of life-maintaining functions.

Degenerative neurologic disorders include which of the following? a) Huntington’s disease Huntington’s disease is a chronic, progressive, degenerative neurologic hereditary disease of the nervous system that results in progressive involuntary choreiform movement and dementia.

Description : Degenerative neurologic disorders include which of the following? a) Huntington's disease Huntington's disease is a chronic, progressive, degenerative neurologic hereditary disease of the nervous system that results in ... the bone. d) Glioma Malignant glioma is the most common type of brain tumor.

Last Answer : a) Huntington’s disease Huntington’s disease is a chronic, progressive, degenerative neurologic hereditary disease of the nervous system that results in progressive involuntary choreiform movement and dementia.

The patient receiving mitoxantrone (Novantrone) for treatment of secondary progressive multiple sclerosis (MS) is closely monitored for a) leukopenia and cardiac toxicity. Mitoxantrone is an antineoplastic agent used primarily to treat leukemia and lyphoma but is also used to treat secondary progressive MS. Patients need to have laboratory tests ordered and the results closely monitored due to the potential for leukopenia and cardiac toxicity.

Description : The patient receiving mitoxantrone (Novantrone) for treatment of secondary progressive multiple sclerosis (MS) is closely monitored for a) leukopenia and cardiac toxicity. Mitoxantrone is an ... d) hypoxia. Patients receiving mitoxantrone are closely monitored for leukopenia and cardiac toxicity.

Last Answer : a) leukopenia and cardiac toxicity. Mitoxantrone is an antineoplastic agent used primarily to treat leukemia and lyphoma but is also used to treat secondary progressive MS. Patients need to have ... ordered and the results closely monitored due to the potential for leukopenia and cardiac toxicity.

Which of the following diseases is a chronic, progressive, hereditary disease of the nervous system that results in progressive involuntary dance-like movement and dementia? a) Huntington’s disease Because it is transmitted as an autosomal dominant genetic disorder, each child of a parent with HD has a 50% risk of inheriting the illness.

Description : Which of the following diseases is a chronic, progressive, hereditary disease of the nervous system that results in progressive involuntary dance-like movement and dementia? a) Huntington's ... the central nervous system characterized by spongiform degeneration of the gray matter of the brain.

Last Answer : a) Huntington’s disease Because it is transmitted as an autosomal dominant genetic disorder, each child of a parent with HD has a 50% risk of inheriting the illness.

Of the following disorders, which results from excessive secretion of somatotropin? a) Acromegaly The patient with acromegaly demonstrates progressive enlargement of peripheral body parts, most commonly the face, head, hands, and feet.

Description : Of the following disorders, which results from excessive secretion of somatotropin? a) Acromegaly The patient with acromegaly demonstrates progressive enlargement of peripheral body parts, most ... syndrome is the result of abnormal secretion of adrenocortical hormones, especially androgen.

Last Answer : a) Acromegaly The patient with acromegaly demonstrates progressive enlargement of peripheral body parts, most commonly the face, head, hands, and feet.

A female patient 18 years old, who is contact lens wearer since two years, is complaining of redness, lacrimation and foreign body sensation of both eyes. On examination, visual acuity was 6/6 with negative fluorescein test. The expected diagnosis can be: a. Acute anterior uveitis. b. Giant papillary conjunctivitis. c. Bacterial corneal ulcer. d. Acute congestive glaucoma

Description : A female patient 18 years old, who is contact lens wearer since two years, is complaining of redness, lacrimation and foreign body sensation of both eyes. On examination, visual acuity ... uveitis. b. Giant papillary conjunctivitis. c. Bacterial corneal ulcer. d. Acute congestive glaucoma

Last Answer : ANSWER: B

The site of action of miotics for therapeutic effect in angle closure glaucoma is: A. Canal of Schlemm B. Ciliary body C. Ciliary muscle D. Sphincter pupillae muscle

Description : The site of action of miotics for therapeutic effect in angle closure glaucoma is: A. Canal of Schlemm B. Ciliary body C. Ciliary muscle D. Sphincter pupillae muscle

Last Answer : D. Sphincter pupillae muscle

The site of action of miotics for therapeutic effect in angle closure glaucoma is: A. Canal of Schlemm B. Ciliary body C. Ciliary muscle D. Sphincter pupillae muscle

