A patient on the dental chair has cardiac arrest. What is INCORRECT, A. Observing the vital signs and check that the air way is clear is at high importance B. Expired air has 15% O2 only, and cardiac compressions achieve 30-40% of cardiac output C. Intermittent positive pressure at the rate of 40/min will reduce the chances of cerebral hypoxia D. Intermittent positive pressure is better than mouth to mouth when it has been given at the same rate.

A patient on the dental chair has cardiac arrest. What is INCORRECT,
A. Observing the vital signs and check that the air way is clear is at high importance B. Expired air has 15% O2 only, and cardiac compressions achieve 30-40% of cardiac output C. Intermittent positive pressure at the rate of 40/min will reduce the chances of cerebral hypoxia D. Intermittent positive pressure is better than mouth to mouth when it has been given at the same rate.
by

1 Answer

Answer :

C. Intermittent positive pressure at the rate of 40/min will reduce the chances of cerebral hypoxia
by

Related questions

The cerebral blood flow: a. is increased by hypercapnia b. is increased by hypoxia c. accounts for 15% of the total cardiac output d. all above

Description : The cerebral blood flow: a. is increased by hypercapnia b. is increased by hypoxia c. accounts for 15% of the total cardiac output d. all above

Last Answer : all above

While giving CPR which of the following is considered: a. It achieves 30% of cardiac output with 60 compressions per minute. b. It achieves normal blood oxygen levels with 12 reseparations per minute. c. You have to check compression point by thumbing before starting compression. d. Cardiac output has to be monitored regularly by checking radial pulse.

Description : While giving CPR which of the following is considered: a. It achieves 30% of cardiac output with 60 compressions per minute. b. It achieves normal blood oxygen levels with 12 reseparations ... starting compression. d. Cardiac output has to be monitored regularly by checking radial pulse.

Last Answer : c. You have to check compression point by thumbing before starting compression.

While giving CPR which of the following is correct: A. It achieves 30% of cardiac output with 60 compressions per minute B. It achieves normal blood oxygen levels with 12 reseparations per minute C. You have to check compression point by thumping before starting compression D. Cardiac output has to be monitored regularly by checking radial pulse.

Description : While giving CPR which of the following is correct: A. It achieves 30% of cardiac output with 60 compressions per minute B. It achieves normal blood oxygen levels with 12 ... thumping before starting compression D. Cardiac output has to be monitored regularly by checking radial pulse.

Last Answer : C. You have to check compression point by thumping before starting compression

A classic sign of cardiogenic shock is a) Tissue hypoperfusion Tissue hypoperfusion is manifested as cerebral hypoxia (restlessness, confusion, agitation). b) High blood pressure Low blood pressure is a classic sign of cardiogenic shock. c) Hyperactive bowel sounds Hypoactive bowel sounds are classic signs of cardiogenic shock. d) Increased urinary output Decreased urinary output is a classic sign of cardiogenic shock.

Description : A classic sign of cardiogenic shock is a) Tissue hypoperfusion Tissue hypoperfusion is manifested as cerebral hypoxia (restlessness, confusion, agitation). b) High blood pressure Low blood pressure is ... . d) Increased urinary output Decreased urinary output is a classic sign of cardiogenic shock.

Last Answer : a) Tissue hypoperfusion Tissue hypoperfusion is manifested as cerebral hypoxia (restlessness, confusion, agitation).

When performing endotracheal suctioning, the nurse applies suctioning while withdrawing and gently rotating the catheter 360 degrees for which of the following time periods? a) 10-15 seconds In general, the nurse should apply suction no longer than 10-15 seconds because hypoxia and dysrhythmias may develop, leading to cardiac arrest. b) 30-35 seconds Applying suction for 30-35 seconds is hazardous and may result in the patient’s developing hypoxia, which can lead to dysrhythmias and, ultimately, cardiac arrest.

