What is NOT TRUE in relation to the prescription of 5mg or 10mg of diazepam for sedation?check A. Patient commonly complain of post operative headache T B. An acceptable level of anxiolytic action is obtained when the drug is given one hour preoperatively T C. There is a profound amnesic action and no side affects not sure D. Active metabolites can give a level of sedation up to 8 hours post operatively T E. As Benzodiazepine the action can be reversed with FlumazepilNE T

What is NOT TRUE in relation to the prescription of 5mg or 10mg of diazepam for sedation?check
A. Patient commonly complain of post operative headache T
B. An acceptable level of anxiolytic action is obtained when the drug is given one hour preoperatively T C. There is a profound amnesic action and no side affects not sure
D. Active metabolites can give a level of sedation up to 8 hours post operatively T E. As Benzodiazepine the action can be reversed with FlumazepilNE T
by

1 Answer

Answer :

C. There is a profound amnesic action and no side affects not sure
by

Related questions

What is TRUE about Benzodiazepine and diazepam in 5-10mg oral dose used for oral sedation in dentistry: A. Good analgesic effect if given 1 hour prior to dental sessions B. Would be reversed by flumazepil because it is a Benzodiazepam C. Post operative headache D. There is a profound amnesic action and no side affects

Description : What is TRUE about Benzodiazepine and diazepam in 5-10mg oral dose used for oral sedation in dentistry: A. Good analgesic effect if given 1 hour prior to dental sessions B. Would be reversed ... Benzodiazepam C. Post operative headache D. There is a profound amnesic action and no side affects

Last Answer : B. Would be reversed by flumazepil because it is a Benzodiazepam

How many mg of fluoride ions are obtained from 2.2 mg tablet of NaF A. 0.5mg B. 1 mg C. 1.5mg D. 10mg

Description : How many mg of fluoride ions are obtained from 2.2 mg tablet of NaF A. 0.5mg B. 1 mg C. 1.5mg D. 10mg

Last Answer : B. 1 mg

As far as surgical removal of wisdom teeth is concerned, which of the following is true?**CHECK A. Prophylactic prescription of antibiotic reduces dramatically the chances of infection B. Raising a lingual flap will increases the incidence of neurapraxia but will reduce the incidence of neurotmesis with respect to the lingual nerve ADC M07 C. Prophylactic prescription of dexamethasone will dramatically reduces post operative swelling D. Inferior dental nerve injury is unlikely since the nerve passes medial to the wisdom tooth root E. The use of vasoconstrictors in local anaesthetics will increase the chances of infection.

Description : As far as surgical removal of wisdom teeth is concerned, which of the following is true?**CHECK A. Prophylactic prescription of antibiotic reduces dramatically the chances of infection B. Raising ... root E. The use of vasoconstrictors in local anaesthetics will increase the chances of infection.

Last Answer : C. Prophylactic prescription of dexamethasone will dramatically reduces post operative swelling

Patient on anti-coagulant therapy requires an extraction to be performed. Which of the following is NOT true: A. Minor post operative bleedings can be reduced somehow by using tranexamic acid B. Prothrombin value (INR) of 3 is enough to perform extraction C. It takes at least 8 hours for heparin to take effects D. Heparin should be administered sub-cutaneous

Description : Patient on anti-coagulant therapy requires an extraction to be performed. Which of the following is NOT true: A. Minor post operative bleedings can be reduced somehow by using tranexamic acid B. ... takes at least 8 hours for heparin to take effects D. Heparin should be administered sub-cutaneous

Last Answer : C. It takes at least 8 hours for heparin to take effects

A 65 years-old patient needs extraction of 44; he has taken insulin in the morning. What preoperative advice you should give: A. Take more sugar B. Maintain normal diet C. Antibiotic 2 hours before D. Medication increases preoperatively

Description : A 65 years-old patient needs extraction of 44; he has taken insulin in the morning. What preoperative advice you should give: A. Take more sugar B. Maintain normal diet C. Antibiotic 2 hours before D. Medication increases preoperatively

Last Answer : B. Maintain normal diet

As far as surgical removal of wisdom teeth is concerned which of the following is true? a- Prophylactic prescription of antibiotic reduces dramatically the chances of infection. b- Raising a lingual flap will increases the incidence of neurapraxia but will reduce the incidence of neurotmesis with respect to the lingual nerve. c- Prophylactic prescription of dexamethasone will dramatically reduce post operative swelling. d- Inferior dental nerve injury is unlikely since the nerve passes medial to the wisdom tooth root. e- The use of vasoconstrictors in local anaesthetics will increase the chances of infection.

