The nurse anticipates that the immunosuppressed patient is at greatest risk for which type of shock? a) Septic Septic shock is associated with immunosuppression, extremes of age, malnourishment, chronic illness, and invasive procedures. b) Neurogenic Neurogenic shock is associated with spinal cord injury and anesthesia. c) Cardiogenic Cardiogenic shock is associated with disease of the heart. d) Anaphylactic Anaphylactic shock is associated with hypersensitivity reactions.

The nurse anticipates that the immunosuppressed patient is at
greatest risk for which type of shock?
a) Septic
Septic shock is associated with immunosuppression, extremes of age,
malnourishment, chronic illness, and invasive procedures.
b) Neurogenic
Neurogenic shock is associated with spinal cord injury and anesthesia.
c) Cardiogenic
Cardiogenic shock is associated with disease of the heart.
d) Anaphylactic
Anaphylactic shock is associated with hypersensitivity reactions.
by

1 Answer

Answer :

a) Septic
Septic shock is associated with immunosuppression, extremes of age,
malnourishment, chronic illness, and invasive procedures.
by

Related questions

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the various types of shock? a. Traumatic shock is more commonly associated with subsequent organ injury and multiorgan failure syndrome than hemorrhagic shock b. Cardiogenic shock can be of either an intrinsic or compressive nature c. Hypodynamic septic shock is associated with a decreased mortality risk when compared with hyperdynamic septic shock d. Hypoadrenal shock usually responds quickly to resuscitation e. Neurogenic shock occurs with the absence of sympathetic activity

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the various types of shock? a. Traumatic shock is more commonly associated with subsequent organ injury and multiorgan failure ... responds quickly to resuscitation e. Neurogenic shock occurs with the absence of sympathetic activity

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, d, e Classification schemes of shock based on cause have been developed for the seemingly dissimilar processes leading to circulatory collapse and the shock state. ... and pressor agents. The response to exogenous corticosteroids is usually dramatic and potentially life-saving

All of the following are true about neurogenic shock except: A. There is a decrease in systemic vascular resistance and an increase in venous capacitance. B. Tachycardia or bradycardia may be observed, along with hypotension. C. The use of an alpha agonist such as phenylephrine is the mainstay of treatment. D. Severe head injury, spinal cord injury, and high spinal anesthesia may all cause neurogenic shock.

Description : All of the following are true about neurogenic shock except: A. There is a decrease in systemic vascular resistance and an increase in venous capacitance. B. Tachycardia or bradycardia may be ... Severe head injury, spinal cord injury, and high spinal anesthesia may all cause neurogenic shock.

Last Answer : Answer: C DISCUSSION: Neurogenic shock occurs when severe head injury, spinal cord injury, or pharmacologic sympathetic blockade leads to sympathetic denervation and loss of vasomotor tone. ... of treatment. The use of alpha-adrenergic agonist is infrequently necessary to treat neurogenic shock

In which type of shock does the patient experiences a mismatch of blood flow to the cells? a) Distributive Distributive or vasogenic shock results from displacement of blood volume, creating a relative hypovolemia. b) Cardiogenic Cardiogenic shock results from the failure of a heart as a pump. c) Hypovolemic In hypovolemic shock, there is a decrease in the intravascular volume. d) Septic In septic shock, overwhelming infection results in a relative hypovolemia.

Description : In which type of shock does the patient experiences a mismatch of blood flow to the cells? a) Distributive Distributive or vasogenic shock results from displacement of blood volume, ... intravascular volume. d) Septic In septic shock, overwhelming infection results in a relative hypovolemia.

Last Answer : a) Distributive Distributive or vasogenic shock results from displacement of blood volume, creating a relative hypovolemia.

When the emergency nurse learns that the patient suffered injury from a flash flame, the nurse anticipates which depth of burn? a) Deep partial thickness A deep partial thickness burn is similar to a second-degree burn and is associated with scalds and flash flames.