Description : When performing endotracheal suctioning, the nurse applies suctioning while withdrawing and gently rotating the catheter 360 degrees for which of the following time periods? a) 10-15 seconds In general ... suction for 0-5 seconds would provide too little time for effective suctioning of secretions.

Last Answer : a) 10-15 seconds In general, the nurse should apply suction no longer than 10-15 seconds because hypoxia and dysrhythmias may develop, leading to cardiac arrest.

As far as surgical removal of wisdom teeth is concerned, which of the following is true?**CHECK A. Prophylactic prescription of antibiotic reduces dramatically the chances of infection B. Raising a lingual flap will increases the incidence of neurapraxia but will reduce the incidence of neurotmesis with respect to the lingual nerve ADC M07 C. Prophylactic prescription of dexamethasone will dramatically reduces post operative swelling D. Inferior dental nerve injury is unlikely since the nerve passes medial to the wisdom tooth root E. The use of vasoconstrictors in local anaesthetics will increase the chances of infection.

Description : As far as surgical removal of wisdom teeth is concerned, which of the following is true?**CHECK A. Prophylactic prescription of antibiotic reduces dramatically the chances of infection B. Raising ... root E. The use of vasoconstrictors in local anaesthetics will increase the chances of infection.

Last Answer : C. Prophylactic prescription of dexamethasone will dramatically reduces post operative swelling

With view to Nitrous Oxide what is the major pharmacological problem? A. Contraindicated in pregnancy B. Contra indicated in cardiac dysrhythmias C. Diffusion hypoxia at the end of the case due to slow solubility of the agent in blood

Description : With view to Nitrous Oxide what is the major pharmacological problem? A. Contraindicated in pregnancy B. Contra indicated in cardiac dysrhythmias C. Diffusion hypoxia at the end of the case due to slow solubility of the agent in blood

Last Answer : C. Diffusion hypoxia at the end of the case due to slow solubility of the agent in blood

A diabetic patient with moist skin, moist mouth and weak pulse; what would you do: A. Give glucose B. Administer O2 C. Administer adrenaline D. Inject insulin

Description : A diabetic patient with moist skin, moist mouth and weak pulse; what would you do: A. Give glucose B. Administer O2 C. Administer adrenaline D. Inject insulin

Last Answer : A. Give glucose

A patient has developed a sever chest pain and difficulties in breathing while in the dental chair. Your initial response is: a. Administer glycerine trinitrate and monitor patient in upright position. b. Patient has an acute episode of angina as demonstrated by curve in ECG c. No treatment is required until confirmed as MI by ECG d. Patient has myocardial infarction as confirmed by ECG

Description : A patient has developed a sever chest pain and difficulties in breathing while in the dental chair. Your initial response is: a. Administer glycerine trinitrate and monitor patient in upright ... required until confirmed as MI by ECG d. Patient has myocardial infarction as confirmed by ECG

Last Answer : a. Administer glycerine trinitrate and monitor patient in upright position.

A patient in your dental chair shows chest pain, weak pulse and dysponea, what is your initial management, A. Give a nitro-glycerine tablet and keep the patient up seated B. Put the patient in supine position C. Do nothing and wait until the symptoms go

Description : A patient in your dental chair shows chest pain, weak pulse and dysponea, what is your initial management, A. Give a nitro-glycerine tablet and keep the patient up seated B. Put the patient in supine position C. Do nothing and wait until the symptoms go

Last Answer : A. Give a nitro-glycerine tablet and keep the patient up seated

A patient with a history of angina suffers an attack while in the dental chair. Prompt relief can be anticipated in MOST instances from: A. Oral administration of short acting barbiturates B. Intra muscular administration of morphine sulphate C. Subcutaneous administration of epinephrine D. Sublingual administration of glyceryl tri-nitrate E. Putting the patient in upright position

Description : A patient with a history of angina suffers an attack while in the dental chair. Prompt relief can be anticipated in MOST instances from: A. Oral administration of short acting ... epinephrine D. Sublingual administration of glyceryl tri-nitrate E. Putting the patient in upright position

