Which type of biopsy is used for nonpalpable lesions found on mammography? a) Stereotactic Stereotactic biopsy utilizes computer location of the suspicious area found on biopsy, followed by core needle insertion and sampling of tissue for pathologic examination.

Which type of biopsy is used for nonpalpable lesions found on
mammography?
a) Stereotactic
Stereotactic biopsy utilizes computer location of the suspicious area
found on biopsy, followed by core needle insertion and sampling of
tissue for pathologic examination.
b) Excisional
Excisional biopsy is the usual procedure for any palpable breast mass.
c) Incisional
Incisional biopsy is performed on a palpable mass when tissue
sampling alone is required.
d) Tru-Cut core
Tru-Cut core biopsy is used when a tumor is relatively large and close
to the skin surface.
by

1 Answer

Answer :

a) Stereotactic
Stereotactic biopsy utilizes computer location of the suspicious area
found on biopsy, followed by core needle insertion and sampling of
tissue for pathologic examination.
by

Related questions

An incision biopsy of an ulcerated and intruded clinically suspicious lesion in a 50 years-old female reveals chronic inflammation; you would:** A. Inform the patient and her physician of your findings and instruct the patient to return in six months B. Surgically excise the entire lesion since you know it is not malignant C. Dismiss the patient with instructions for warm saline rinses and re-examination D. Repeat the biopsy

Description : An incision biopsy of an ulcerated and intruded clinically suspicious lesion in a 50 years-old female reveals chronic inflammation; you would:** A. Inform the patient and her physician of ... . Dismiss the patient with instructions for warm saline rinses and re-examination D. Repeat the biopsy

Last Answer : D. Repeat the biopsy

A fracture is termed pathologic when the fracture a) occurs through an area of diseased bone. Pathologic fractures can occur without the trauma of a fall.

Description : A fracture is termed pathologic when the fracture a) occurs through an area of diseased bone. Pathologic fractures can occur without the trauma of a fall. b) results in a pulling away of a ... to the skin or mucous membranes. A compound fracture involves damage to the skin or mucous membranes.

Last Answer : a) occurs through an area of diseased bone. Pathologic fractures can occur without the trauma of a fall.

Breast biopsy - stereotactic?

Description : Breast biopsy - stereotactic?

Last Answer : DefinitionA breast biopsy is the removal of breast tissue to examine it for signs of breast cancer or other disorders. Several different types of biopsy may be done. This article discusses sterotactic breast ... in the table. The table is raised and the doctor will perform the biopsy from undernea

For women aged 19-39 years, recommended health screening diagnostic testing includes which of the following? a) Pap smear A Pap smear is recommended for women aged 19-39 years, as well as for women aged 40 and older. b) Mammography Mammography is recommended for health screening for women aged 40 years and older. c) Cholesterol and lipid profile Cholesterol and lipid profile is recommended for women aged 40 years and older. d) Bone mineral density testing Bone mineral density testing is recommended for women aged 40 years and older.

Description : For women aged 19-39 years, recommended health screening diagnostic testing includes which of the following? a) Pap smear A Pap smear is recommended for women aged 19-39 years, as well as ... Bone mineral density testing Bone mineral density testing is recommended for women aged 40 years and older.

Last Answer : a) Pap smear A Pap smear is recommended for women aged 19-39 years, as well as for women aged 40 and older.

Which of the following terms is used to describe a procedure in which cervical tissue is removed as result of detection of abnormal cells? a) Conization The procedure is also called a cone biopsy. Colporrhaphy Colporrhaphy refers to repair of the vagina.

Description : Which of the following terms is used to describe a procedure in which cervical tissue is removed as result of detection of abnormal cells? a) Conization The procedure is also called ... of tissue by freezing. c) Perineorrhaphy Perineorrhaphy refers to sutural repair of perineal lacerations.