Description : When the emergency nurse learns that the patient suffered injury from a flash flame, the nurse anticipates which depth of burn? a) Deep partial thickness A deep partial thickness burn is similar to a ... Injury from a flash flame is not associated with a burn that is limited to the epidermis.

Last Answer : a) Deep partial thickness A deep partial thickness burn is similar to a second-degree burn and is associated with scalds and flash flames.

A 32-year-old man suffers a spinal cord injury with a resultant paraplegia in a motorcycle accident. He presents to the emergency room with hypotension. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning his diagnosis and management? a. The low blood pressure can be assumed to be due to neurogenic shock b. The sole cause of hypotension is the loss of sympathetic input to the venous system c. Despite significant hypotension, secondary organ injury will be uncommon d. There is no role for pharmacologic intervention to maintain blood pressure

Description : A 32-year-old man suffers a spinal cord injury with a resultant paraplegia in a motorcycle accident. He presents to the emergency room with hypotension. Which of the following statement(s) is/ ... injury will be uncommon d. There is no role for pharmacologic intervention to maintain blood pressure

Last Answer : Answer: c Neurogenic shock results from interruption of sympathetic vasomotor input and develops after spinal cord injury, spinal anesthesia, and severe head injury. Under normal conditions, baseline ... the cause is not neurogenic and search for occult blood loss or cardiogenic causes of shock

The nurse teaches the patient with allergies about anaphylaxis including which of the following statements? a) The most common cause of anaphylaxis is penicillin. The most common cause of anaphylaxis, accounting for about 75% of fatal anaphylactic reactions in the U.S., is penicillin.

Description : The nurse teaches the patient with allergies about anaphylaxis including which of the following statements? a) The most common cause of anaphylaxis is penicillin. The most common ... 30 minutes of exposure involving cardiovascular, respiratory, gastrointestinal, and integumentary organ systems.

Last Answer : a) The most common cause of anaphylaxis is penicillin. The most common cause of anaphylaxis, accounting for about 75% of fatal anaphylactic reactions in the U.S., is penicillin.

Which of the following interventions is the single most important aspect for the patient at risk for anaphylaxis? a) Prevention People who have experienced food, medication, idiopathic, or exerciseinduced anaphylactic reactions should always carry an emergency kit containing epinephrine for injection to prevent the onset of the reaction upon exposure.

Description : Which of the following interventions is the single most important aspect for the patient at risk for anaphylaxis? a) Prevention People who have experienced food, medication, idiopathic, or ... alert bracelet will assist those rendering aid to the patient who has experienced an anaphylactic reaction

Last Answer : a) Prevention People who have experienced food, medication, idiopathic, or exerciseinduced anaphylactic reactions should always carry an emergency kit containing epinephrine for injection to prevent the onset of the reaction upon exposure.

Of the following stimuli, which is known to trigger an episode of autonomic hyperreflexia in the patient who has suffered a spinal cord injury? a) Applying a blanket over the patient An object on the skin or skin pressure may precipitate an autonomic hyperreflexic episode.

Description : Of the following stimuli, which is known to trigger an episode of autonomic hyperreflexia in the patient who has suffered a spinal cord injury? a) Applying a blanket over the patient An ... lower blood pressure. d) Voiding The most common cause of autonomic hyperreflexia is a distended bladder.

Last Answer : a) Applying a blanket over the patient An object on the skin or skin pressure may precipitate an autonomic hyperreflexic episode.

Which of the following diseases is a chronic, degenerative, progressive disease of the central nervous system characterized by the occurrence of small patches of demyelination in the brain and spinal cord? a) Multiple sclerosis The cause of MS is not known and the disease affects twice as many women as men.

Description : Which of the following diseases is a chronic, degenerative, progressive disease of the central nervous system characterized by the occurrence of small patches of demyelination in the brain and ... the central nervous system characterized by spongiform degeneration of the gray matter of the brain.

Last Answer : a) Multiple sclerosis The cause of MS is not known and the disease affects twice as many women as men.