Last Answer : D. Sublingual administration of glyceryl tri-nitrate

A patient has developed a sever chest pain and difficulties in breathing while in the dental chair. Your initial response is: A. Administer glycerine trinitrate and monitor patient in upright position B. Patient has an acute episode of angina as demonstrated by curve in ECG C. No treatment is required until confirmed as MI by ECG D. Patient has myocardial infarction as confirmed by ECG

Description : A patient has developed a sever chest pain and difficulties in breathing while in the dental chair. Your initial response is: A. Administer glycerine trinitrate and monitor patient in upright ... required until confirmed as MI by ECG D. Patient has myocardial infarction as confirmed by ECG

Last Answer : A. Administer glycerine trinitrate and monitor patient in upright position

As far as surgical removal of wisdom teeth is concerned which of the following is true? a- Prophylactic prescription of antibiotic reduces dramatically the chances of infection. b- Raising a lingual flap will increases the incidence of neurapraxia but will reduce the incidence of neurotmesis with respect to the lingual nerve. c- Prophylactic prescription of dexamethasone will dramatically reduce post operative swelling. d- Inferior dental nerve injury is unlikely since the nerve passes medial to the wisdom tooth root. e- The use of vasoconstrictors in local anaesthetics will increase the chances of infection.

Description : As far as surgical removal of wisdom teeth is concerned which of the following is true? a- Prophylactic prescription of antibiotic reduces dramatically the chances of infection. b- Raising a lingual ... e- The use of vasoconstrictors in local anaesthetics will increase the chances of infection.

Last Answer : b- Raising a lingual flap will increases the incidence of neurapraxia but will reduce the incidence of neurotmesis with respect to the lingual nerve.

A person suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning a) appears intoxicated. A person suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning appears intoxicated (from cerebral hypoxia). Other signs and symptoms include headache, muscular weakness, palpitation, dizziness, and mental confusion.

Description : A person suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning a) appears intoxicated. A person suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning appears intoxicated (from cerebral hypoxia). Other signs and symptoms include headache, ... pink to cherry red to cynanotic and pale and is not a reliable diagnostic sign.

Last Answer : a) appears intoxicated. A person suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning appears intoxicated (from cerebral hypoxia). Other signs and symptoms include headache, muscular weakness, palpitation, dizziness, and mental confusion.

Signs and symptoms that commonly suggest cardiac failure in a patient being assessed for oral surgery are, A. Elevated temperature and nausea B. Palpitations and malaise C. Ankle oedema and dyspnoea D. Erythema and pain E. Pallor and tremor

Description : Signs and symptoms that commonly suggest cardiac failure in a patient being assessed for oral surgery are, A. Elevated temperature and nausea B. Palpitations and malaise C. Ankle oedema and dyspnoea D. Erythema and pain E. Pallor and tremor

Last Answer : C. Ankle oedema and dyspnoea

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning oxygen delivery? a. The amount of oxygen delivered to peripheral tissues is dependent upon the oxygen content in arterial blood and cardiac output b. Oxygen content is commonly measured in arterial blood c. The normal arterial-venous difference is 4 cc O2/dL d. Normal systemic oxygen delivery for a typical adult is approximately 1000 cc/min

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning oxygen delivery? a. The amount of oxygen delivered to peripheral tissues is dependent upon the oxygen content in arterial blood and cardiac ... O2/dL d. Normal systemic oxygen delivery for a typical adult is approximately 1000 cc/min

Last Answer : Answer: a, c, d The amount of oxygen that is delivered to peripheral tissues is the product of the oxygen content in arterial blood times the cardiac output. Normally, oxygen content of arterial blood is ... of venous blood is 16 cc/dL. Hence, the normal arterial-venous difference is 4 cc O2/dL

