This is a great question. A great model to look at that has enough historical perspective is the Donauschwaben resettlements of German people in the mid-1700s. In a nutshell, the Hapsburgs acquired land and territory in the “eastern wilderness” and resettled German people into the Banat area. They offered free land if people would go, and literally split villages in half, copied town records from the old village, and resettled people in a new place. They tended to stay clannish among themselves, continued to speak German, and not migrate out of their village until the early 1900’s – 1930s, when many migrated to the US and Canada. The Schwabens in Banat be came more Germanic than the Germans in their culture, clinging to a 1700’s form of culture. But to answer your question, without common language, it is difficult for the French culture to influence the French-Moroccan culture. As children are educated in the French public school system, the assimilation process begins, and the culture changes with each generation. You eventually end up with a culture that is neither Moroccan nor French. However, the Moroccan culture becomes different than the culture of Morocco, because the citizenry there are subject to their own outside influences that are not shared by Moroccans living in France. Hence, like the Donauschwaben, you end up over time with a segment that self identifies as a group that they no longer entirely match.