Last Answer : a) Conization The procedure is also called a cone biopsy. Colporrhaphy Colporrhaphy refers to repair of the vagina.

Localized rapid bone turnover, most commonly affecting the skull, femur, tibia, pelvic bones, and vertebrae, characterizes which of the following bone disorders? a) Osteitis deformans Osteitis deformans (Paget’s disease) results in bone that is highly vascularized and structurally weak, predisposing to pathologic fractures.

Description : Localized rapid bone turnover, most commonly affecting the skull, femur, tibia, pelvic bones, and vertebrae, characterizes which of the following bone disorders? a) Osteitis deformans Osteitis ... that comes from extension of soft tissue infection, direct bone contamination, or hematogenous spread.

Last Answer : a) Osteitis deformans Osteitis deformans (Paget’s disease) results in bone that is highly vascularized and structurally weak, predisposing to pathologic fractures.

Regional enteritis is characterized by: a) Transmural thickening Transmural thickeneing is an early pathologic change of Crohn’s disease. Later pathology results in deep, penetrating granulomas.

Description : Regional enteritis is characterized by: a) Transmural thickening Transmural thickeneing is an early pathologic change of Crohn's disease. Later pathology results in deep, penetrating ... prolonged and variable course while ulcerative colitis is characterized by exacerbations and remissions.

Last Answer : a) Transmural thickening Transmural thickeneing is an early pathologic change of Crohn’s disease. Later pathology results in deep, penetrating granulomas.

Ageism refers to a) Bias against older people based solely on chronological age Individuals demonstrating ageism base their beliefs and attitudes about older people based upon chronological age without consideration of functional capacity. b) fear of old age. Fear of aging and the inability of many to confront their own aging process may trigger ageist beliefs. c) loss of memory. Age-related loss of memory occurs more with short-term and recent memory. d) benign senescent forgetfulness. Benign senescent forgetfulness refers to the age-related loss of memory in the absence of a pathologic process.

Description : Ageism refers to a) Bias against older people based solely on chronological age Individuals demonstrating ageism base their beliefs and attitudes about older people based upon chronological age without consideration ... refers to the age-related loss of memory in the absence of a pathologic process.

Last Answer : a) Bias against older people based solely on chronological age Individuals demonstrating ageism base their beliefs and attitudes about older people based upon chronological age without consideration of functional capacity.

Which of the following venous access devices can be used for no more than 30 days in patients requiring parenteral nutrition? a) Non-tunneled catheter The subclavian vein is the most common vessel used because the subclavian area provides a stable insertion site to which the catheter can be anchored, allows the patient freedom of movement, and provides easy access to the dressing site.

Description : Which of the following venous access devices can be used for no more than 30 days in patients requiring parenteral nutrition? a) Non-tunneled catheter The subclavian vein is the most common vessel used because the ... term home IV therapy (eg, Port A Cath, Mediport, Hickman Port, P.A.S. Port).

Last Answer : a) Non-tunneled catheter The subclavian vein is the most common vessel used because the subclavian area provides a stable insertion site to which the catheter can be anchored, allows the patient freedom of movement, and provides easy access to the dressing site.

Which of the following methods to induce hemostasis after sheath removal post Percutaneous Transluminal Coronary Angioplasty is the least effective? a) Application of a sandbag to the area Several nursing interventions frequently used as part of the standard of care, such as applying a sandbag to the sheath insertion site, have not been shown to be effective in reducing the incidence of bleeding.

Description : Which of the following methods to induce hemostasis after sheath removal post Percutaneous Transluminal Coronary Angioplasty is the least effective? a) Application of a sandbag to the area Several ... ) Application of a pneumatic compression device post PTCA has been demonstrated to be effective

Last Answer : a) Application of a sandbag to the area Several nursing interventions frequently used as part of the standard of care, such as applying a sandbag to the sheath insertion site, have not been shown to be effective in reducing the incidence of bleeding.