Description : The site of action of miotics for therapeutic effect in angle closure glaucoma is: A. Canal of Schlemm B. Ciliary body C. Ciliary muscle D. Sphincter pupillae muscle

Last Answer : D. Sphincter pupillae muscle

Topical atropine is contraindicated in: a. Retinoscopy in children b. Iridocyclitis c. Corneal ulcer d. Primary angle closure glaucoma

Description : Topical atropine is contraindicated in: a. Retinoscopy in children b. Iridocyclitis c. Corneal ulcer d. Primary angle closure glaucoma

Last Answer : ANSWER: D

The treatment of choice for the other eye in angle closure glaucoma is: a. Surgical peripheral iridectomy b. Yag laser iridotomy c. Trabeculotomy d. Trabeculectomy

Description : The treatment of choice for the other eye in angle closure glaucoma is: a. Surgical peripheral iridectomy b. Yag laser iridotomy c. Trabeculotomy d. Trabeculectomy

Last Answer : ANSWER: B

In order to be effective, Percutaneous Transluminal Coronary Angioplasty (PTCA) must be performed within what time frame, beginning with arrival at the emergency department after diagnosis of myocardial infarction? a) 60 minutes The sixty minute interval is known as “door to balloon time” for performance of PTCA on a diagnosed MI patient. b) 30 minutes The thirty minute interval is known as “door to needle” time for administration of thrombolytics post MI. c) 9 days The time frame of nine (9) days refers to the time for onset of vasculitis after administration of Streptokinase for thrombolysis in an acute MI patient. d) 6-12 months The six to twelve month time frame refers to the time period during which streptokinase will not be used again in the same patient for acute MI.

Description : In order to be effective, Percutaneous Transluminal Coronary Angioplasty (PTCA) must be performed within what time frame, beginning with arrival at the emergency department after diagnosis of myocardial ... during which streptokinase will not be used again in the same patient for acute MI.

Last Answer : a) 60 minutes The sixty minute interval is known as “door to balloon time” for performance of PTCA on a diagnosed MI patient.

Which of the following terms refers to enlarged, red, and tender lymph nodes? a) Lymphadenitis Acute lymphadenitis is demonstrated by enlarged, red and tender lymph nodes. b) Lymphangitis Lymphangitis is an acute inflammation of the lymphatic channels. c) Lymphedema Lymphedema is demonstrated by swelling of tissues in the extremities because of an increased quantity of lymph that results from an obstruction of lymphatic vessels. d) Elephantiasis Elephantiasis refers to a condition in which chronic swelling of the extremity recedes only slightly with elevation.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to enlarged, red, and tender lymph nodes? a) Lymphadenitis Acute lymphadenitis is demonstrated by enlarged, red and tender lymph nodes. b) Lymphangitis ... refers to a condition in which chronic swelling of the extremity recedes only slightly with elevation.

Last Answer : a) Lymphadenitis Acute lymphadenitis is demonstrated by enlarged, red and tender lymph nodes.

The preferred route of administration of medication in the most acute care situations is which of the following routes? a) Intravenous The IV route is the preferred parenteral route in most acute care situations because it is much more comfortable for the patient, and peak serum levels and pain relief occur more rapidly and reliably. b) Epidural Epidural administration is used to control postoperative and chronic pain. c) Subcutaneous Subcutaneous administration results in slow absorption of medication. d) Intramuscular Intramuscular administration of medication is absorbed more slowly than intravenously administered medication.

Description : The preferred route of administration of medication in the most acute care situations is which of the following routes? a) Intravenous The IV route is the preferred ... ) Intramuscular Intramuscular administration of medication is absorbed more slowly than intravenously administered medication.

Last Answer : a) Intravenous The IV route is the preferred parenteral route in most acute care situations because it is much more comfortable for the patient, and peak serum levels and pain relief occur more rapidly and reliably.

Localized rapid bone turnover, most commonly affecting the skull, femur, tibia, pelvic bones, and vertebrae, characterizes which of the following bone disorders? a) Osteitis deformans Osteitis deformans (Paget’s disease) results in bone that is highly vascularized and structurally weak, predisposing to pathologic fractures.