After admitting the patient to the PACU, the first action of the nurse would be to A. Assess patency of the airway B. Check the rate of the IV infusion C. Monitor the vital signs D. Assess the clients pain

Description : After admitting the patient to the PACU, the first action of the nurse would be to A. Assess patency of the airway B. Check the rate of the IV infusion C. Monitor the vital signs D. Assess the clients pain

Last Answer : A. Assess patency of the airway

Your patient has fainted, the signs are, blanched face, weak pulse, moist skin, shallow respiration; your first management is: A. 1 ml adrenaline subcutaneously B. Mouth to mouth respiration C. Nitro glycerine sub lingually D. Recumbent position; supine

Description : Your patient has fainted, the signs are, blanched face, weak pulse, moist skin, shallow respiration; your first management is: A. 1 ml adrenaline subcutaneously B. Mouth to mouth respiration C. Nitro glycerine sub lingually D. Recumbent position; supine

Last Answer : D. Recumbent position; supine

Patient presents with rapidly progressive root caries on many teeth. Which of the following laboratory results would be a possible indicator of this? A. Stimulated salivary secretion rate of 1.5ml/min B. S. mutans concentration of 105 organism/ml C. A plaque sample containing 5% S. mutans D. A lactobacilli concentration of 105 organism/ml E. Salivary buffering PH 5.5 > 100000 CFU/ml high caries incidence

Description : Patient presents with rapidly progressive root caries on many teeth. Which of the following laboratory results would be a possible indicator of this? A. Stimulated salivary secretion rate of 1.5ml/min B. ... of 105 organism/ml E. Salivary buffering PH 5.5 > 100000 CFU/ml high caries incidence

Last Answer : E. Salivary buffering PH 5.5

Which of the following statements about continuous cardiac output monitoring are true? A. Continuous cardiac output monitoring may unmask events not detected by intermittent cardiac output measurements. B. Continuous cardiac output monitoring by the thermodilution method requires continuous infusion of fluid injectate at a constant rate and temperature. C. The major advantage of the Fick method over the thermodilution method of calculating cardiac output is that it is noninvasive, requiring only the determination of oxygen consumption by respiratory gas analysis. D. The technique of thoracic electrical bioimpedance utilizes sensors to determine stroke volume by detecting changes in resistance to a small, applied alternating current.

Description : Which of the following statements about continuous cardiac output monitoring are true? A. Continuous cardiac output monitoring may unmask events not detected by intermittent cardiac output measurements. ... stroke volume by detecting changes in resistance to a small, applied alternating current.

Last Answer : Answer: AD DISCUSSION: Various techniques are available to measure cardiac output continuously. The advantages of continuous cardiac output monitoring, as compared with intermittent methods, are (1) ... function of the stroke volume, which then can be used to calculate the cardiac output

What is the affect of office dental prophylaxis of regular six month intervals on children’s oral health? A. Reduce caries incidence by approximately 30% B. Provide a long term improvement in oral hygiene C. Provide a short term improvement in oral hygiene D. Prevent gingivitis E. Reduce the need for patient cooperation

Description : What is the affect of office dental prophylaxis of regular six month intervals on children's oral health? A. Reduce caries incidence by approximately 30% B. Provide a long term improvement in ... term improvement in oral hygiene D. Prevent gingivitis E. Reduce the need for patient cooperation

Last Answer : C. Provide a short term improvement in oral hygiene

Patient reported to you 30 min after trauma to central incisor. Patient is 10 yrs old and there is traumatic exposure of pulp. What will be the line of treatment— 1) coronal pulpotomy and Ca-hydr. Base and then permanent filling 2) Ca-hydroxide base and permanent filling 3) 1-2 mm. of coronal pulp extirpated and Ca hydroxide and then permanent filling 4) Pulpectomy

Description : Patient reported to you 30 min after trauma to central incisor. Patient is 10 yrs old and there is traumatic exposure of pulp. What will be the line of treatment- 1) coronal pulpotomy and Ca-hydr. ... 3) 1-2 mm. of coronal pulp extirpated and Ca hydroxide and then permanent filling 4) Pulpectomy

