44. Mang Pedring has chronic pain due to osteoarthritis and has impaired speech. Which of the following is the most appropriate to determine his medication needs for pain?

44. Mang Pedring has chronic pain due to osteoarthritis and has
impaired speech. Which of the following is the most
appropriate to determine his medication needs for pain?
by

1 Answer

Answer :

B. Asking the client to rate his pain on a scale of 0 to
10 by writing on a magic slate
by

Related questions

43. Mr. Gomez, 71 years old, has a history of chronic back pain. He thinks that his family perceives him as a “weakling” because he often asks for pain medication. Which of the following is the most therapeutic response of the nurse?

Description : 43. Mr. Gomez, 71 years old, has a history of chronic back pain. He thinks that his family perceives him as a “weakling” because he often asks for pain medication. Which of the following is the most therapeutic response of the nurse?

Last Answer : A. “It seems that you are worried. Which matter to you more? What people will say or getting relief from your pain?”

The preferred route of administration of medication in the most acute care situations is which of the following routes? a) Intravenous The IV route is the preferred parenteral route in most acute care situations because it is much more comfortable for the patient, and peak serum levels and pain relief occur more rapidly and reliably. b) Epidural Epidural administration is used to control postoperative and chronic pain. c) Subcutaneous Subcutaneous administration results in slow absorption of medication. d) Intramuscular Intramuscular administration of medication is absorbed more slowly than intravenously administered medication.

Description : The preferred route of administration of medication in the most acute care situations is which of the following routes? a) Intravenous The IV route is the preferred ... ) Intramuscular Intramuscular administration of medication is absorbed more slowly than intravenously administered medication.

Last Answer : a) Intravenous The IV route is the preferred parenteral route in most acute care situations because it is much more comfortable for the patient, and peak serum levels and pain relief occur more rapidly and reliably.

Which of the following statements reflect nursing interventions in the care of the patient with osteoarthritis? a) Encourage weight loss and an increase in aerobic activity. Weight loss and an increase in aerobic activity such as walking, with special attention to quadriceps strengthening are important approaches to pain management.

Description : Which of the following statements reflect nursing interventions in the care of the patient with osteoarthritis? a) Encourage weight loss and an increase in aerobic activity. Weight loss and ... analgesics. Topical analgesics such as capsaicin and methylsalicylate may be used for pain management.

Last Answer : a) Encourage weight loss and an increase in aerobic activity. Weight loss and an increase in aerobic activity such as walking, with special attention to quadriceps strengthening are important approaches to pain management.

63. A hypertensive client is taking herbal supplement for his hypertension. He was prescribed antihypertensive medication. The client wants to continue taking his herbal medication to lower his blood pressure. The nurse’s most appropriate action is to

Description : 63. A hypertensive client is taking herbal supplement for his hypertension. He was prescribed antihypertensive medication. The client wants to continue taking his herbal medication to lower his blood pressure. The nurse’s most appropriate action is to

Last Answer : B. Tell the client that herbal supplements have no proven therapeutic effects

When assessing the older adult, the nurse anticipates increase in which of the follow components of respiratory status? a) Residual lung volume As a result, patient experience fatigue and breathlessness with sustained activity. b) Vital capacity The nurse anticipates decreased vital capacity. c) Gas exchange and diffusing capacity The nurse anticipates decreased gas exchange and diffusing capacity resulting in impaired healing of tissues due to decreased oxygenation. d) Cough efficiency The nurse anticipates difficulty coughing up secretions due to decreased cough efficiency.

Description : When assessing the older adult, the nurse anticipates increase in which of the follow components of respiratory status? a) Residual lung volume As a result, patient experience fatigue ... ) Cough efficiency The nurse anticipates difficulty coughing up secretions due to decreased cough efficiency.

Last Answer : a) Residual lung volume As a result, patient experience fatigue and breathlessness with sustained activity.

38. A nurse encounters a client who refuses to take a prescribed medication. What is the appropriate action of the nurse?

Description : 38. A nurse encounters a client who refuses to take a prescribed medication. What is the appropriate action of the nurse?

Last Answer : C. Explore the possible reason why the client refuses the prescribed medication

Exercising through the pain of osteoarthritis: medication equals dedication or no pain, no gain?