Description : Localized rapid bone turnover, most commonly affecting the skull, femur, tibia, pelvic bones, and vertebrae, characterizes which of the following bone disorders? a) Osteitis deformans Osteitis ... that comes from extension of soft tissue infection, direct bone contamination, or hematogenous spread.

Last Answer : a) Osteitis deformans Osteitis deformans (Paget’s disease) results in bone that is highly vascularized and structurally weak, predisposing to pathologic fractures.

Which type of incontinence is associated with weakened perineal muscles that permit leakage of urine when intra-abdominal pressure is increased? a) Stress incontinence Stress incontinence may occur with coughing or sneezing. b) Urge incontinence Urge incontinence is involuntary elimination of urine associated with a strong perceived need to void. c) Reflex (neurogenic) incontinence Neurogenic incontinence is associated with a spinal cord lesion. d) Functional incontinence Functional incontinence refers to incontinence in patients with intact urinary physiology who experience mobility impairment, environmental barriers, or cognitive problems.

Description : Which type of incontinence is associated with weakened perineal muscles that permit leakage of urine when intra-abdominal pressure is increased? a) Stress incontinence Stress incontinence ... intact urinary physiology who experience mobility impairment, environmental barriers, or cognitive problems.

Last Answer : a) Stress incontinence Stress incontinence may occur with coughing or sneezing.

Patient presents with rapidly progressive root caries on many teeth. Which of the following laboratory results would be a possible indicator of this? A. Stimulated salivary secretion rate of 1.5ml/min B. S. mutans concentration of 105 organism/ml C. A plaque sample containing 5% S. mutans D. A lactobacilli concentration of 105 organism/ml E. Salivary buffering PH 5.5 > 100000 CFU/ml high caries incidence

Description : Patient presents with rapidly progressive root caries on many teeth. Which of the following laboratory results would be a possible indicator of this? A. Stimulated salivary secretion rate of 1.5ml/min B. ... of 105 organism/ml E. Salivary buffering PH 5.5 > 100000 CFU/ml high caries incidence

Last Answer : E. Salivary buffering PH 5.5

The percentage of patients over the age of 70 admitted to the hospital with delirium is about a) 25%. About 25% of patients over the age of 70 admitted to the hospital have delirium. The cause is often reversible and treatable (as in drug toxicity, vitamin B12 deficiency or thyroid disease) or chronic and irreversible. Depression may produce impairment of attention and memory.

Description : The percentage of patients over the age of 70 admitted to the hospital with delirium is about a) 25%. About 25% of patients over the age of 70 admitted to the hospital have delirium. The cause is ... delirium. d) 50%. About 25% of patients over the age of 70 admitted to the hospital have delirium.

Last Answer : a) 25%. About 25% of patients over the age of 70 admitted to the hospital have delirium. The cause is often reversible and treatable (as in drug toxicity, vitamin B12 deficiency or thyroid disease) or chronic and irreversible. Depression may produce impairment of attention and memory.

Which of the following statements describes benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)? a) The vertigo is usually accompanied by nausea and vomiting; however hearing impairment does not generally occur. BPPV is a brief period of incapacitating vertigo that occurs when the position of the patient’s head is changed with respect to gravity. The vertigo is usually accompanied by nausea and vomiting; however hearing impairment does not generally occur.

Description : Which of the following statements describes benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)? a) The vertigo is usually accompanied by nausea and vomiting; however hearing impairment does not generally occur. ... as acetaminophen. BPPV is frequently stimulated by head trauma, infection, or other events.

Last Answer : a) The vertigo is usually accompanied by nausea and vomiting; however hearing impairment does not generally occur. BPPV is a brief period of incapacitating vertigo that occurs when the ... vertigo is usually accompanied by nausea and vomiting; however hearing impairment does not generally occur.