When assessing the older adult, the nurse anticipates increase in which of the follow components of respiratory status? a) Residual lung volume As a result, patient experience fatigue and breathlessness with sustained activity. b) Vital capacity The nurse anticipates decreased vital capacity. c) Gas exchange and diffusing capacity The nurse anticipates decreased gas exchange and diffusing capacity resulting in impaired healing of tissues due to decreased oxygenation. d) Cough efficiency The nurse anticipates difficulty coughing up secretions due to decreased cough efficiency.

Description : When assessing the older adult, the nurse anticipates increase in which of the follow components of respiratory status? a) Residual lung volume As a result, patient experience fatigue ... ) Cough efficiency The nurse anticipates difficulty coughing up secretions due to decreased cough efficiency.

Last Answer : a) Residual lung volume As a result, patient experience fatigue and breathlessness with sustained activity.

Infectious disease transmission during blood transfusions is of clinical significance to surgeons and of major importance to patients contemplating surgery potentially associated with the need for blood administration. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the transmission of infectious disease during blood transfusions? a. Post-transfusion hepatitis is usually due to hepatitis B b. Hepatitis and HIV transmission is greatest with the administration of pooled plasma products such as serum albumin c. The most important cause of post-transfusion disease in immunosuppressed patients is CMV infection d. The risk of HIV transmission in blood transfusions is significantly less than the risk of hepatitis transmission

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Last Answer : Answer: c, d The most common infectious diseases transmitted during blood transfusions include viral hepatitis, CMV, and HIV infection. Post-transfusion hepatitis in 90% of cases consists of ... infectious disease transmission, the risks of HIV transmission is markedly less than that of hepatitis

Which of the following diseases is a chronic, progressive, hereditary disease of the nervous system that results in progressive involuntary dance-like movement and dementia? a) Huntington’s disease Because it is transmitted as an autosomal dominant genetic disorder, each child of a parent with HD has a 50% risk of inheriting the illness.

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Last Answer : a) Huntington’s disease Because it is transmitted as an autosomal dominant genetic disorder, each child of a parent with HD has a 50% risk of inheriting the illness.

A classic sign of cardiogenic shock is a) Tissue hypoperfusion Tissue hypoperfusion is manifested as cerebral hypoxia (restlessness, confusion, agitation). b) High blood pressure Low blood pressure is a classic sign of cardiogenic shock. c) Hyperactive bowel sounds Hypoactive bowel sounds are classic signs of cardiogenic shock. d) Increased urinary output Decreased urinary output is a classic sign of cardiogenic shock.

Description : A classic sign of cardiogenic shock is a) Tissue hypoperfusion Tissue hypoperfusion is manifested as cerebral hypoxia (restlessness, confusion, agitation). b) High blood pressure Low blood pressure is ... . d) Increased urinary output Decreased urinary output is a classic sign of cardiogenic shock.

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When the patient who has undergone laryngectomy suffers wound breakdown, the nurse monitors him very carefully because he is identified as being at high risk for a) carotid artery hemorrhage. The carotid artery lies close to the stoma and may rupture from erosion if the wound does not heal properly. b) pulmonary embolism. Pulmonary embolism is associated with immobility. c) dehydration. Dehydration may lead to poor wound healing and breakdown. d) pneumonia. Pneumonia is a risk for any postoperative patient.

Description : When the patient who has undergone laryngectomy suffers wound breakdown, the nurse monitors him very carefully because he is identified as being at high risk for a) carotid artery hemorrhage. The ... poor wound healing and breakdown. d) pneumonia. Pneumonia is a risk for any postoperative patient.

Last Answer : a) carotid artery hemorrhage. The carotid artery lies close to the stoma and may rupture from erosion if the wound does not heal properly.

The nurse anticipates that the physician will perform joint aspiration and wrapping with compression elastic dressing for which of the following musculoskeletal problems? a) Joint effusion The described treatments are used with joint effusions and hemarthrosis.

Description : The nurse anticipates that the physician will perform joint aspiration and wrapping with compression elastic dressing for which of the following musculoskeletal problems? a) Joint effusion The described ... of tissue due to insufficient blood supply and may be associated with steroid use.