Last Answer : 3) 1-2 mm. of coronal pulp extirpated and Ca hydroxide and then permanent filling

A patient shows a lesion on the tongue adjacent to sharp tooth. You “round off” the sharp area and recall patient after one month to see the lesion turning smaller in size. What would be your next step: A. Keep observing B. Perform an excision biopsy C. Prescribe Kenalog and Orabase

Description : A patient shows a lesion on the tongue adjacent to sharp tooth. You “round off” the sharp area and recall patient after one month to see the lesion turning smaller in size. What would be your next step: A. Keep observing B. Perform an excision biopsy C. Prescribe Kenalog and Orabase

Last Answer : A. Keep observing

A patient suffers a blow to his maxillary central incisor without resulting in fracture. The pulp may: A. Show immediate necrosis B. Become non-vital but only if treatment is delayed too long C. Become non vital irrespective of treatment D. No changes are seen later if fracture does not occur

Description : A patient suffers a blow to his maxillary central incisor without resulting in fracture. The pulp may: A. Show immediate necrosis B. Become non-vital but only if treatment is delayed too long C. Become non vital irrespective of treatment D. No changes are seen later if fracture does not occur

Last Answer : C. Become non vital irrespective of treatment

With regard to cerebral autoregulation: a. cerebral blood flow is constant over a diastolic blood pressure of 60 to 140 mmHg b. autoregulation is lost during the acute phase of subarachnoid haemorrhage c. it is impaired in hypercapnia d. it is impaired in hypoxia

Description : With regard to cerebral autoregulation: a. cerebral blood flow is constant over a diastolic blood pressure of 60 to 140 mmHg b. autoregulation is lost during the acute phase of subarachnoid haemorrhage c. it is impaired in hypercapnia d. it is impaired in hypoxia

Last Answer : it is impaired in hypoxia

With regard to cerebral blood flow: a. is dependent on the intracranial pressure b. is increased by hypoxia c. is reduced by hypercapnia d. is increased by hypothermia

Description : With regard to cerebral blood flow: a. is dependent on the intracranial pressure b. is increased by hypoxia c. is reduced by hypercapnia d. is increased by hypothermia

Last Answer : is increased by hypoxia

Answer: b Metabolic response to injury results in increased energy expenditure. If energy intake is less than expenditure, oxidation of body fat stores and erosion of lean body mass will occur with resultant loss of weight. When weight loss exceeds 10–15% of body weight, the complications of malnutrition interact with disease processes, with increased morbidity and mortality rates. The goal of nutritional support is maintenance of body cell mass and limitation of weight loss to less than 10% preinjury. The major impact of nutritional support in the trauma patient is to aid host defense. Under-nutrition may compromise the available host defense mechanism and may thus increase the likelihood of invasive sepsis, multiple organ system failure, and death. Resuscitation, oxygenation and arrest

Description : Answer: b Metabolic response to injury results in increased energy expenditure. If energy intake is less than expenditure, oxidation of body fat stores and erosion of lean body mass will occur ... requirements, caloric requirements should be distributed at a ratio of 70% as glucose and 30% as fat

Last Answer : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning body fuel reserves? a. The largest fuel reserve in the body is skeletal muscle b. Fat provides about 9 calories/gram c. Free glucose and glycogen stores are a trivial fuel reserve d. Body protein is a valuable storage form of energy

An osmotic diuretic, such as Mannitol, is given to the patient with increased intracranial pressure (IICP) in order to a) dehydrate the brain and reduce cerebral edema. Osmotic diuretics draw water across intact membranes, thereby reducing the volume of brain and extracellular fluid.

Description : An osmotic diuretic, such as Mannitol, is given to the patient with increased intracranial pressure (IICP) in order to a) dehydrate the brain and reduce cerebral edema. Osmotic diuretics ... Medications such as barbiturates are given to the patient with IICP to reduce cellular metabolic demands.