When the results of a Pap smear are reported as class 5, the nurse recognizes that the common interpretation is a) malignant. A class 5 Pap smear, according to the Bethesda Classification, indicates squamous cell carcinoma. b) normal. A class 1 Pap smear is interpreted as normal. c) probably normal. A class 2 Pap smear is interpreted as probably normal. d) suspicious. A class 3 Pap smear is interpreted as suspicious.

Description : When the results of a Pap smear are reported as class 5, the nurse recognizes that the common interpretation is a) malignant. A class 5 Pap smear, according to the Bethesda Classification, ... is interpreted as probably normal. d) suspicious. A class 3 Pap smear is interpreted as suspicious.

Last Answer : a) malignant. A class 5 Pap smear, according to the Bethesda Classification, indicates squamous cell carcinoma.

The nurse teaches the parent of the child with chickenpox that the child is no longer contagious to others when a) the vesicles and pustules have crusted. When the lesions have crusted, the patient is no longer contagious to others.

Description : The nurse teaches the parent of the child with chickenpox that the child is no longer contagious to others when a) the vesicles and pustules have crusted. When the lesions have crusted, the ... , and pustules appear. The child remains contagious when the rash is changing into vesicles and pustules.

Last Answer : a) the vesicles and pustules have crusted. When the lesions have crusted, the patient is no longer contagious to others.

When the nurse observes that the patient has extension and external rotation of the arms and wrists and extension, plantar flexion, and internal rotation of the feet, she records the patient’s posturing as a) decerebrate. Decerebrate posturing is the result of lesions at the midbrain and is more ominous than decorticate posturing.

Description : When the nurse observes that the patient has extension and external rotation of the arms and wrists and extension, plantar flexion, and internal rotation of the feet, she records the patient's ... rotation of the arms and wrists and extension, internal rotation, and plantar flexion of the feet.

Last Answer : a) decerebrate. Decerebrate posturing is the result of lesions at the midbrain and is more ominous than decorticate posturing.

Lesions in the temporal lobe may result in which of the following types of agnosia? a) Auditory Lesions in the temporal lobe (lateral and superior portions) may result in auditory agnosia.

Description : Lesions in the temporal lobe may result in which of the following types of agnosia? a) Auditory Lesions in the temporal lobe (lateral and superior portions) may result in auditory agnosia. ... Lesions in the parietal lobe (posteroinferior regions) may result in relationship and body part agnosia.

Last Answer : a) Auditory Lesions in the temporal lobe (lateral and superior portions) may result in auditory agnosia.

Lower motor neuron lesions cause a) flaccid muscle paralysis. Lower motor neuron lesions cause flaccid muscle paralysis, muscle atrophy, decreased muscle tone, and loss of voluntary control.

Description : Lower motor neuron lesions cause a) flaccid muscle paralysis. Lower motor neuron lesions cause flaccid muscle paralysis, muscle atrophy, decreased muscle tone, and loss of voluntary control. ... d) hyperactive and abnormal reflexes. Upper motor neuron lesions cause hyperactive and abnormal reflexes.

Last Answer : a) flaccid muscle paralysis. Lower motor neuron lesions cause flaccid muscle paralysis, muscle atrophy, decreased muscle tone, and loss of voluntary control.

Upper motor neuron lesions cause a) no muscle atrophy. Upper motor neuron lesions do not cause muscle atrophy but do cause loss of voluntary control.

Description : Upper motor neuron lesions cause a) no muscle atrophy. Upper motor neuron lesions do not cause muscle atrophy but do cause loss of voluntary control. b) decreased muscle tone. Lower motor ... paralysis. d) absent or decreased reflexes. Lower motor neuron lesions cause absent or decreased reflexes.

Last Answer : a) no muscle atrophy. Upper motor neuron lesions do not cause muscle atrophy but do cause loss of voluntary control.