Last Answer : a) Joint effusion The described treatments are used with joint effusions and hemarthrosis.

The client complained of abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting with abdominal distention. The nurse anticipates which of the following priority management after referring to the surgeon? A. Gastric decompression B. Possible surgery C. Endoscopy D. Rectal tube insertion

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Last Answer : A. Gastric decompression

The term given to the category of triage that refers to lifethreatening or potentially life-threatening injury or illness requiring immediate treatment is a) emergent. The patient triaged as emergent must be seen immediately.

Description : The term given to the category of triage that refers to lifethreatening or potentially life-threatening injury or illness requiring immediate treatment is a) emergent. The patient triaged as emergent ... . The triage category of immediate refers to non-acute, non-lifethreatening injury or illness.

Last Answer : a) emergent. The patient triaged as emergent must be seen immediately.

The nurse recognizes which of the following signs as typical of the patient in shock? a) Rapid, weak, thready pulse Pulse increases as the body tries to compensate. b) Flushed face Pallor is an indicator of shock. c) Warm, dry skin Skin is generally cool and moist in shock. d) Increased urine output Usually, a low blood pressure and concentrated urine are observed in the patient in shock.

Description : The nurse recognizes which of the following signs as typical of the patient in shock? a) Rapid, weak, thready pulse Pulse increases as the body tries to compensate. b) Flushed face Pallor is ... urine output Usually, a low blood pressure and concentrated urine are observed in the patient in shock.

Last Answer : a) Rapid, weak, thready pulse Pulse increases as the body tries to compensate.

Health education of the patient by the nurse a) Is an independent function of nursing practice. Health education is an independent function of nursing practice and is included in all state nurse practice acts. b) Requires a physician’s order. Teaching, as a function of nursing, is included in all state nurse practice acts. c) Must be approved by the physician. Health education is a primary responsibility of the nursing profession. d) Must focus on wellness issues. Health education by the nurse focuses on promoting, maintaining, and restoring health; preventing illness; and assisting people to adapt to the residual effects of illness.

Description : Health education of the patient by the nurse a) Is an independent function of nursing practice. Health education is an independent function of nursing practice and is included in all state ... restoring health; preventing illness; and assisting people to adapt to the residual effects of illness.

Last Answer : a) Is an independent function of nursing practice. Health education is an independent function of nursing practice and is included in all state nurse practice acts.

When the patient who has experienced trauma to an extremity complains of severe burning pain, vasomotor changes, and muscles spasms in the injured extremity, the nurse recognizes that the patient is likely demonstrating signs of a) reflex sympathetic dystrophy syndrome. RSD is frequently chronic and occurs most often in women.

Description : When the patient who has experienced trauma to an extremity complains of severe burning pain, vasomotor changes, and muscles spasms in the injured extremity, the nurse ... heterotrophic ossification. Heterotrophic ossification causes muscular pain and limited muscular contraction and movement.

Last Answer : a) reflex sympathetic dystrophy syndrome. RSD is frequently chronic and occurs most often in women.

When the nurse reviews the physician’s progress notes for the patient who has sustained a head injury and sees that the physician observed Battle’s sign when the patient was in the Emergency Department, the nurse knows that the physician observed a) an area of bruising over the mastoid bone. Battle’s sign may indicate skull fracture.

Description : When the nurse reviews the physician's progress notes for the patient who has sustained a head injury and sees that the physician observed Battle's sign when the patient was in the Emergency Department, the ... CSF) from the patient's nose. Escape of CSF from the patient's nose is termed rhinorrhea.

Last Answer : a) an area of bruising over the mastoid bone. Battle’s sign may indicate skull fracture.

The nurse teaches the patient with peripheral vascular disease to refrain from smoking because nicotine causes a) vasospasm. Nicotine causes vasospasm and can thereby dramatically reduce circulation to the extremities. b) slowed heart rate. Nicotine has stimulant effects. c) depression of the cough reflex. Nicotine does not suppress cough. Smoking irritates the bronchial tree, causing coughing. d) diuresis. Nicotine does not cause diuresis.