Description : Exercising through the pain of osteoarthritis: medication equals dedication or no pain, no gain?

Last Answer : answer:Only Celebrex was guilty of killing people. If you can tolerate NSAIDs ( and most people can just fine), why not take them? They are life savers.

Which of the following newer pharmacological therapies used for the treatment of osteoarthritis is thought to improve cartilage function and retard degradation as well as have some antiinflammatory effects? a) Viscosupplementation Viscosupplementation, the intraarticular injection of hyaluronic acid, is thought to improve cartilage function and retard degradation. It may also have some anti-inflammatory effects.

Description : Which of the following newer pharmacological therapies used for the treatment of osteoarthritis is thought to improve cartilage function and retard degradation as well as have some antiinflammatory effects ... function and retard breakdown of cartilage. d) Capsaicin Capsaicin is a topical analgesic.

Last Answer : a) Viscosupplementation Viscosupplementation, the intraarticular injection of hyaluronic acid, is thought to improve cartilage function and retard degradation. It may also have some anti-inflammatory effects.

Osteoarthritis is known as a disease that a) is the most common and frequently disabling of joint disorders. The functional impact of osteoarthritis on quality of life, especially for elderly patients, is often ignored.

Description : Osteoarthritis is known as a disease that a) is the most common and frequently disabling of joint disorders. The functional impact of osteoarthritis on quality of life, especially for elderly patients, ... causes the described problem and is usually diagnosed in the second or third decade of life.

Last Answer : a) is the most common and frequently disabling of joint disorders. The functional impact of osteoarthritis on quality of life, especially for elderly patients, is often ignored.

When the patient who has experienced trauma to an extremity complains of severe burning pain, vasomotor changes, and muscles spasms in the injured extremity, the nurse recognizes that the patient is likely demonstrating signs of a) reflex sympathetic dystrophy syndrome. RSD is frequently chronic and occurs most often in women.

Description : When the patient who has experienced trauma to an extremity complains of severe burning pain, vasomotor changes, and muscles spasms in the injured extremity, the nurse ... heterotrophic ossification. Heterotrophic ossification causes muscular pain and limited muscular contraction and movement.

Last Answer : a) reflex sympathetic dystrophy syndrome. RSD is frequently chronic and occurs most often in women.

Surgical fusion of a joint is termed a) arthrodesis. Arthrodesis of a joint is created surgically to treat chronic pain. b) open reduction with internal fixation (ORIF). ORIF refers to surgery to repair and stabilize a fracture. c) heterotrophic ossification. Heterotrophic ossification refers to formation of bone in the periprosthetic space. d) arthroplasty. Arthroplasty refers to surgical repair of a joint or joint replacement.

Description : Surgical fusion of a joint is termed a) arthrodesis. Arthrodesis of a joint is created surgically to treat chronic pain. b) open reduction with internal fixation (ORIF). ORIF refers to ... periprosthetic space. d) arthroplasty. Arthroplasty refers to surgical repair of a joint or joint replacement.

Last Answer : a) arthrodesis. Arthrodesis of a joint is created surgically to treat chronic pain.

Which of the following terms refers to chest pain brought on by physical or emotional stress and relieved by rest or medication? a) angina pectoris Angina pectoris is a symptom of myocardial ischemia. b) atherosclerosis Atherosclerosis is an abnormal accumulation of lipid deposits and fibrous tissue within arterial walls and lumens. c) atheroma Atheromas are fibrous caps composed of smooth muscle cells that form over lipid deposits within arterial vessels. d) ischemia Ischemia is insufficient tissue oxygenation and may occur in any part of the body.

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Last Answer : a) angina pectoris Angina pectoris is a symptom of myocardial ischemia.

33. The client is scheduled to undergo appendectomy. Preparation for appendectomy includes the following: 1. Intravenous infusion 2. Laxative 3. Pubic area shaving 4. Enema 5. Shower 6. Pain medication

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Last Answer : B. 1, 3, and 5

A patient presents with long time history of knee pain suggestive of osteoarthritis. Now he complains of unilateral lower limb swelling and on examination there is +ve pedal & tibial pitting edema. What is the next appropriate investigation? a. CXR b. ECG c. Echocardiography d. Duplex ultrasound of lower limb

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Last Answer : d. Duplex ultrasound of lower limb

Which of the following terms has been defined by the American Psychiatric Association as a group of behavioral or psychological symptoms or a pattern that manifests itself in significant distress, impaired functioning, or accentuated risk of enduring severe suffering or possible death? a) Mental disorder The definition was adopted by the American Psychiatric Association in 1994. b) Emotional disorder There is no universally accepted definition of what constitutes an emotional disorder. c) Anxiety Anxiety is defined as fear of the unknown. d) Schizophrenia Schizophrenia is a specific disorder characterized by psychosis.