The nurse places the patient after liver biopsy in which of the following positions? a) On the right side In this position, the liver capsule at the site of penetration is compressed against the chest wall, and the escape of blood or bile through the perforation made for the biopsy is impeded.

Description : The nurse places the patient after liver biopsy in which of the following positions? a) On the right side In this position, the liver capsule at the site of penetration is compressed against the chest ... . d) High Fowler's High Fowler's position is not indicated for the patient after liver biopsy.

Last Answer : a) On the right side In this position, the liver capsule at the site of penetration is compressed against the chest wall, and the escape of blood or bile through the perforation made for the biopsy is impeded.

A patient has painful lesions on her buccal mucosa. Biopsy report shows acantholysis and supra basilare, your diagnosis is: A. Pemphigus vulgaris B. Bulla lichen planus C. Erythema multiform D. Systemic lupus erythematosus

Description : A patient has painful lesions on her buccal mucosa. Biopsy report shows acantholysis and supra basilare, your diagnosis is: A. Pemphigus vulgaris B. Bulla lichen planus C. Erythema multiform D. Systemic lupus erythematosus

Last Answer : A. Pemphigus vulgaris

When irrigating a colostomy, the nurse lubricates the catheter and gently inserts it into the stoma no more than _______ inches a) 3” The nurse should insert the catheter no more than 3 inches. b) 2” Insertion of the catheter 2 inches is inadequate. c) 4” Insertion of the catheter 4 inches is excessive and not recommended. d) 5” Insertion of the catheter 5 inches is excessive and not recommended.

Description : When irrigating a colostomy, the nurse lubricates the catheter and gently inserts it into the stoma no more than _______ inches a) 3 The nurse should insert the catheter no more than 3 inches. b ... and not recommended. d) 5 Insertion of the catheter 5 inches is excessive and not recommended.

Last Answer : a) 3” The nurse should insert the catheter no more than 3 inches.

The client complained of abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting with abdominal distention. The nurse anticipates which of the following priority management after referring to the surgeon? A. Gastric decompression B. Possible surgery C. Endoscopy D. Rectal tube insertion

Description : The client complained of abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting with abdominal distention. The nurse anticipates which of the following priority management after referring to the surgeon? A. Gastric decompression B. Possible surgery C. Endoscopy D. Rectal tube insertion

Last Answer : A. Gastric decompression

After having a lymph node biopsy with a needle is it normal for the node to double in size?

Description : After having a lymph node biopsy with a needle is it normal for the node to double in size?

Last Answer : The increase in size is likely due to bleeding into the node itself. This is one potential “complication” of the biopsy. I would put pressure on the node, and contact the doctor/hospital where it was done as soon as you can.

Pleural needle biopsy?

Description : Pleural needle biopsy?

Last Answer : DefinitionA pleural biopsy is a procedure to remove a sample of the tissue lining the lungs and the inside of the chest wall to check for disease or infection.Alternative NamesClosed pleural biopsy; Needle biopsy of ... the procedure, you will be asked to sing, hum, or say "eee." This helps preven

Structural and motor changes related to aging that may be assessed in geriatric patients during an examination of neurologic function include which of the following? a) Decreased or absent deep tendon reflexes Structural and motor changes related to aging that may be assessed in geriatric patients include decreased or absent deep tendon reflexes.

Description : Structural and motor changes related to aging that may be assessed in geriatric patients during an examination of neurologic function include which of the following? a) Decreased or absent deep ... and movement times Strength and agility are diminished and reaction and movement times are decreased.

Last Answer : a) Decreased or absent deep tendon reflexes Structural and motor changes related to aging that may be assessed in geriatric patients include decreased or absent deep tendon reflexes.

The nurse reading the physician’s report of an elderly patient’s physical examination knows a notation that the patient demonstrates xanthelasma refers to a) yellowish waxy deposits on upper eyelids. The change is a common, benign manifestation of aging skin or it can sometimes signal hyperlipidemia.