Last Answer : a) dehydrate the brain and reduce cerebral edema. Osmotic diuretics draw water across intact membranes, thereby reducing the volume of brain and extracellular fluid.

A patient presents to you with a history of local pain in the lower right posterior region, insisting that you extract his lower teeth. The teeth in question are vital without any pathology. You diagnosis is: A. Odontalgia B. Referred pain C. Trigeminal neuralgia

Description : A patient presents to you with a history of local pain in the lower right posterior region, insisting that  you extract his lower teeth. The teeth in question are vital without any pathology. You diagnosis  is:  A. Odontalgia  B. Referred pain  C. Trigeminal neuralgia 

Last Answer : C. Trigeminal neuralgia 

A patient with no positive history came along for scaling. The moment you pick up the scaler you punch your finger, what should you do? A. Complete the procedure as nothing has happened B. Check patient’s blood for epatitis B antibody BsAb C. Check patient’s blood for epatitis B antigen BsAg D. Check dentist’s blood for epatitis B antibody BsAb and IV antigen IVAg E.

Description : A patient with no positive history came along for scaling. The moment you pick up the scaler you punch your finger, what should you do? A. Complete the procedure as nothing has happened B. Check ... B antigen BsAg D. Check dentist's blood for epatitis B antibody BsAb and IV antigen IVAg E.

Last Answer : A. Complete the procedure as nothing has happened

In post-myocardial infarction and other high cardiovascular risk subjects but without hypertension or heart failure, prolonged ACE inhibitor medication has been found to: A. Increase the chances of sudden cardiac death B. Reduce the incidence of fatal as well as nonfatal myocardial infarction or stroke C. Lower the risk of developing heart failure and diabetes D. Both ‘B‘ and ‘C’

Description : In post-myocardial infarction and other high cardiovascular risk subjects but without hypertension or heart failure, prolonged ACE inhibitor medication has been found to: A. Increase the chances of sudden cardiac death ... Lower the risk of developing heart failure and diabetes D. Both B and C'

Last Answer : D. Both ‘B‘ and ‘C

Which of the following is correct about Nitrous Oxide N2O: A. N2O has high analgesic and low anaesthetic property at its minimum anaesthetic dose. “Low MAC; Max Anaesthetic Concentration” B. Absolutely contraindicated in pregnancy C. Has low blood diffusibility and result in hypoxia D. It is good anaesthetic and low MAC

Description : Which of the following is correct about Nitrous Oxide N2O: A. N2O has high analgesic and low anaesthetic property at its minimum anaesthetic dose. Low MAC; Max Anaesthetic Concentration B. Absolutely ... C. Has low blood diffusibility and result in hypoxia D. It is good anaesthetic and low MAC

Last Answer : C. Has low blood diffusibility and result in hypoxia

A patient with impacted canine; by moving the X ray tube distally the canine moves distally too; where do you expect the impacted canine: A. Labially impacted B. Palatally impacted Eighty-five per cent of impacted maxillary permanent cuspids are palatal impactions, and 15% are labial impactions.

Description : A patient with impacted canine; by moving the X ray tube distally the canine moves distally too; where do you expect the impacted canine: A. Labially impacted B. Palatally impacted ... -five per cent of impacted maxillary permanent cuspids are palatal impactions, and 15% are labial impactions.

Last Answer : B. Palatally impacted Eighty-five per cent of impacted maxillary permanent cuspids are palatal impactions, and 15% are labial impactions.