Description : Which of the following terms has been defined by the American Psychiatric Association as a group of behavioral or psychological symptoms or a pattern that manifests itself in significant distress ... of the unknown. d) Schizophrenia Schizophrenia is a specific disorder characterized by psychosis.

Last Answer : a) Mental disorder The definition was adopted by the American Psychiatric Association in 1994.

47. Which of the following designs would be most appropriate to use in attempting to determine the participants’ early ambulation after they will be given preoperative teachings?

Description : 47. Which of the following designs would be most appropriate to use in attempting to determine the participants’ early ambulation after they will be given preoperative teachings?

Last Answer : A. Time series design

Which of the following terms is used to describe a chronic liver disease in which scar tissue surrounds the portal areas? a) Alcoholic cirrhosis This type of cirrhosis is due to chronic alcoholism and is the most common type of cirrhosis.

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Last Answer : a) Alcoholic cirrhosis This type of cirrhosis is due to chronic alcoholism and is the most common type of cirrhosis.

When the nurse observes the patient’s urine to be orange, she further assesses the patient for a) intake of medication such as phenytoin (Dilantin). Urine that is orange may be caused by intake of Dilantin or other medications. Orange to amber colored urine may also indicate concentrated urine due to dehydration or fever.

Description : When the nurse observes the patient's urine to be orange, she further assesses the patient for a) intake of medication such as phenytoin (Dilantin). Urine that is orange may be caused by intake ... white urine may indicate infection, pyruria, or in the female patient, the use of vaginal creams.

Last Answer : a) intake of medication such as phenytoin (Dilantin). Urine that is orange may be caused by intake of Dilantin or other medications. Orange to amber colored urine may also indicate concentrated urine due to dehydration or fever.

A 65 years-old patient needs extraction of 44; he has taken insulin in the morning. What preoperative advice you should give: A. Take more sugar B. Maintain normal diet C. Antibiotic 2 hours before D. Medication increases preoperatively

Description : A 65 years-old patient needs extraction of 44; he has taken insulin in the morning. What preoperative advice you should give: A. Take more sugar B. Maintain normal diet C. Antibiotic 2 hours before D. Medication increases preoperatively

Last Answer : B. Maintain normal diet

Degenerative neurologic disorders include which of the following? a) Huntington’s disease Huntington’s disease is a chronic, progressive, degenerative neurologic hereditary disease of the nervous system that results in progressive involuntary choreiform movement and dementia.

Description : Degenerative neurologic disorders include which of the following? a) Huntington's disease Huntington's disease is a chronic, progressive, degenerative neurologic hereditary disease of the nervous system that results in ... the bone. d) Glioma Malignant glioma is the most common type of brain tumor.

Last Answer : a) Huntington’s disease Huntington’s disease is a chronic, progressive, degenerative neurologic hereditary disease of the nervous system that results in progressive involuntary choreiform movement and dementia.

Which of the following diseases is a chronic, progressive, hereditary disease of the nervous system that results in progressive involuntary dance-like movement and dementia? a) Huntington’s disease Because it is transmitted as an autosomal dominant genetic disorder, each child of a parent with HD has a 50% risk of inheriting the illness.

Description : Which of the following diseases is a chronic, progressive, hereditary disease of the nervous system that results in progressive involuntary dance-like movement and dementia? a) Huntington's ... the central nervous system characterized by spongiform degeneration of the gray matter of the brain.

Last Answer : a) Huntington’s disease Because it is transmitted as an autosomal dominant genetic disorder, each child of a parent with HD has a 50% risk of inheriting the illness.

Which of the following diseases is a chronic, degenerative, progressive disease of the central nervous system characterized by the occurrence of small patches of demyelination in the brain and spinal cord? a) Multiple sclerosis The cause of MS is not known and the disease affects twice as many women as men.