Description : The nurse reading the physician's report of an elderly patient's physical examination knows a notation that the patient demonstrates xanthelasma refers to a) yellowish waxy deposits on upper eyelids. The change is ... red moles. Cherry angioma is the term that is used to describe a bright red mole.

Last Answer : a) yellowish waxy deposits on upper eyelids. The change is a common, benign manifestation of aging skin or it can sometimes signal hyperlipidemia.

The nurse teaches the female patient who is premenopausal to perform breast self-examination (BSE) a) on day 5 to day 7, counting the first day of menses as day 1. BSE is best performed after menses, when less fluid is retained.

Description : The nurse teaches the female patient who is premenopausal to perform breast self-examination (BSE) a) on day 5 to day 7, counting the first day of menses as day 1. BSE is best performed ... retention before their menstrual period, BSE is best performed when the time for menses is taken into account.

Last Answer : a) on day 5 to day 7, counting the first day of menses as day 1. BSE is best performed after menses, when less fluid is retained.

Of the following terms, which refers to casts in the urine? a) Cylindruria Casts may be identified through microscopic examination of the urine sediment after centrifuging.

Description : Of the following terms, which refers to casts in the urine? a) Cylindruria Casts may be identified through microscopic examination of the urine sediment after centrifuging. b) Crystalluria Crystalluria ... Bacteriuria refers to a bacterial count higher than 100,000 colonies/mL in the urine.

Last Answer : a) Cylindruria Casts may be identified through microscopic examination of the urine sediment after centrifuging.

Which of the following methods of physical examination refers to the translation of physical force into sound? a) Percussion Percussion translates the application of physical force into sound. b) Palpation Palpation refers to examination by non-forceful touching. c) Auscultation Auscultation refers to the skill of listening to sounds produced within the body created by movement of air or fluid. d) Manipulation Manipulation refers to the use of the hands to determine motion of a body part.

Description : Which of the following methods of physical examination refers to the translation of physical force into sound? a) Percussion Percussion translates the application of physical force into sound. b) Palpation ... Manipulation refers to the use of the hands to determine motion of a body part.

Last Answer : a) Percussion Percussion translates the application of physical force into sound.

Which of the following items is considered the single most important factor in assisting the health professional in arriving at a diagnosis or determining the person’s needs? a) History of present illness The history of the present illness is the single most important factor in assisting the health professional in arriving at a diagnosis or determining the person’s needs. b) Physical examination The physical examination is helpful but often only validates the information obtained from the history. c) Diagnostic test results Diagnostic test results can be helpful, but they often only verify rather than establish the diagnosis. d) Biographical data Biographical information puts the health history in context but does not focus the diagnosis.

Description : Which of the following items is considered the single most important factor in assisting the health professional in arriving at a diagnosis or determining the person's needs? a) History of ... data Biographical information puts the health history in context but does not focus the diagnosis.

Last Answer : a) History of present illness The history of the present illness is the single most important factor in assisting the health professional in arriving at a diagnosis or determining the person’s needs.

A 12 years-old girl complains of sore mouth, she has painful cervical lymphadenitis and a temperature of 39°c, oral examination shows numerous yellow grey lesions. What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis: A. Measles (koplick spots are present next to the molars usually) B. Erythema multiform se da general mentor hombres mas de 20 años en labios C. Herpetic gingivostomatitis D. Stevens-Johnson syndrome

Description : A 12 years-old girl complains of sore mouth, she has painful cervical lymphadenitis and a temperature of 39°c, oral examination shows numerous yellow grey lesions. What is the MOST LIKELY ... mentor hombres mas de 20 años en labios C. Herpetic gingivostomatitis D. Stevens-Johnson syndrome

Last Answer : C. Herpetic gingivostomatitis

Ductal lavage is used for a) women at higher risk for benign proliferative breast disease. Performed in the doctor’s office, a microcatheter is inserted through the nipple while instilling saline and retrieving the fluid for analysis. It has been shown to identify atypical cells in this population and has been found to be adept at detecting cellular changes within the breast tissue.