Description : As far as surgical removal of wisdom teeth is concerned which of the following is true? a- Prophylactic prescription of antibiotic reduces dramatically the chances of infection. b- Raising a lingual ... e- The use of vasoconstrictors in local anaesthetics will increase the chances of infection.

Last Answer : b- Raising a lingual flap will increases the incidence of neurapraxia but will reduce the incidence of neurotmesis with respect to the lingual nerve.

An adult patient with a history of bacterial endocarditis requires prophylactic administration of antibiotics prior to removal of teeth. Indicate the pre-operative regimen:** A. Amoxicillin 2 gram one hour before operation orally B. Penicillin 250 mg orally six hours before operation C. Tetracycline 250-500 mg orally 2 hours before treatment

Description : An adult patient with a history of bacterial endocarditis requires prophylactic administration of antibiotics prior to removal of teeth. Indicate the pre-operative regimen:** A. Amoxicillin 2 gram ... orally six hours before operation C. Tetracycline 250-500 mg orally 2 hours before treatment

Last Answer : A. Amoxicillin 2 gram one hour before operation orally

How do prepare a patient with rheumatic fever before extraction: A. 6000000 units of benzoyl penicillin B. 2g Amoxicillin pre-operatively

Description : How do prepare a patient with rheumatic fever before extraction: A. 6000000 units of benzoyl penicillin B. 2g Amoxicillin pre-operatively

Last Answer : B. 2g Amoxicillin pre-operatively

Pre-operatively, the nurse identified the nursing dagnosis, “Knowledge Deficit: Post-operative communication strategies”. Which of the following is a relevant nursing intervention? A. Clarify information on purpose, anticipate benefits and consequences of total laryngectomy B. Explain that total laryngectomy results in loss of ability to verbally communicate C. Arrange a visit to a post-laryngectomy client who effectively uses an alternative form of verbal communication D. Illustrate means of communicating post- operatively

Description : Pre-operatively, the nurse identified the nursing dagnosis, Knowledge Deficit: Post-operative communication strategies . Which of the following is a relevant nursing intervention? A. ... uses an alternative form of verbal communication D. Illustrate means of communicating post- operatively

Last Answer : D. Illustrate means of communicating post- operatively

The following statement is correct about buspirone: A. It interacts with benzodiazepine receptor as an inverse agonist B. It is a rapidly acting anxiolytic, good for panic states C. It produces physical dependence and suppresses barbiturate withdrawal syndrome D. It has anxiolytic but no anticonvulsant or muscle relaxant propert

Description : The following statement is correct about buspirone: A. It interacts with benzodiazepine receptor as an inverse agonist B. It is a rapidly acting anxiolytic, good for panic states C. ... suppresses barbiturate withdrawal syndrome D. It has anxiolytic but no anticonvulsant or muscle relaxant propert

Last Answer : D. It has anxiolytic but no anticonvulsant or muscle relaxant property

A patient who has been taking quantities of aspirin might show increased post operative bleeding because aspirin inhibits:** A. Synthesis of thromboxane A2 and prevents platelet aggregation B. Synthesis of prostacyclin and prevents platelet aggregation C. Synthesis of prostaglandin and prevents production of blood platelets D. Thrombin and prevents formation of the fibrin network E. Increase the absorption of vitamin K and prevents synthesis of blood clotting factors

Description : A patient who has been taking quantities of aspirin might show increased post operative bleeding because aspirin inhibits:** A. Synthesis of thromboxane A2 and prevents platelet aggregation B. ... network E. Increase the absorption of vitamin K and prevents synthesis of blood clotting factors