Description : Which of the following diseases is a chronic, degenerative, progressive disease of the central nervous system characterized by the occurrence of small patches of demyelination in the brain and ... the central nervous system characterized by spongiform degeneration of the gray matter of the brain.

Last Answer : a) Multiple sclerosis The cause of MS is not known and the disease affects twice as many women as men.

Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for transient ischemic attacks and ischemic strokes? a) History of smoking. Modifiable risk factors for TIAs and ischemic stroke include hypertension, Type 1 diabetes, cardiac disease, history of smoking, and chronic alcoholism.

Description : Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for transient ischemic attacks and ischemic strokes? a) History of smoking. Modifiable risk factors for TIAs and ischemic stroke include hypertension, Type ... ) Advanced age Advanced age, gender, and race are non-modifiable risk factors for stroke.

Last Answer : a) History of smoking. Modifiable risk factors for TIAs and ischemic stroke include hypertension, Type 1 diabetes, cardiac disease, history of smoking, and chronic alcoholism.

The percentage of patients over the age of 70 admitted to the hospital with delirium is about a) 25%. About 25% of patients over the age of 70 admitted to the hospital have delirium. The cause is often reversible and treatable (as in drug toxicity, vitamin B12 deficiency or thyroid disease) or chronic and irreversible. Depression may produce impairment of attention and memory.

Description : The percentage of patients over the age of 70 admitted to the hospital with delirium is about a) 25%. About 25% of patients over the age of 70 admitted to the hospital have delirium. The cause is ... delirium. d) 50%. About 25% of patients over the age of 70 admitted to the hospital have delirium.

Last Answer : a) 25%. About 25% of patients over the age of 70 admitted to the hospital have delirium. The cause is often reversible and treatable (as in drug toxicity, vitamin B12 deficiency or thyroid disease) or chronic and irreversible. Depression may produce impairment of attention and memory.

Which of the following factors are associated with increased fluid requirements in the management of patients with burn injury? a) Inhalation injuries Factors associated with increased fluid requirements include inhalation injuries, delayed resuscitation, scald burn injuries, high-voltage electrical injuries, hyperglycemia, alcohol intoxification and chronic diuretic therapy.

Description : Which of the following factors are associated with increased fluid requirements in the management of patients with burn injury? a) Inhalation injuries Factors associated with increased fluid ... fluid requirements. d) Hypoglycemia Hypoglycemia is not associated with increased fluid requirements.

Last Answer : a) Inhalation injuries Factors associated with increased fluid requirements include inhalation injuries, delayed resuscitation, scald burn injuries, high-voltage electrical injuries, hyperglycemia, alcohol intoxification and chronic diuretic therapy.

Which of the following reflect the pathophysiology of cutaneous signs of HIV disease? a) Immune function deterioration Cutaneous signs may be the first manifestations of HIV, appearing in more than 90 per cent of HIV infected patients as the immune function deteriorates. Common complaints include pruritis, folliculitis, and chronic actinic dermatitis.

Description : Which of the following reflect the pathophysiology of cutaneous signs of HIV disease? a) Immune function deterioration Cutaneous signs may be the first manifestations of HIV, appearing in more ... Decrease in normal skin flora Cutaneous signs of HIV disease appear as immune function deteriorates.

Last Answer : a) Immune function deterioration Cutaneous signs may be the first manifestations of HIV, appearing in more than 90 per cent of HIV infected patients as the immune function deteriorates. Common complaints include pruritis, folliculitis, and chronic actinic dermatitis.

Fibromyalgia is a common condition that a) involves chronic fatigue, generalized muscle aching and stiffness. Fibromyalgia, is a common condition that involves chronic fatigue, generalized muscle aching, and stiffness.

Description : Fibromyalgia is a common condition that a) involves chronic fatigue, generalized muscle aching and stiffness. Fibromyalgia, is a common condition that involves chronic fatigue, generalized muscle aching, and ... very typical for patients to have endured their symptoms for a long period of time.

Last Answer : a) involves chronic fatigue, generalized muscle aching and stiffness. Fibromyalgia, is a common condition that involves chronic fatigue, generalized muscle aching, and stiffness.