Water hammer in a pipeline results from the (A) Bursting of pipelines due to closure by a valve (B) Rapid pressure change due to a rapid change in the rate of flow (C) Pressure increase due to closure of a valve resulting in decrease in rate of flow (D) None of these

Description : Water hammer in a pipeline results from the (A) Bursting of pipelines due to closure by a valve (B) Rapid pressure change due to a rapid change in the rate of flow (C) Pressure increase due to closure of a valve resulting in decrease in rate of flow (D) None of these

Last Answer : (B) Rapid pressure change due to a rapid change in the rate of flow

You have been referred a case of open angle glaucoma. Which of the following would be an important point in diagnosing the case? a. Shallow anterior chamber b. Optic disc cupping c. Narrow angle d. visual acuity and refractive error

Description : You have been referred a case of open angle glaucoma. Which of the following would be an important point in diagnosing the case? a. Shallow anterior chamber b. Optic disc cupping c. Narrow angle d. visual acuity and refractive error

Last Answer : ANSWER: B

Betaxolol differs from timolol in that it: A. Is a β1 selective blocker B. Is more efficacious in glaucoma C. Produces less ocular side effects D. Is longer acting

Description : Betaxolol differs from timolol in that it: A. Is a β1 selective blocker B. Is more efficacious in glaucoma C. Produces less ocular side effects D. Is longer acting

Last Answer : A. Is a β1 selective blocker

Timolol eye drops are preferred over pilocarpine eye drops by glaucoma patients because: A. Timolol is more effective than pilocarpine B. Timolol acts by enhancing uveo-scleral outflow C. Timolol produces less ocular side effects D. There are no contraindications to timolol

Description : Timolol eye drops are preferred over pilocarpine eye drops by glaucoma patients because: A. Timolol is more effective than pilocarpine B. Timolol acts by enhancing uveo-scleral outflow C. Timolol produces less ocular side effects D. There are no contraindications to timolol

Last Answer : C. Timolol produces less ocular side effects

Betaxolol differs from timolol in that it: A. Is a β1 selective blocker B. Is more efficacious in glaucoma C. Produces less ocular side effects D. Is longer acting

Description : Betaxolol differs from timolol in that it: A. Is a β1 selective blocker B. Is more efficacious in glaucoma C. Produces less ocular side effects D. Is longer acting

Last Answer : A. Is a β1 selective blocker

Timolol eye drops are preferred over pilocarpine eye drops by glaucoma patients because: A. Timolol is more effective than pilocarpine B. Timolol acts by enhancing uveo-scleral outflow C. Timolol produces less ocular side effects D. There are no contraindications to timolol

Description : Timolol eye drops are preferred over pilocarpine eye drops by glaucoma patients because: A. Timolol is more effective than pilocarpine B. Timolol acts by enhancing uveo-scleral outflow C. Timolol produces less ocular side effects D. There are no contraindications to timolol

Last Answer : C. Timolol produces less ocular side effects

Which of the following categories of medications increases aqueous fluid outflow in the patient with glaucoma? a) Cholinergics Cholinergics increase aqueous fluid outflow by contracting the ciliary muscle, causing miosis, and opening the trabecular meshwork.

Description : Which of the following categories of medications increases aqueous fluid outflow in the patient with glaucoma? a) Cholinergics Cholinergics increase aqueous fluid outflow by contracting ... production. d) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors decrease aqueous humor production.

Last Answer : a) Cholinergics Cholinergics increase aqueous fluid outflow by contracting the ciliary muscle, causing miosis, and opening the trabecular meshwork.

Which of the following terms refers to the decrease in lens flexibility that occurs with age, resulting in the near point of focus getting farther away? a) Presbyopia Presbyopia usually begins in the fifth decade of life, when reading glasses are required to magnify objects. b) Presbycusis Presbycusis refers to age-related hearing loss. c) Cataract Cataract is the development of opacity of the lens of the eye. d) Glaucoma Glaucoma is a disease characterized by increased intraocular pressure.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to the decrease in lens flexibility that occurs with age, resulting in the near point of focus getting farther away? a) Presbyopia Presbyopia usually begins in ... lens of the eye. d) Glaucoma Glaucoma is a disease characterized by increased intraocular pressure.

Last Answer : a) Presbyopia Presbyopia usually begins in the fifth decade of life, when reading glasses are required to magnify objects.