Description : Ductal lavage is used for a) women at higher risk for benign proliferative breast disease. Performed in the doctor's office, a microcatheter is inserted through the nipple while instilling saline ... risk for benign proliferative breast disease; it is not specific for women with breast implants.

Last Answer : a) women at higher risk for benign proliferative breast disease. Performed in the doctor's office, a microcatheter is inserted through the nipple while instilling saline and retrieving the fluid ... population and has been found to be adept at detecting cellular changes within the breast tissue.

When the valve used in valve replacement surgery is made from the patient’s own heart valve, which of the following terms is used? a) Autograft An example of autograft is found when the surgeon excises the pulmonic valve and uses it for an aortic valve replacement. b) Allograft Allograft refers to replacement using human tissue and is a synonym for homograft. c) Homograft Homograft refers to replacement using human tissue and is a synonym for allograft. d) Xenograft Xenograft refers to replacement of tissue from animal tissue.

Description : When the valve used in valve replacement surgery is made from the patient's own heart valve, which of the following terms is used? a) Autograft An example of autograft is found when the ... and is a synonym for allograft. d) Xenograft Xenograft refers to replacement of tissue from animal tissue.

Last Answer : a) Autograft An example of autograft is found when the surgeon excises the pulmonic valve and uses it for an aortic valve replacement.

Diagnosis of oral candidiasis (candidosis) is BEST confirmed by: A. Microscopic examination of smears B. Biopsy C. Blood count D. Serological exam

Description : Diagnosis of oral candidiasis (candidosis) is BEST confirmed by: A. Microscopic examination of smears B. Biopsy C. Blood count D. Serological exam

Last Answer : A. Microscopic examination of smears

During which stage or phase of bone healing after fracture is devitalized tissue removed and new bone reorganized into its former structural arrangement? a) Remodeling Remodeling is the final stage of fracture repair. b) Inflammation During inflammation, macrophages invade and debride the fracture area. c) Revascularization Revascularization occurs within about 5 days after the fracture. d) Reparative Callus formation occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion at the fracture site.

Description : During which stage or phase of bone healing after fracture is devitalized tissue removed and new bone reorganized into its former structural arrangement? a) Remodeling Remodeling is the final stage of ... occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion at the fracture site.

Last Answer : a) Remodeling Remodeling is the final stage of fracture repair.

During which stage of pressure ulcer development does the ulcer extend into the underlying structures, including the muscle and possibly the bone? a) Stage IV A stage IV pressure ulcer extends into the underlying structure, including the muscle and possibly the bone. b) Stage III A stage III ulcer extends into the subcutaneous tissue. c) Stage II A stage II ulcer exhibits a break in the skin through the epidermis or dermis. d) Stage I A stage I pressure ulcer is an area of nonblanchable erythema, tissue swelling, and congestion, and the patient complains of discomfort.

Description : During which stage of pressure ulcer development does the ulcer extend into the underlying structures, including the muscle and possibly the bone? a) Stage IV A stage IV pressure ulcer ... area of nonblanchable erythema, tissue swelling, and congestion, and the patient complains of discomfort.

Last Answer : a) Stage IV A stage IV pressure ulcer extends into the underlying structure, including the muscle and possibly the bone.

During which stage of pressure ulcer development does the ulcer extend into the subcutaneous tissue? a) Stage III Clinically, a deep crater with or without undermining of adjacent tissues is noted. b) Stage IV A stage IV pressure ulcer extends into the underlying structure, including the muscle and possibly the bone. c) Stage II A stage II ulcer exhibits a break in the skin through the epidermis or dermis. d) Stage I A stage I pressure ulcer is an area of nonblanchable erythema, tissue swelling, and congestion, and the patient complains of discomfort.