Which of the following terms is used to refer to inflammation of the renal pelvis? a) Pyelonephritis Pyelonephritis is an upper urinary tract inflammation, which may be acute or chronic.

Description : Which of the following terms is used to refer to inflammation of the renal pelvis? a) Pyelonephritis Pyelonephritis is an upper urinary tract inflammation, which may be acute or chronic. ... inflammation of the urethra. d) Interstitial nephritis Interstitial nephritis is inflammation of the kidney.

Last Answer : a) Pyelonephritis Pyelonephritis is an upper urinary tract inflammation, which may be acute or chronic.

Which of the following is a reversible cause of urinary incontinence in the older adult? a) Constipation. Constipation is a reversible cause of urinary incontinence in the older adult. Other reversible causes include acute urinary tract infection, infection elsewhere in the body, decreased fluid intake, a change in a chronic disease pattern, and decreased estrogen levels in the menopausal women.

Description : Which of the following is a reversible cause of urinary incontinence in the older adult? a) Constipation. Constipation is a reversible cause of urinary incontinence in the older adult. Other ... level in the menopausal woman is a reversible cause of urinary incontinence in the older woman.

Last Answer : a) Constipation. Constipation is a reversible cause of urinary incontinence in the older adult. Other reversible causes include acute urinary tract infection, infection elsewhere in the body, decreased ... a change in a chronic disease pattern, and decreased estrogen levels in the menopausal women.

The term used to describe total urine output of less than 400 mL in 24 hours is a) oliguria. Oliguria is associated with acute and chronic renal failure.

Description : The term used to describe total urine output of less than 400 mL in 24 hours is a) oliguria. Oliguria is associated with acute and chronic renal failure. b) anuria. Anuria is used to ... Nocturia refers to awakening at night to urinate. d) dysuria. Dysuria refers to painful or difficult urination.

Last Answer : a) oliguria. Oliguria is associated with acute and chronic renal failure.

Which of the following statements accurately describes cancer of the esophagus? a) Chronic irritation of the esophagus is a known risk factor. In the United States, cancer of the esophagus has been associated with the ingestion of alcohol and the use of tobacco. b) It is three times more common in women in the U.S. than men. In the United States, carcinoma of the esophagus occurs more than three times as often in men as in women. c) It is seen more frequently in Caucasians than in African Americans. It is seen more frequently in African Americans than in Caucasians. d) It usually occurs in the fourth decade of life. It usually occurs in the fifth decade of life.

Description : Which of the following statements accurately describes cancer of the esophagus? a) Chronic irritation of the esophagus is a known risk factor. In the United States, cancer of the esophagus has been associated ... occurs in the fourth decade of life. It usually occurs in the fifth decade of life.

Last Answer : a) Chronic irritation of the esophagus is a known risk factor. In the United States, cancer of the esophagus has been associated with the ingestion of alcohol and the use of tobacco.

Which of the following terms refers to enlarged, red, and tender lymph nodes? a) Lymphadenitis Acute lymphadenitis is demonstrated by enlarged, red and tender lymph nodes. b) Lymphangitis Lymphangitis is an acute inflammation of the lymphatic channels. c) Lymphedema Lymphedema is demonstrated by swelling of tissues in the extremities because of an increased quantity of lymph that results from an obstruction of lymphatic vessels. d) Elephantiasis Elephantiasis refers to a condition in which chronic swelling of the extremity recedes only slightly with elevation.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to enlarged, red, and tender lymph nodes? a) Lymphadenitis Acute lymphadenitis is demonstrated by enlarged, red and tender lymph nodes. b) Lymphangitis ... refers to a condition in which chronic swelling of the extremity recedes only slightly with elevation.

Last Answer : a) Lymphadenitis Acute lymphadenitis is demonstrated by enlarged, red and tender lymph nodes.

Which of the following is the most important risk factor for development of Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease? a) Cigarette smoking Pipe, cigar and other types of tobacco smoking are also risk factors. b) Occupational exposure While a risk factor, occupational exposure is not the most important risk factor for development of COPD. c) Air pollution Air pollution is a risk factor for development of COPD, but it is not the most important risk factor. d) Genetic abnormalities A deficiency of alpha-antitrypsin is a risk factor for development of COPD, but it is not the most important risk factor.