81. The scrub and circulating nurse should perform sponge count during which phases of an abdominal hysterectomy procedure? 1. Before the procedure 2. Before closing the endometrium 3. Before closing the peritoneum 4. At the skin closure 5. When the scrub nurse goes for a lunch break

Description : 81. The scrub and circulating nurse should perform sponge count during which phases of an abdominal hysterectomy procedure? 1. Before the procedure 2. Before closing the endometrium 3. Before closing the peritoneum 4. At the skin closure 5. When the scrub nurse goes for a lunch break

Last Answer : A. All except 5

Which of the following statements reflect nursing interventions of a patient with post-polio syndrome? a) Providing care aimed at slowing the loss of strength and maintaining the physical, psychological and social well being of the patient. No specific medical or surgical treatment is available for this syndrome and therefore nursing plays a pivotal role in the team approach to assisting patients and families in dealing with the symptoms of progressive loss of muscle strength and significant fatigue. Nursing interventions are aimed at slowing the loss of strength and maintaining the physical, psychological and social well being of the patient.

Description : Which of the following statements reflect nursing interventions of a patient with post-polio syndrome? a) Providing care aimed at slowing the loss of strength and maintaining the physical, ... and cold are most appropriate because these patients tend to have strong reactions to medications.

Last Answer : a) Providing care aimed at slowing the loss of strength and maintaining the physical, psychological and social well being of the patient. No specific medical or surgical treatment is available for ... loss of strength and maintaining the physical, psychological and social well being of the patient.

Nursing management of the patient with new variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (nvCJD) includes a) providing supportive care. The nvCJD is a progressive fatal disease with no treatment available. Due to the fatal outcome of nvCJD, nursing care is primarily supportive.

Description : Nursing management of the patient with new variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (nvCJD) includes a) providing supportive care. The nvCJD is a progressive fatal disease with no treatment available. Due to ... B is used in the treatment of fungal encephalitis; no treatment is available for nvCJD.

Last Answer : a) providing supportive care. The nvCJD is a progressive fatal disease with no treatment available. Due to the fatal outcome of nvCJD, nursing care is primarily supportive.

Which of the following diseases is a rare, transmissible, progressive fatal disease of the central nervous system characterized by spongiform degeneration of the gray matter of the brain? a) Creutzfeldt-Jakob’s disease The disease causes severe dementia and myoclonus.

Description : Which of the following diseases is a rare, transmissible, progressive fatal disease of the central nervous system characterized by spongiform degeneration of the gray matter of the brain? a) ... disease of the nervous system that results in progressive involuntary dance-like movement and dementia.

Last Answer : a) Creutzfeldt-Jakob’s disease The disease causes severe dementia and myoclonus.

Which of the following diseases is a chronic, degenerative, progressive disease of the central nervous system characterized by the occurrence of small patches of demyelination in the brain and spinal cord? a) Multiple sclerosis The cause of MS is not known and the disease affects twice as many women as men.

Description : Which of the following diseases is a chronic, degenerative, progressive disease of the central nervous system characterized by the occurrence of small patches of demyelination in the brain and ... the central nervous system characterized by spongiform degeneration of the gray matter of the brain.

Last Answer : a) Multiple sclerosis The cause of MS is not known and the disease affects twice as many women as men.

Of the following terms, which refers to the progressive hearing loss associated with aging? a) Presbycusis Both middle and inner ear age-related changes result in hearing loss.

Description : Of the following terms, which refers to the progressive hearing loss associated with aging? a) Presbycusis Both middle and inner ear age-related changes result in hearing loss. b) Exostoses Exostoses refers ... loss of hearing related to damage of the end organ for hearing and/or cranial nerve VIII.

Last Answer : a) Presbycusis Both middle and inner ear age-related changes result in hearing loss.

When the patient is encouraged to concentrate on a pleasant experience or restful scene, the cognitive coping strategy being employed by the nurse is a) imagery. Imagery has proven effective for oncology patients. b) optimistic self-recitation. Optimistic self-recitation is practiced when the patient is encouraged to recite optimistic thoughts such as “I know all will go well.” c) distraction. Distraction is employed when the patient is encouraged to think of an enjoyable story or recite a favorite poem. d) progressive muscular relaxation. Progressive muscular relaxation requires contracting and relaxing muscle groups and is a physical coping strategy as opposed to cognitive.

Description : When the patient is encouraged to concentrate on a pleasant experience or restful scene, the cognitive coping strategy being employed by the nurse is a) imagery. Imagery has proven effective ... contracting and relaxing muscle groups and is a physical coping strategy as opposed to cognitive.

Last Answer : a) imagery. Imagery has proven effective for oncology patients.