Description : The nurse teaches the patient with peripheral vascular disease to refrain from smoking because nicotine causes a) vasospasm. Nicotine causes vasospasm and can thereby dramatically reduce circulation to the ... the bronchial tree, causing coughing. d) diuresis. Nicotine does not cause diuresis.

Last Answer : a) vasospasm. Nicotine causes vasospasm and can thereby dramatically reduce circulation to the extremities.

Which of the following factors are associated with increased fluid requirements in the management of patients with burn injury? a) Inhalation injuries Factors associated with increased fluid requirements include inhalation injuries, delayed resuscitation, scald burn injuries, high-voltage electrical injuries, hyperglycemia, alcohol intoxification and chronic diuretic therapy.

Description : Which of the following factors are associated with increased fluid requirements in the management of patients with burn injury? a) Inhalation injuries Factors associated with increased fluid ... fluid requirements. d) Hypoglycemia Hypoglycemia is not associated with increased fluid requirements.

Last Answer : a) Inhalation injuries Factors associated with increased fluid requirements include inhalation injuries, delayed resuscitation, scald burn injuries, high-voltage electrical injuries, hyperglycemia, alcohol intoxification and chronic diuretic therapy.

An intradermal penicillin sensitivity test has been performed on a patient and found to be negative. This indicates that: A. Penicillin antibodies are not present in his body B. He will not develop any reaction when full dose of penicillin is injected C. He will not develop anaphylactic reaction when full dose of penicillin is injected D. He is unlikely to develop immediate type of hypersensitivity reaction when full dose of penicillin is injected

Description : An intradermal penicillin sensitivity test has been performed on a patient and found to be negative. This indicates that: A. Penicillin antibodies are not present in his body B. He will ... He is unlikely to develop immediate type of hypersensitivity reaction when full dose of penicillin is injected

Last Answer : D. He is unlikely to develop immediate type of hypersensitivity reaction when full dose of penicillin is injected

Vasoconstrictors should not be used in (a) Neurogenic shock (b) Haemorrhagic shock (c) Secondary shock (d) Hypotension due to spinal anaesthesia

Description : Vasoconstrictors should not be used in (a) Neurogenic shock (b) Haemorrhagic shock (c) Secondary shock (d) Hypotension due to spinal anaesthesia

Last Answer : Ans: C

Vasoconstrictors should not be used in: A. Neurogenic shock B. Haemorrhagic shock C. Secondary shock D. Hypotension due to spinal anaesthesia

Description : Vasoconstrictors should not be used in: A. Neurogenic shock B. Haemorrhagic shock C. Secondary shock D. Hypotension due to spinal anaesthesia

Last Answer : C. Secondary shock

The nurse teaches the patient with a high risk for osteoporosis about risk-lowering strategies including which of the following statements? a) Walk or perform weight-bearing exercises out of doors. Risk-lowering strategies for osteoporosis include walking or exercising out of doors, performing a regular weight-bearing exercise regimen, increasing dietary calcium and vitamin D intake, smoking cessation, and consuming alcohol and caffeine consumption in moderation.

Description : The nurse teaches the patient with a high risk for osteoporosis about risk-lowering strategies including which of the following statements? a) Walk or perform weight-bearing exercises out ... alcohol and caffeine consumption in moderation, and performing a regular weight-bearing exercise regimen.

Last Answer : a) Walk or perform weight-bearing exercises out of doors. Risk-lowering strategies for osteoporosis include walking or exercising out of doors, performing a regular weight-bearing exercise ... and vitamin D intake, smoking cessation, and consuming alcohol and caffeine consumption in moderation.

A patient who has had a previous stroke and is taking warfarin tells the nurse that he started taking garlic to help reduce his blood pressure. The nurse knows that garlic when taken together with warfarin a) can greatly increase the international normalization ratio (INR) and therefore increase the risk of bleeding. Garlic and warfarin taken together can greatly increase the INR, increasing the risk of bleeding.