Description : During which stage of pressure ulcer development does the ulcer extend into the subcutaneous tissue? a) Stage III Clinically, a deep crater with or without undermining of adjacent tissues is ... area of nonblanchable erythema, tissue swelling, and congestion, and the patient complains of discomfort.

Last Answer : a) Stage III Clinically, a deep crater with or without undermining of adjacent tissues is noted.

Induction of vomiting is indicated for the accidental poisoning patient who has ingested a) aspirin. Overdose of aspirin should be treated with emesis or lavage, followed by ingestion of activated charcoal to absorb the aspirin.

Description : Induction of vomiting is indicated for the accidental poisoning patient who has ingested a) aspirin. Overdose of aspirin should be treated with emesis or lavage, followed by ingestion of ... d) toilet bowl cleaner. Toilet bowl cleaners are corrosive, and induced vomiting is contraindicated.

Last Answer : a) aspirin. Overdose of aspirin should be treated with emesis or lavage, followed by ingestion of activated charcoal to absorb the aspirin.

Which technique is generally followed when the population is finite? (A) Area Sampling Technique (B) Purposive Sampling Technique (C) Systematic Sampling Technique (D) None of the above

Description : Which technique is generally followed when the population is finite? (A) Area Sampling Technique (B) Purposive Sampling Technique (C) Systematic Sampling Technique (D) None of the above 

Last Answer : (C) Systematic Sampling Technique

cyst at the apex of an upper central incisor measuring 1 cm in diameter is visualized in radiograph and confirmed by aspiration biopsy; which method of treatment would you consider?** A. Extraction of the central incisor and retrieving the cyst through the socket B. Exteriorizing the cyst through the buccal bone and mucosa C. Making a mucoperiosteal flap and removing the cyst through an opening made in the alveolar bone, followed by tooth removal. D. Making a mucoperiosteal flap and removing the cyst through an opening made in the alveolar bone, followed by endodontic treatment. E. Routine orthograde endodontic treatment followed by observation.

Description : cyst at the apex of an upper central incisor measuring 1 cm in diameter is visualized in radiograph and confirmed by aspiration biopsy; which method of treatment would you consider?** ... bone, followed by endodontic treatment. E. Routine orthograde endodontic treatment followed by observation.

Last Answer : D. Making a mucoperiosteal flap and removing the cyst through an opening made in the alveolar bone, followed by endodontic treatment.

Which of the following terms is used to describe a chronic liver disease in which scar tissue surrounds the portal areas? a) Alcoholic cirrhosis This type of cirrhosis is due to chronic alcoholism and is the most common type of cirrhosis.

Description : Which of the following terms is used to describe a chronic liver disease in which scar tissue surrounds the portal areas? a) Alcoholic cirrhosis This type of cirrhosis is due to chronic alcoholism and ... to the state of liver disease in which the liver continues to be able to function effectively.

Last Answer : a) Alcoholic cirrhosis This type of cirrhosis is due to chronic alcoholism and is the most common type of cirrhosis.

You have to sort a list L, consisting of a sorted list followed by a few ‘random’ elements. Which of the following sorting method would be most suitable for such a task ? (A) Bubble sort (B) Selection sort (C) Quick sort (D) Insertion sort

Description : You have to sort a list L, consisting of a sorted list followed by a few ‘random’ elements. Which of the following sorting method would be most suitable for such a task ? (A) Bubble sort (B) Selection sort (C) Quick sort (D) Insertion sort

Last Answer : (D) Insertion sort

In connection with the examination of financial statements, an independent auditor could be responsible for failure to detect a material fraud if a. Accountants performing important parts of the work failed to discover a close relationship between the treasurer and the cashier. b. The auditor planned the work in a hasty and inefficient manner. c. Statistical sampling techniques were not used on the audit engagement. d. The fraud was perpetrated by one client employee, who circumvented the existing internal control

Description : In connection with the examination of financial statements, an independent auditor could be responsible for failure to detect a material fraud if a. Accountants performing important parts of the ... . The fraud was perpetrated by one client employee, who circumvented the existing internal control

Last Answer : The auditor planned the work in a hasty and inefficient manner.