Last Answer : A. Synthesis of thromboxane A2 and prevents platelet aggregation

Select the correct statement about flumazenil: A. It is a CNS stimulant used as an antidote for benzodiazepine poisoning B. It is a CNS depressant but blocks the action of diazepam C. It has no CNS effect of its own but blocks the depressant effects of benzodiazepines as well as barbiturates D. It has no CNS effect of its own but blocks the depressant effect of diazepam as well as stimulant effect of beta carbolines

Description : Select the correct statement about flumazenil: A. It is a CNS stimulant used as an antidote for benzodiazepine poisoning B. It is a CNS depressant but blocks the action of diazepam C. It has ... of its own but blocks the depressant effect of diazepam as well as stimulant effect of beta carbolines

Last Answer : D. It has no CNS effect of its own but blocks the depressant effect of diazepam as well as stimulant effect of beta carbolines

Clobazam is a benzodiazepine used as: A. Hypnotic B. Muscle relaxant C. Anxiolytic D. Antiepileptic

Description : Clobazam is a benzodiazepine used as: A. Hypnotic B. Muscle relaxant C. Anxiolytic D. Antiepileptic

Last Answer : D. Antiepileptic

A patient presents complaining of a stomach upset 48 hours after starting a course of antibiotic for oral infection, this is an example of, A. Type I allergic reaction B. Nervous disorder C. Side effect of the drug D. Type IV hypersensitivity reaction E. Pyloric stenosis

Description : A patient presents complaining of a stomach upset 48 hours after starting a course of antibiotic for oral infection, this is an example of, A. Type I allergic reaction B. Nervous disorder C. Side effect of the drug D. Type IV hypersensitivity reaction E. Pyloric stenosis

Last Answer : C. Side effect of the drug

Despite having anticonvulsant action, diazepam is not used in the treatment of epilepsy because: A. It is not effective orally B. It causes sedation C. Its anticonvulsant action wanes off with chronic use D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Description : Despite having anticonvulsant action, diazepam is not used in the treatment of epilepsy because: A. It is not effective orally B. It causes sedation C. Its anticonvulsant action wanes off with chronic use D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

Last Answer : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct

The elimination half life of Diazepam is in the range of: A. 2-5 hours B. 5-12 hours C. 12-30 hours D. 30-48 hours E. 48-96 hours

Description : The elimination half life of Diazepam is in the range of: A. 2-5 hours B. 5-12 hours C. 12-30 hours D. 30-48 hours E. 48-96 hours

Last Answer : C. 12-30 hours

The removable partial denture requires relining what would be the most appropriate action, A. take a new impression by asking the patient to occlude on it B. Provide equal space (maybe it was thickness) between denture and gingival tissues. C. Make sure the framework and retainers are seated in place before taking impression

Description : The removable partial denture requires relining what would be the most appropriate action, A. take a new impression by asking the patient to occlude on it B. Provide equal space (maybe it was ... gingival tissues. C. Make sure the framework and retainers are seated in place before taking impression

Last Answer : C. Make sure the framework and retainers are seated in place before taking impression

.In minor oral surgery which is TRUE in regard to antibiotics: a. Amoxil is satisfactory against most oral infection. b. Metronidazole and Amoxil have the same penetrating power. c. It is evident that it will reduce post operative swelling.

Description : .In minor oral surgery which is TRUE in regard to antibiotics: a. Amoxil is satisfactory against most oral infection. b. Metronidazole and Amoxil have the same penetrating power. c. It is evident that it will reduce post operative swelling.

Last Answer : a. Amoxil is satisfactory against most oral infection.

In minor oral surgery, what is TRUE in regard to antibiotics: A. Amoxil is satisfactory against most oral infections B. Metronidazole and Amoxil have the same penetrating power C. It is evident that it will reduce post operative swelling

Description : In minor oral surgery, what is TRUE in regard to antibiotics: A. Amoxil is satisfactory against most oral infections B. Metronidazole and Amoxil have the same penetrating power C. It is evident that it will reduce post operative swelling

Last Answer : A. Amoxil is satisfactory against most oral infections

Which of the following is not true about warfarin, ** A. INR of 3 is enough to start any extraction B. Affects extrinsic system and decreases prothrombin time C. Heparin can be given subcutaneously and acts rapidly D. It takes up to 12 hours for Vitamin K to reverse the effects of warfarin