Which stage of shock is best described as that stage when the mechanisms that regulate blood pressure fail to sustain a systolic pressure above 90 mm Hg? a) Progressive In the progressive stage of shock, the mechanisms that regulate blood pressure can no longer compensate, and the mean arterial pressure falls below normal limits. b) Refractory The refractory or irreversible stage of shock represents the point at which organ damage is so severe that the patient does not respond to treatment and cannot survive.

Description : Which stage of shock is best described as that stage when the mechanisms that regulate blood pressure fail to sustain a systolic pressure above 90 mm Hg? a) Progressive In the progressive stage of ... which organ damage is so severe that the patient does not respond to treatment and cannot survive.

Last Answer : a) Progressive In the progressive stage of shock, the mechanisms that regulate blood pressure can no longer compensate, and the mean arterial pressure falls below normal limits.

The relaxation techniques of progressive muscle relaxation, relaxation with guided imagery, and the Benson Relaxation Response share which of the following elements? a) A mental device (something on which to focus the attention) Similar elements also include a quiet environment, a comfortable position, and a passive attitude. b) Nutritional foundation Relaxation techniques do not encompass specific nutritional guidelines. c) Analgesic preparation Relaxation techniques are used to reduce one’s response to stress and do not require analgesia prior to practicing the techniques. d) Physician’s order A physician’s order is not required to assist an individual to learn techniques to reduce one’s response to stress.

Description : The relaxation techniques of progressive muscle relaxation, relaxation with guided imagery, and the Benson Relaxation Response share which of the following elements? a) A mental device (something on which ... required to assist an individual to learn techniques to reduce one's response to stress.

Last Answer : a) A mental device (something on which to focus the attention) Similar elements also include a quiet environment, a comfortable position, and a passive attitude.

Halitosis and a sour taste in the mouth are signs and symptoms associated most directly with a) esophageal diverticula. Because the diverticula may retain decomposed food, halitosis and a sour taste in the mouth are frequent complaints. b) achalasia. Achalasia presents as difficulty in swallowing both liquids and solids. c) gastroesophageal reflux. Gastroesophageal reflux presents as burning in the esophagus, indigestion, and difficulty in or pain upon swallowing. d) hiatal hernia. Hiatal hernia presents as heartburn, regurgitation, and dysphagia in many patients while at least 50% are asymptomatic.

Description : Halitosis and a sour taste in the mouth are signs and symptoms associated most directly with a) esophageal diverticula. Because the diverticula may retain decomposed food, halitosis and a sour ... as heartburn, regurgitation, and dysphagia in many patients while at least 50% are asymptomatic.

Last Answer : a) esophageal diverticula. Because the diverticula may retain decomposed food, halitosis and a sour taste in the mouth are frequent complaints.

Which of the following types of lung cancer is the most prevalent carcinoma of the lung for both men and women? a) Adenocarcinoma Adenocarcinoma presents more peripherally as peripheral masses or nodules and often metastasizes. b) Large cell carcinoma Large cell carcinoma is a fast-growing tumor that tends to arise peripherally. c) Squamous cell carcinoma Squamous cell carcinoma is more centrally located and arises more commonly in the segmental and subsegmental bronchi in response to repetitive carcinogenic exposures. d) Small cell carcinoma Small cell carcinomas arise primarily as proximal lesions, but may arise in any part of the tracheobronchial tree.

Description : Which of the following types of lung cancer is the most prevalent carcinoma of the lung for both men and women? a) Adenocarcinoma Adenocarcinoma presents more peripherally as peripheral masses or ... arise primarily as proximal lesions, but may arise in any part of the tracheobronchial tree.

Last Answer : a) Adenocarcinoma Adenocarcinoma presents more peripherally as peripheral masses or nodules and often metastasizes.

Which of the following types of lung cancer is characterized as fast growing and tending to arise peripherally? a) Large cell carcinoma Large cell carcinoma is a fast-growing tumor that tends to arise peripherally. b) Bronchioalveolar carcinoma Bronchioalveolar cell cancer arises from the terminal bronchus and alveoli and is usually slow-growing. c) Adenocarcinoma Adenocarcinoma presents as peripheral masses or nodules and often metastasizes. d) Squamous cell carcinoma Squamous cell carcinoma arises from the bronchial epithelium and is more centrally located.