Description : A patient who has had a previous stroke and is taking warfarin tells the nurse that he started taking garlic to help reduce his blood pressure. The nurse knows that garlic when taken ... headaches. Garlic and warfarin taken together can greatly increase the INR, increasing the risk of bleeding.

Last Answer : a) can greatly increase the international normalization ratio (INR) and therefore increase the risk of bleeding. Garlic and warfarin taken together can greatly increase the INR, increasing the risk of bleeding.

In the United States, nurses performing invasive procedures need to be up-to-date with their immunizations, particularly a) Hepatitis B. Hepatitis B is transmitted through contact with infected blood or plasma. b) Hepatitis E. Hepatitis E is found mainly in underdeveloped countries with substandard sanitation and water quality. c) Hepatitis A. hepatitis A is transmitted through the oral route from the feces and saliva of an infected person. d) Hepatitis C. At present, immunization against hepatitis C is not available.

Description : In the United States, nurses performing invasive procedures need to be up-to-date with their immunizations, particularly a) Hepatitis B. Hepatitis B is transmitted through contact with infected blood ... infected person. d) Hepatitis C. At present, immunization against hepatitis C is not available.

Last Answer : a) Hepatitis B. Hepatitis B is transmitted through contact with infected blood or plasma.

Which of the following statements accurately describes cancer of the esophagus? a) Chronic irritation of the esophagus is a known risk factor. In the United States, cancer of the esophagus has been associated with the ingestion of alcohol and the use of tobacco. b) It is three times more common in women in the U.S. than men. In the United States, carcinoma of the esophagus occurs more than three times as often in men as in women. c) It is seen more frequently in Caucasians than in African Americans. It is seen more frequently in African Americans than in Caucasians. d) It usually occurs in the fourth decade of life. It usually occurs in the fifth decade of life.

Description : Which of the following statements accurately describes cancer of the esophagus? a) Chronic irritation of the esophagus is a known risk factor. In the United States, cancer of the esophagus has been associated ... occurs in the fourth decade of life. It usually occurs in the fifth decade of life.

Last Answer : a) Chronic irritation of the esophagus is a known risk factor. In the United States, cancer of the esophagus has been associated with the ingestion of alcohol and the use of tobacco.

Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for transient ischemic attacks and ischemic strokes? a) History of smoking. Modifiable risk factors for TIAs and ischemic stroke include hypertension, Type 1 diabetes, cardiac disease, history of smoking, and chronic alcoholism.

Description : Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for transient ischemic attacks and ischemic strokes? a) History of smoking. Modifiable risk factors for TIAs and ischemic stroke include hypertension, Type ... ) Advanced age Advanced age, gender, and race are non-modifiable risk factors for stroke.

Last Answer : a) History of smoking. Modifiable risk factors for TIAs and ischemic stroke include hypertension, Type 1 diabetes, cardiac disease, history of smoking, and chronic alcoholism.

When the nurse assesses the patient and observes blue-red and dark brown plaques and nodules, she recognizes that these manifestations are associated with a) Kaposi’s sarcoma. Kaposi’s sarcoma is a frequent comorbidity of the patient with AIDS.

Description : When the nurse assesses the patient and observes blue-red and dark brown plaques and nodules, she recognizes that these manifestations are associated with a) Kaposi's sarcoma. Kaposi's sarcoma is ... syphilis. A painless chancre or ulcerated lesion is a typical finding in the patient with syphilis.

Last Answer : a) Kaposi’s sarcoma. Kaposi’s sarcoma is a frequent comorbidity of the patient with AIDS.