Description : Which of the following is not true about warfarin, ** A. INR of 3 is enough to start any extraction B. Affects extrinsic system and decreases prothrombin time C. Heparin can be given subcutaneously and acts rapidly D. It takes up to 12 hours for Vitamin K to reverse the effects of warfarin

Last Answer : B. Affects extrinsic system and decreases prothrombin time

Which action of morphine is incompletely reversed by naloxone ? (a) Analgesia (b) Respiratory depression (c) Sedation (d) Miosis

Description : Which action of morphine is incompletely reversed by naloxone ? (a) Analgesia (b) Respiratory depression (c) Sedation (d) Miosis

Last Answer : Ans: C

Which action of morphine is incompletely reversed by naloxone: A. Analgesia B. Respiratory depression C. Sedation D. Miosis

Description : Which action of morphine is incompletely reversed by naloxone: A. Analgesia B. Respiratory depression C. Sedation D. Miosis

Last Answer : C. Sedation

Which of the following is TRUE in regard to high risk patient?** A. 0.1ml of blood from Hepatitis B carrier is less infective than 0.1ml of blood from HIV patient B. 0.1ml of blood from Hepatitis B carrier is more infective than 0.1ml of blood from HIV patient C. Level of virus are similar in the blood and saliva of HIV patient D. Level of virus in the saliva is not significant for Hepatitis B patient E. The presence of Hepatitis B core Antigen in the blood means that active disease is not present

Description : Which of the following is TRUE in regard to high risk patient?** A. 0.1ml of blood from Hepatitis B carrier is less infective than 0.1ml of blood from HIV patient B. 0.1ml of blood from ... B patient E. The presence of Hepatitis B core Antigen in the blood means that active disease is not present

Last Answer : B carrier is more infective than 0.1ml of blood from HIV patient C. Level of virus are similar in the blood and saliva of HIV patient

Which drug is specific for Trigeminal Neuralgia: A. Diazepam B. Carbamazepine (Tegretol) C. Ergotamine D. Phenytoin

Description : Which drug is specific for Trigeminal Neuralgia: A. Diazepam B. Carbamazepine (Tegretol) C. Ergotamine D. Phenytoin

Last Answer : B. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

Which of the following is not true about warfarin, a. INR of 3 is enough to start any extraction. b. Affects extrinsic system and increases prothrombin time. c. Heparin can be given subcutaneously and acts rapidly. d. It takes at least 12 hours for Vitamin K to reverse the effects of coumarin.

Description : Which of the following is not true about warfarin, a. INR of 3 is enough to start any extraction. b. Affects extrinsic system and increases prothrombin time. c. Heparin can be given subcutaneously ... rapidly. d. It takes at least 12 hours for Vitamin K to reverse the effects of coumarin.

Last Answer : d. It takes at least 12 hours for Vitamin K to reverse the effects of coumarin.

Side affects of taking 9 10mg cetirizine HCL tablets?

Description : Side affects of taking 9 10mg cetirizine HCL tablets?

Last Answer : May I esquire as to why you took 9? Was it all at once, or over a specific period of time?

A 50 years old man presents after a full mouth extraction complaining that he “bled all night”. Which of the following pre existing conditions could be responsible for the post operative bleeding: A. Blood pressure reading of 180/110 B. Gastric ulcer C. Elevated prothrombin time D. A & C are correct E. None of the above

Description : A 50 years old man presents after a full mouth extraction complaining that he bled all night . Which of the following pre existing conditions could be responsible for the post operative bleeding: A. Blood ... ulcer C. Elevated prothrombin time D. A & C are correct E. None of the above

Last Answer : D. A & C are correct

Tetracycline hydrochloride conditioning of root surfaces in periodontal surgery is to: A. Sterilise the root surface B. May enhance binding of fibronectin and fibroblast C. Aids in re-mineralising the root surface D. Assist the biding of lamina dura E. Prevents post operative infections