In connection with the examination of financial statements, an independent auditor could be responsible for failure to detect a material fraud if a. Statistical sampling techniques were not used on the audit engagement. b. The fraud was perpetrated by one client employee, who circumvented the existing internal control. c. The auditor planned the work in a hasty and inefficient manner. d. Accountants performing important partsof the work failed to discover a closerelationship between the treasurer andthe cashie

Description : In connection with the examination of financial statements, an independent auditor could be responsible for failure to detect a material fraud if a. Statistical sampling techniques were not used on ... partsof the work failed to discover a close relationship between the treasurer and the cashie

Last Answer : The auditor planned the work in a hasty and inefficient manner.

Which method of organisational buying is appropriate when the product is highly homogeneous and examination of each item is not feasible? A)Negotiation B)Sampling C)Description D)Inspection E)Homogeneous selection

Description : Which method of organisational buying is appropriate when the product is highly homogeneous and examination of each item is not feasible? A)Negotiation B)Sampling C)Description D)Inspection E)Homogeneous selection

Last Answer : B)Sampling

Mercury is typically used in the placement of which of the following tubes? a) Miller-Abbott Most nasoenteric tubes use mercury to carry the tube by gravity to its desired location. b) Gastric sump A gastric sump is used to decompress and empty the stomach. c) Dobbhoff Dobbhoff tubes are used for enteric feeding. d) EnterafloW Enteraflow tubes are used for enteric feeding

Description : Mercury is typically used in the placement of which of the following tubes? a) Miller-Abbott Most nasoenteric tubes use mercury to carry the tube by gravity to its desired location. b) ... Dobbhoff tubes are used for enteric feeding. d) EnterafloW Enteraflow tubes are used for enteric feeding

Last Answer : a) Miller-Abbott Most nasoenteric tubes use mercury to carry the tube by gravity to its desired location.

The nurse auscultates the apex beat at which of the following anatomical locations? a) Fifth intercostal space, midclavicular line The left ventricle is responsible for the apex beat or the point of maximum impulse, which is normally palpable in the left midclavicular line of the chest wall at the fifth intercostal space. b) Mid-sternum The right ventricle lies anteriorly, just beneath the sternum. c) 2” to the left of the lower end of the sternum Use of inches to identify the location of the apex beat is inappropriate based upon variations in human anatomy. d) 1” to the left of the xiphoid process Auscultation below and to the left of the xiphoid process will detect gastrointestinal sounds, but not the apex beat of the heart.

Description : The nurse auscultates the apex beat at which of the following anatomical locations? a) Fifth intercostal space, midclavicular line The left ventricle is responsible for the apex beat or the point of ... of the xiphoid process will detect gastrointestinal sounds, but not the apex beat of the heart.

Last Answer : a) Fifth intercostal space, midclavicular line The left ventricle is responsible for the apex beat or the point of maximum impulse, which is normally palpable in the left midclavicular line of the chest wall at the fifth intercostal space.

Fracture healing occurs in four areas, including the a) external soft tissue. Fracture healing occurs in four areas, including the bone marrow, bone cortex, periosteum, and the external soft tissue, where a bridging callus (fibrous tissue) stabilizes the fracture.

Description : Fracture healing occurs in four areas, including the a) external soft tissue. Fracture healing occurs in four areas, including the bone marrow, bone cortex, periosteum, and the external soft ... and the external soft tissue. Fascia is fibrous tissue that covers, supports, and separates muscles.

Last Answer : a) external soft tissue. Fracture healing occurs in four areas, including the bone marrow, bone cortex, periosteum, and the external soft tissue, where a bridging callus (fibrous tissue) stabilizes the fracture.