Description : Which of the following types of lung cancer is characterized as fast growing and tending to arise peripherally? a) Large cell carcinoma Large cell carcinoma is a fast-growing tumor that ... cell carcinoma Squamous cell carcinoma arises from the bronchial epithelium and is more centrally located.

Last Answer : a) Large cell carcinoma Large cell carcinoma is a fast-growing tumor that tends to arise peripherally.

94. When Nurse Abe presents the patient’s chart as evidence of a case, this is called a/an

Description : 94. When Nurse Abe presents the patient’s chart as evidence of a case, this is called a/an

Last Answer : C. Exhibit

Which of the following terms refers to cells that lack normal cellular characteristics and differ in shape and organization with respect to their cells of origin? a) Anaplasia Usually, anaplastic cells are malignant. b) Neoplasia Neoplasia refers to uncontrolled cell growth that follows no physiologic demand. c) Dysplasia Dysplasia refers to bizarre cell growth resulting in cells that differ in size, shape, or arrangement from other cells of the same type of tissue. d) Hyperplasia Hyperplasia refers to an increase in the number of cells of a tissue, most often associated with a period of rapid body growth.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to cells that lack normal cellular characteristics and differ in shape and organization with respect to their cells of origin? a) Anaplasia Usually, anaplastic cells are ... number of cells of a tissue, most often associated with a period of rapid body growth.

Last Answer : a) Anaplasia Usually, anaplastic cells are malignant.

A male patient 30 years old with visual acuity of 6/6 in both eyes. Twelve hours ago he presented with drop of vision of the left eye. On examination, visual acuity was 6/6 in the right eye and 6/60 in the left eye. Fundus examination showed blurred edges of the left optic disc. The most probable diagnosis is: a. Raised intra cranial pressure b. Raised ocular tension c. Central retinal artery occlusion d. Optic neuritis

Description : A male patient 30 years old with visual acuity of 6/6 in both eyes. Twelve hours ago he presented with drop of vision of the left eye. On examination, visual acuity was 6/6 in the ... : a. Raised intra cranial pressure b. Raised ocular tension c. Central retinal artery occlusion d. Optic neuritis

Last Answer : ANSWER: D

Of the following terms, which refers to blindness in the right or left halves of the visual fields of both eyes? a) Homonymous hemianopsia Homonymous hemianopsia occurs with occipital lobe tumors.

Description : Of the following terms, which refers to blindness in the right or left halves of the visual fields of both eyes? a) Homonymous hemianopsia Homonymous hemianopsia occurs with occipital lobe tumors ... eyes. d) Nystagmus Nystagmus refers to rhythmic, involuntary movements or oscillations of the eyes.

Last Answer : a) Homonymous hemianopsia Homonymous hemianopsia occurs with occipital lobe tumors.

Which of the following terms refers to the inability to recognize objects through a particular sensory system? a) Agnosia Agnosia may be visual, auditory, or tactile.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to the inability to recognize objects through a particular sensory system? a) Agnosia Agnosia may be visual, auditory, or tactile. b) Dementia Dementia refers to ... d) Aphasia Aphasia refers to loss of the ability to express oneself or to understand language.

Last Answer : a) Agnosia Agnosia may be visual, auditory, or tactile.

Ethambutol is not used in children below 6 years of age because: A. Young children are intolerant to ethambutol B. Ethambutol causes growth retardation in young children C. It is difficult to detect ethambutol induced visual impairment in young children D. In young children visual toxicity of ethambutol is irreversible

Description : Ethambutol is not used in children below 6 years of age because: A. Young children are intolerant to ethambutol B. Ethambutol causes growth retardation in young children C. It is ... induced visual impairment in young children D. In young children visual toxicity of ethambutol is irreversible

Last Answer : C. It is difficult to detect ethambutol induced visual impairment in young children

anonymous · Answer 1 · 2021-10-03T14:47:06+0000

a) Acute angle-closure glaucoma
Acute angle-closure glaucoma results in rapid progressive visual
impairment.

Which type of glaucoma presents an ocular emergency? a) Acute angle-closure glaucoma Acute angle-closure glaucoma results in rapid progressive visual impairment.

Please log in or register to add a comment.

Please log in or register to answer this question.

1 Answer

Answer :

Please log in or register to add a comment.

Related questions