Description : Tetracycline hydrochloride conditioning of root surfaces in periodontal surgery is to: A. Sterilise the root surface B. May enhance binding of fibronectin and fibroblast C. Aids in re-mineralising the root surface D. Assist the biding of lamina dura E. Prevents post operative infections

Last Answer : B. May enhance binding of fibronectin and fibroblast

A 37 years-old patient presents with paroxysmal pain on the left eye that he thinks is related to his maxillary posterior teeth. The pain comes in recurrent bursts and is aggravated by stress and alcohol. Oral exam is negative. The probable diagnosis is: A. Migraine B. Cluster headache C. Trigeminal neuralgia D. Temporal neuritis

Description : A 37 years-old patient presents with paroxysmal pain on the left eye that he thinks is related to his maxillary posterior teeth. The pain comes in recurrent bursts and is aggravated by stress and ... diagnosis is: A. Migraine B. Cluster headache C. Trigeminal neuralgia D. Temporal neuritis

Last Answer : B. Cluster headache

A 50 years-old man presented after a full mouth extraction complaining that he ”bled all night”. Which of the following pre. existing conditions could be responsible for the post operative bleeding: a. Blood pressure reading of 140/80 b. Gastric ulcer. c. Elevated prothrombin time. d. None of the above.

Description : A 50 years-old man presented after a full mouth extraction complaining that he bled all night . Which of the following pre. existing conditions could be responsible for the post operative bleeding: a. Blood ... 140/80 b. Gastric ulcer. c. Elevated prothrombin time. d. None of the above.

Last Answer : c. Elevated prothrombin time.

If amalgam gets contaminated with moisture, the most uncommon result is:** A. Blister formation B. Post operative pain C. Secondary caries D. Lower compressive strength

Description : If amalgam gets contaminated with moisture, the most uncommon result is:** A. Blister formation B. Post operative pain C. Secondary caries D. Lower compressive strength

Last Answer : C. Secondary caries

.For a 5 years-old child who lives in a NON WATER FLUORIDATED area, what is the recommended supplemental intake of fluoride: A. 0.25mg B. 0.10mg C. 0.50mg D. 1.00mg

Description : .For a 5 years-old child who lives in a NON WATER FLUORIDATED area, what is the recommended supplemental intake of fluoride: A. 0.25mg B. 0.10mg C. 0.50mg D. 1.00mg

Last Answer : C. 0.50mg

The treatment of angioneurotic oedema: A. Anti histamine 10mg IV B. Chlorphenamine maleate as Piriton by Allen C. Hydrochloride 25 mg IM D. Corticosteroid drugs or with adrenaline.

Description : The treatment of angioneurotic oedema: A. Anti histamine 10mg IV B. Chlorphenamine maleate as Piriton by Allen C. Hydrochloride 25 mg IM D. Corticosteroid drugs or with adrenaline.

Last Answer : A. Anti histamine 10mg IV

Bladder retraining following removal of an indwelling catheter begins with instructing the patient to follow a 2-3 hour timed voiding schedule. Immediately after the removal of the indwelling catheter, the patient is placed on a timed voiding schedule, usually two to three hours. At the given time interval, the patient is instructed to void. a) encouraging the patient to void immediately. Immediate voiding is not usually encouraged. The patient is commonly placed on a timed voiding schedule, usually within two to three hours.

Description : Bladder retraining following removal of an indwelling catheter begins with instructing the patient to follow a 2-3 hour timed voiding schedule. Immediately after the removal of the indwelling ... in the bladder after voiding, straight catheterization may be performed for complete bladder emptying.

Last Answer : a) encouraging the patient to void immediately. Immediate voiding is not usually encouraged. The patient is commonly placed on a timed voiding schedule, usually within two to three hours.