A 22-year-old man sustains a single stab wound to the left chest and presents to the emergency room with hypotension. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning his diagnosis and management? a. The patient likely is suffering from hypovolemic shock and should respond quickly to fluid resuscitation b. Beck’s triad will likely be an obvious indication of compressive cardiogenic shock due to pericardial tamponade c. Echocardiography is the most sensitive noninvasive approach for diagnosis of pericardial tamponade d. The placement of bilateral chest tubes will likely resolve the problem

Description : A 22-year-old man sustains a single stab wound to the left chest and presents to the emergency room with hypotension. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning his ... diagnosis of pericardial tamponade d. The placement of bilateral chest tubes will likely resolve the problem

Last Answer : Answer: c Shock from cardiac compression occurs when external pressure on the heart impairs ventricular filling. Because ventricular filling is a function of venous return and myocardial compliance, ... sternotomy. Chest tube placement would not be appropriate as the sole treatment in this patient

H1 antihistaminics are beneficial in (a) All types of allergic disorders (b) Certain type I allergic reactions only (c) Anaphylactic shock(d) Bronchial asthma

Description : H1 antihistaminics are beneficial in (a) All types of allergic disorders (b) Certain type I allergic reactions only (c) Anaphylactic shock(d) Bronchial asthma

Last Answer : Ans: B

Which of the following terms is used to describe the fibrous connective tissue that covers the brain and spinal cord? a) Meninges The meninges have three layers, the dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater.

Description : Which of the following terms is used to describe the fibrous connective tissue that covers the brain and spinal cord? a) Meninges The meninges have three layers, the dura mater, arachnoid mater, and ... The pia mater is the innermost membrane of the protective covering of the brain and spinal cord.

Last Answer : a) Meninges The meninges have three layers, the dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater.

Of the following neurotransmitters, which demonstrates inhibitory action, helps control mood and sleep, and inhibits pain pathways? a) Serotonin The sources of serotonin are the brain stem, hypothalamus, and dorsal horn of the spinal cord.

Description : Of the following neurotransmitters, which demonstrates inhibitory action, helps control mood and sleep, and inhibits pain pathways? a) Serotonin The sources of serotonin are the brain ... d) Acetylcholine Acetylcholine is usually excitatory, but the parasympathetic effects are sometimes inhibitory.

Last Answer : a) Serotonin The sources of serotonin are the brain stem, hypothalamus, and dorsal horn of the spinal cord.

Which stage of anesthesia is termed surgical anesthesia? a) III With proper administration of the anesthetic, this stage may be maintained for hours. b) I Stage I is beginning anesthesia, as the patient breathes in the anesthetic mixture and experiences warmth, dizziness, and a feeling of detachment. c) II Stage II is the excitement stage, which may be characterized by struggling, singing, laughing, or crying. d) IV Stage IV is a stage of medullary depression and is reached when too much anesthesia has been administered.

Description : Which stage of anesthesia is termed surgical anesthesia? a) III With proper administration of the anesthetic, this stage may be maintained for hours. b) I Stage I is beginning anesthesia, as the ... IV is a stage of medullary depression and is reached when too much anesthesia has been administered.

Last Answer : a) III With proper administration of the anesthetic, this stage may be maintained for hours.

Which of the following is the most important risk factor for development of Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease? a) Cigarette smoking Pipe, cigar and other types of tobacco smoking are also risk factors. b) Occupational exposure While a risk factor, occupational exposure is not the most important risk factor for development of COPD. c) Air pollution Air pollution is a risk factor for development of COPD, but it is not the most important risk factor. d) Genetic abnormalities A deficiency of alpha-antitrypsin is a risk factor for development of COPD, but it is not the most important risk factor.

Description : Which of the following is the most important risk factor for development of Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease? a) Cigarette smoking Pipe, cigar and other types of tobacco smoking are also risk factors. b) ... is a risk factor for development of COPD, but it is not the most important risk factor.

Last Answer : a) Cigarette smoking Pipe, cigar and other types of tobacco smoking are also risk factors.

Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury include which of the following? a) Age over 65 years Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury include brain contusion with subdural hematoma, skull fracture, loss of consciousness or amnesia of 1 day or more, and age over 65 years.

Description : Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury include which of the following? a) Age over 65 years Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post ... is a risk factor that increases the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury

Last Answer : a) Age over 65 years Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury include brain contusion with subdural hematoma, skull fracture, loss of consciousness or amnesia of 1 day or more, and age over 65 years.