Which of the following statements concerning the use of radiography for children is incorrect? A. techniques are the same as those used in adults B. easier because of the smallness of the child’s mouth C. made difficult by the child’s nervousness and his tendency to gag D. helpful in overcoming some of these difficulties are consideratehandling of the child, the use of small size film and the use of ultra speed

Description : Which of the following statements concerning the use of radiography for children is incorrect? A. techniques are the same as those used in adults B. easier because of the smallness of the child' ... are consideratehandling of the child, the use of small size film and the use of ultra speed

Last Answer : B. easier because of the smallness of the child’s mouth

Which vasodilator is most suitable for a patient of CHF who is symptomatic even at rest and has a central venous pressure of 25 mm Hg and cardiac index 1.8 L/min/m2 : A. Glyceryl trinitrate B. Enalapril C. Hydralazine D. Nifedipine

Description : Which vasodilator is most suitable for a patient of CHF who is symptomatic even at rest and has a central venous pressure of 25 mm Hg and cardiac index 1.8 L/min/m2 : A. Glyceryl trinitrate B. Enalapril C. Hydralazine D. Nifedipine

Last Answer : B. Enalapril

When the post-cardiac surgical patient demonstrates vasodilation, hypotension, hyporeflexia, slow gastrointestinal motility (hypoactive bowel sounds), lethargy, and respiratory depression, the nurse suspects which of the following electrolyte imbalances? a) Hypermagnesemia Untreated hypomagnesemia may result in coma, apnea, cardiac arrest.

Description : When the post-cardiac surgical patient demonstrates vasodilation, hypotension, hyporeflexia, slow gastrointestinal motility (hypoactive bowel sounds), lethargy, and respiratory depression, the nurse suspects ... and QT intervals, broad flat T waves), disorientation, depression, and hypotension.

Last Answer : a) Hypermagnesemia Untreated hypomagnesemia may result in coma, apnea, cardiac arrest.

The most prominent feature of acute apical periodontitis is: A. Tenderness of tooth to pressure B. Extra oral swelling C. Intermittent pain

Description : The most prominent feature of acute apical periodontitis is: A. Tenderness of tooth to pressure B. Extra oral swelling C. Intermittent pain

Last Answer : A. Tenderness of tooth to pressure

For treating the patient with congestive heart failure (CHF), which of the following dosages of dopamine is selected for its positive inotropic effects? (a) 2.0 mg/kg/min (b) 5–10 mg/kg/min (c) 10–20 mg/kg/min (d) 40 mg/kg/min (e) 40 mg/kg/min

Description : For treating the patient with congestive heart failure (CHF), which of the following dosages of dopamine is selected for its positive inotropic effects? (a) 2.0 mg/kg/min (b) 5–10 mg/kg/min (c) 10–20 mg/kg/min (d) 40 mg/kg/min (e) 40 mg/kg/min

Last Answer : Ans: B

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning oxygen kinetics in a critically ill, febrile patient? a. Oxygen consumption will likely exceed three times normal b. The high cardiac output and pulse rate are designed to increase oxygen delivery c. The hyperdynamic response may actually increase oxygen delivery to exceed the increase in oxygen consumption d. The patient can maintain adequate compensation as long as the oxygen delivery/oxygen consumption rate is greater than 2:1

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning oxygen kinetics in a critically ill, febrile patient? a. Oxygen consumption will likely exceed three times normal b. The high cardiac ... adequate compensation as long as the oxygen delivery/oxygen consumption rate is greater than 2:1

Last Answer : Answer: b, d In critically ill patients oxygen consumption may be elevated or depressed, but slight to moderate elevations in oxygen consumption is the most common abnormality in critically ill patients. ... however, and the patient will remain stable as long as the ratio is greater than 2:1

60-year-old patient with creatinine clearance 50 ml/min has to be treated with gentamicin. His daily dose of gentamicin should be reduced to the following percentage of the usual adult dose: A. 70% B. 50% C. 40% D. 30%

Description : 60-year-old patient with creatinine clearance 50 ml/min has to be treated with gentamicin. His daily dose of gentamicin should be reduced to the following percentage of the usual adult dose: A. 70% B. 50% C. 40% D. 30%