When is it acceptable for the patient to hold radiographic film packet in the patient’s mouth: A. Patient is very young and cannot understand direction B. Patient is physically handicapped and unable to hold the film C. Film should never be held by the dentist D. There is a lack of time and radiograph is essential

Description : When is it acceptable for the patient to hold radiographic film packet in the patient's mouth: A. Patient is very young and cannot understand direction B. Patient is physically handicapped and unable to ... never be held by the dentist D. There is a lack of time and radiograph is essential

Last Answer : C. Film should never be held by the dentist

The main factor controlling a decision to increase the occlusal height of teeth for extensive oral reconstruction is whether, A. the inter occlusal distance will be physiologically acceptable after treatment B. there will be sufficient tooth bulk in the abutment teeth for proper retention of the crowns C. at least two third of the original alveolar process will remain for adequate periodontal support D. the aesthetic appearance of the patient will improve sufficiently to warrant the planned reconstruction

Description : The main factor controlling a decision to increase the occlusal height of teeth for extensive oral reconstruction is whether, A. the inter occlusal distance will be physiologically ... the aesthetic appearance of the patient will improve sufficiently to warrant the planned reconstruction

Last Answer : A. the inter occlusal distance will be physiologically acceptable after treatment

The main factor controlling a decision to increase the occlusal height of teeth for extensive oral reconstruction is whether, A. The inter occlusal distance will be physiologically acceptable after treatment B. There will be sufficient tooth bulk in the abutment teeth for proper retention of the crowns C. At least two third of the original alveolar process will remain for adequate periodontal support D. The aesthetic appearance of the patient will improve sufficiently to warrant the planned reconstruction

Description : The main factor controlling a decision to increase the occlusal height of teeth for extensive oral reconstruction is whether, A. The inter occlusal distance will be physiologically ... . The aesthetic appearance of the patient will improve sufficiently to warrant the planned reconstruction

Last Answer : A. The inter occlusal distance will be physiologically acceptable after treatment

most common and dangerous side effect of anti-pregnancy drugs. 1) hypotension 2) thromboembolism 3) uterine cancer 4) headache

Description : most common and dangerous side effect of anti-pregnancy drugs. 1) hypotension 2) thromboembolism 3) uterine cancer 4) headache

Last Answer : 2) thromboembolism

A patient with no positive history came along for scaling. The moment you pick up the scaler you punch your finger, what should you do? A. Complete the procedure as nothing has happened B. Check patient’s blood for epatitis B antibody BsAb C. Check patient’s blood for epatitis B antigen BsAg D. Check dentist’s blood for epatitis B antibody BsAb and IV antigen IVAg E.

Description : A patient with no positive history came along for scaling. The moment you pick up the scaler you punch your finger, what should you do? A. Complete the procedure as nothing has happened B. Check ... B antigen BsAg D. Check dentist's blood for epatitis B antibody BsAb and IV antigen IVAg E.

Last Answer : A. Complete the procedure as nothing has happened

The following statement(s) is/are correct in relation to diazepam and chlorpromazine: A. Both have anticonvulsant property B. Both do not carry abuse liability C. Both have antianxiety action D. All of the above are correc

Description : The following statement(s) is/are correct in relation to diazepam and chlorpromazine: A. Both have anticonvulsant property B. Both do not carry abuse liability C. Both have antianxiety action D. All of the above are correc

Last Answer : C. Both have antianxiety action

A patient on the dental chair has cardiac arrest. What is INCORRECT, A. Observing the vital signs and check that the air way is clear is at high importance B. Expired air has 15% O2 only, and cardiac compressions achieve 30-40% of cardiac output C. Intermittent positive pressure at the rate of 40/min will reduce the chances of cerebral hypoxia D. Intermittent positive pressure is better than mouth to mouth when it has been given at the same rate.

Description : A patient on the dental chair has cardiac arrest. What is INCORRECT, A. Observing the vital signs and check that the air way is clear is at high importance B. Expired air has 15% O2 only, ... D. Intermittent positive pressure is better than mouth to mouth when it has been given at the same rate.

Last Answer : C. Intermittent positive pressure at the rate of 40/min will reduce the chances of cerebral hypoxia

Signs and symptoms that commonly suggest cardiac failure in a patient being assessed for oral surgery are, A. Elevated temperature and nausea B. Palpitations and malaise C. Ankle oedema and dyspnoea D. Erythema and pain E. Pallor and tremor

Description : Signs and symptoms that commonly suggest cardiac failure in a patient being assessed for oral surgery are, A. Elevated temperature and nausea B. Palpitations and malaise C. Ankle oedema and dyspnoea D. Erythema and pain E. Pallor and tremor

Last Answer : C. Ankle oedema and dyspnoea

What is the purpose of making a record of protrusive relation and what function does it serve after it is made? A. To register the condylar path and to adjust the inclination of the incisal guidance. B. To aid in determining the freeway space and to adjust the inclination of the incisal guidance. C. to register the condylar path and to adjust the condylar guides of the articulator so that they are equivalent to the condylar paths of the patient.