Rank the clinical scenarios in order of greatest likelihood of serious postoperative pulmonary complications. A. Transabdominal hysterectomy in an obese woman that requires 3 hours of anesthesia time. B. Right middle lobectomy for bronchogenic cancer in a 65-year-old smoker. C. Vagotomy and pyloroplasty for chronic duodenal ulcer disease in a 50-year-old who had chest film findings of old, healed tuberculosis. D. Right hemicolectomy in an obese 60-year-old smoker. E. Modified radical mastectomy in a 58-year-old woman who is obese.

Description : Rank the clinical scenarios in order of greatest likelihood of serious postoperative pulmonary complications. A. Transabdominal hysterectomy in an obese woman that requires 3 hours of anesthesia time. B. Right ... smoker. E. Modified radical mastectomy in a 58-year-old woman who is obese.

Last Answer : Answer: BDCAE DISCUSSION: If one considers the constellation of risk factors for pulmonary complications that is provided in tabular form in the accompanying chapter, one should ... is associated with relatively little postoperative pain, and provides free and unrestricted respiratory function

When the female patient demonstrates thickening, scaling, and erosion of the nipple and areola, the nurse recognizes that the patient is exhibiting signs of a) Paget’s disease. Paget’s disease is a malignancy of mammary ducts with early signs of erythema of nipple and areola. b) acute mastitis. Acute mastitis is demonstrated by nipple cracks or abrasions along with reddened and warm breast skin and tenderness.

Description : When the female patient demonstrates thickening, scaling, and erosion of the nipple and areola, the nurse recognizes that the patient is exhibiting signs of a) Paget's disease. Paget's disease ... the breast and demonstrates an orange peel apearance of breast skin with enlargement of skin pores.

Last Answer : a) Paget’s disease. Paget’s disease is a malignancy of mammary ducts with early signs of erythema of nipple and areola.

The nurse teaches the patient with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) which of the following measures to manage his disease? a) Avoid eating or drinking 2 hours before bedtime. The patient should not recline with a full stomach. b) Minimize intake of caffeine, ****, milk, and foods containing peppermint and spearmint. The patient should be instructed to avoid the listed foods and food components. c) Elevate the foot of the bed on 6- to 8-inch blocks The patient should be instructed to elevate the head of the bed on 6- to 8-inch blocks. d) Eat a low carbohydrate diet The patient is instructed to eat a low-fat diet

Description : The nurse teaches the patient with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) which of the following measures to manage his disease? a) Avoid eating or drinking 2 hours before bedtime. The patient should not ... blocks. d) Eat a low carbohydrate diet The patient is instructed to eat a low-fat diet

Last Answer : a) Avoid eating or drinking 2 hours before bedtime. The patient should not recline with a full stomach.

Which type of hypersensitivity reaction involves immune complexes formed when antigens bind to antibodies? a) Type III Type III hypersensitivity is associated with systemic lupus erythematosus, rheumatoid arthritis, serum sickness, certain types of nephritis, and some types of bacterial endocarditis.

Description : Which type of hypersensitivity reaction involves immune complexes formed when antigens bind to antibodies? a) Type III Type III hypersensitivity is associated with systemic lupus erythematosus, rheumatoid ... , or delayed-type, hypersensitivity occurs 24-72 hours after exposure to an allergen.

Last Answer : a) Type III Type III hypersensitivity is associated with systemic lupus erythematosus, rheumatoid arthritis, serum sickness, certain types of nephritis, and some types of bacterial endocarditis.

The nurse recognizes which of the following statements as accurately reflecting a risk factor for breast cancer? a) Mother affected by cancer before 60 years of age Risk for breast cancer increases twofold if first-degree female relatives (sister, mother, or daughter) had breast cancer.

Description : The nurse recognizes which of the following statements as accurately reflecting a risk factor for breast cancer? a) Mother affected by cancer before 60 years of age Risk for breast cancer increases ... in women who consume even one drink daily and doubles among women drinking three drinks daily.

Last Answer : a) Mother affected by cancer before 60 years of age Risk for breast cancer increases twofold if first-degree female relatives (sister, mother, or daughter) had breast cancer.