Last Answer : B. 50%

A 60-year-old patient with creatinine clearance 50 ml/min has to be treated with gentamicin. His daily dose of gentamicin should be reduced to the following percentage of the usual adult dose: A. 70% B. 50% C. 40% D. 30%

Description : A 60-year-old patient with creatinine clearance 50 ml/min has to be treated with gentamicin. His daily dose of gentamicin should be reduced to the following percentage of the usual adult dose: A. 70% B. 50% C. 40% D. 30%

Last Answer : B. 50%

Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors reduce the following haemodynamic parameters in congestive heart failure except: A. Systemic vascular resistance B. Right atrial pressure C. Cardiac output D. Heart rate × pressure product

Description : Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors reduce the following haemodynamic parameters in congestive heart failure except: A. Systemic vascular resistance B. Right atrial pressure C. Cardiac output D. Heart rate × pressure product

Last Answer : C. Cardiac output

What is NOT TRUE in relation to the prescription of 5mg or 10mg of diazepam for sedation?check A. Patient commonly complain of post operative headache T B. An acceptable level of anxiolytic action is obtained when the drug is given one hour preoperatively T C. There is a profound amnesic action and no side affects not sure D. Active metabolites can give a level of sedation up to 8 hours post operatively T E. As Benzodiazepine the action can be reversed with FlumazepilNE T

Description : What is NOT TRUE in relation to the prescription of 5mg or 10mg of diazepam for sedation?check A. Patient commonly complain of post operative headache T B. An acceptable level of anxiolytic ... to 8 hours post operatively T E. As Benzodiazepine the action can be reversed with FlumazepilNE T

Last Answer : C. There is a profound amnesic action and no side affects not sure

The initial condylar guidance of 25 degrees was wrong and is changed to 45 degrees. What changes will you make to achieve balanced occlusion: A. Decrease incisal guidance B. Reduce cusps height C. Increase compensation curve

Description : The initial condylar guidance of 25 degrees was wrong and is changed to 45 degrees. What changes will you make to achieve balanced occlusion: A. Decrease incisal guidance B. Reduce cusps height C. Increase compensation curve

Last Answer : C. Increase compensation curve

How much would you reduce a cusp to be replaced with amalgam onlay: A. 2 mm to achieve a good retention form B. 2mm to achieve a good resistance form C. 1mm

Description : How much would you reduce a cusp to be replaced with amalgam onlay: A. 2 mm to achieve a good retention form B. 2mm to achieve a good resistance form C. 1mm

Last Answer : B. 2mm to achieve a good resistance form

Which of the following is/are acceptable reasons for the transfusion of red blood cells based on currently available data? A. Rapid, acute blood loss with unstable vital signs but no available hematocrit or hemoglobin determination. B. Symptomatic anemia: orthostatic hypotension, severe tachycardia (greater than 120 beats per minute), evidence of myocardial ischemia, including angina. C. To increase wound healing. D. A hematocrit of 26% in an otherwise stable, asymptomatic patient.

Description : Which of the following is/are acceptable reasons for the transfusion of red blood cells based on currently available data? A. Rapid, acute blood loss with unstable vital signs but no available ... increase wound healing. D. A hematocrit of 26% in an otherwise stable, asymptomatic patient.

Last Answer : Answer: AB DISCUSSION: Currently accepted guidelines for the transfusion of packed red blood cells include acute ongoing blood loss, as might occur in an injured patient, and the development of ... not be given based solely or predominantly on a numerical value such as a hematocrit of 28%

When is it acceptable for the patient to hold radiographic film packet in the patient’s mouth: A. Patient is very young and cannot understand direction B. Patient is physically handicapped and unable to hold the film C. Film should never be held by the dentist D. There is a lack of time and radiograph is essential

Description : When is it acceptable for the patient to hold radiographic film packet in the patient's mouth: A. Patient is very young and cannot understand direction B. Patient is physically handicapped and unable to ... never be held by the dentist D. There is a lack of time and radiograph is essential

Last Answer : C. Film should never be held by the dentist