Description : What is the purpose of making a record of protrusive relation and what function does it serve after it is made? A. To register the condylar path and to adjust the inclination of the ... the condylar guides of the articulator so that they are equivalent to the condylar paths of the patient.

Last Answer : C. to register the condylar path and to adjust the condylar guides of the articulator so that they are equivalent to the condylar paths of the patient.

Jaw relations for edentulous patient have been established. The maxillary cast has been mounted on the articulator without face-bow and you decide to increase the occlusal vertical dimension by 4 mm. This will necessitate, A. Opening the articulator 4 mm B. A new centric relation record C. Changes in the condylar guide settings D. Increase in the vertical dimension

Description : Jaw relations for edentulous patient have been established. The maxillary cast has been mounted on the articulator without face-bow and you decide to increase the occlusal vertical dimension by 4 mm ... record C. Changes in the condylar guide settings D. Increase in the vertical dimension

Last Answer : B. A new centric relation record

Jaw relation of an edentulous patient has been established. The maxillary cast has been mounted on an articulator without a face bow. You decide to increase the occlusal vertical dimension by 4mm this will necessitate, A. Opening the articulator 4mm B. A new centric relation to be recorded C. A change in the condylar guide settings D. An increase in the rest vertical dimension

Description : Jaw relation of an edentulous patient has been established. The maxillary cast has been mounted on an articulator without a face bow. You decide to increase the occlusal vertical dimension by 4mm this ... C. A change in the condylar guide settings D. An increase in the rest vertical dimension

Last Answer : B. A new centric relation to be recorded

Which one of the following is true about oral hairy leukoplakia?** ADC M07 A. Associated with HIV virus infection and is commonly seen on the dorsal of the tongue B. Associated with HIV virus infection and is commonly seen on the lateral side of the tongue C. Usually caused by Candida species D. Always associated with trauma to the lateral side of the tongue E. Always associated with pernicious anaemia

Description : Which one of the following is true about oral hairy leukoplakia?** ADC M07 A. Associated with HIV virus infection and is commonly seen on the dorsal of the tongue B. Associated with HIV ... Always associated with trauma to the lateral side of the tongue E. Always associated with pernicious anaemia

Last Answer : B. Associated with HIV virus infection and is commonly seen on the lateral side of the tongue C. Usually caused by Candida species

Which of the following patients are at the highest risk of suffering from an adverse drug reaction? a) An 8 month year old infant receiving a prescription for an antibiotic. b) A 22 year old patient with asthma receiving prescriptions for inhalers to relieve and prevent their asthma. c) A 48 year old patient who has hypertension and receives a prescription for an ACE Inhibitor. d) A 68 year old patient who has oedema receiving a prescription for a diuretic.

Description : Which of the following patients are at the highest risk of suffering from an adverse drug reaction? a) An 8 month year old infant receiving a prescription for an antibiotic. b) A 22 year old patient ... ACE Inhibitor. d) A 68 year old patient who has oedema receiving a prescription for a diuretic. 

Last Answer : d) A 68 year old patient who has oedema receiving a prescription for a diuretic. 

When the nurse prepares to give a bolus tube feeding to the patient and determines that the residual gastric content is 150 cc, her best action is to a) reassess the residual gastric content in 1 hour. If the gastric residual exceeds 100 cc 2 hours in a row, the physician should be notified.

Description : When the nurse prepares to give a bolus tube feeding to the patient and determines that the residual gastric content is 150 cc, her best action is to a) reassess the residual gastric content in ... residual exceeds 100 cc, the tube feeding should be withheld at that time, but not indefinitely.

Last Answer : a) reassess the residual gastric content in 1 hour. If the gastric residual exceeds 100 cc 2 hours in a row, the physician should be notified.