Description : Which of the following is the most important risk factor for development of Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease? a) Cigarette smoking Pipe, cigar and other types of tobacco smoking are also risk factors. b) ... is a risk factor for development of COPD, but it is not the most important risk factor.

Last Answer : a) Cigarette smoking Pipe, cigar and other types of tobacco smoking are also risk factors.

Emphysema is described as: a) A disease of the airways characterized by destruction of the walls of overdistended alveoli. Emphysema is a category of COPD. b) A disease that results in a common clinical outcome of reversible airflow obstruction. Asthma is the disease described. c) The presence of cough and sputum production for at least a combined total of two or three months in each of two consecutive years. Bronchitis is the disease described. d) Chronic dilatation of a bronchus or bronchi Bronchiectasis is the condition described.

Description : Emphysema is described as: a) A disease of the airways characterized by destruction of the walls of overdistended alveoli. Emphysema is a category of COPD. b) A disease that results in ... disease described. d) Chronic dilatation of a bronchus or bronchi Bronchiectasis is the condition described.

Last Answer : a) A disease of the airways characterized by destruction of the walls of overdistended alveoli. Emphysema is a category of COPD.

Another term for clergyman’s sore throat is a) chronic granular pharyngitis. In clergyman’s sore throat, the pharynx is characterized by numerous swollen lymph follicles. b) aphonia. Aphonia refers to the inability to use one’s voice. c) atrophic pharyngitis. Atrophic pharyngitis is characterized by a membrane that is thin, white, glistening, and at times wrinkled. d) hypertrophic pharyngitis. Hypertrophic pharyngitis is characterized by general thickening and congestion of the pharyngeal mucous membrane.

Description : Another term for clergyman's sore throat is a) chronic granular pharyngitis. In clergyman's sore throat, the pharynx is characterized by numerous swollen lymph follicles. b) ... . Hypertrophic pharyngitis is characterized by general thickening and congestion of the pharyngeal mucous membrane.

Last Answer : a) chronic granular pharyngitis. In clergyman’s sore throat, the pharynx is characterized by numerous swollen lymph follicles.

The nurse anticipates that the immunosuppressed patient is at greatest risk for which type of shock? a) Septic Septic shock is associated with immunosuppression, extremes of age, malnourishment, chronic illness, and invasive procedures. b) Neurogenic Neurogenic shock is associated with spinal cord injury and anesthesia. c) Cardiogenic Cardiogenic shock is associated with disease of the heart. d) Anaphylactic Anaphylactic shock is associated with hypersensitivity reactions.

Description : The nurse anticipates that the immunosuppressed patient is at greatest risk for which type of shock? a) Septic Septic shock is associated with immunosuppression, extremes of age, ... disease of the heart. d) Anaphylactic Anaphylactic shock is associated with hypersensitivity reactions.

Last Answer : a) Septic Septic shock is associated with immunosuppression, extremes of age, malnourishment, chronic illness, and invasive procedures.

Which phase of the trajectory model of chronic illness is characterized by reactivation of the illness? a) Unstable The unstable phase is characterized by development of complications or reactivation of the illness. b) Stable The stable phase indicates that the symptoms and disability are under control or managed. c) Acute The acute phase is characterized by sudden onset of severe or unrelieved symptoms or complications that may necessitate hospitalization for their management. d) Comeback The comeback phase is the period in the trajectory marked by recovery after an acute period.

Description : Which phase of the trajectory model of chronic illness is characterized by reactivation of the illness? a) Unstable The unstable phase is characterized by development of complications or reactivation of the ... comeback phase is the period in the trajectory marked by recovery after an acute period.

Last Answer : a) Unstable The unstable phase is characterized by development of complications or reactivation of the illness.

In which phase of the trajectory model of chronic illness are the symptoms under control and managed? a) Stable The stable phase indicates that the symptoms and disability are under control or managed. b) Acute The acute phase is characterized by sudden onset of severe or unrelieved symptoms or complications that may necessitate hospitalization for their management. c) Comeback The comeback phase is the period in the trajectory marked by recovery after an acute period. d) Downward The downward phase occurs when symptoms worsen or the disability progresses despite attempts to control the course through proper management.

Description : In which phase of the trajectory model of chronic illness are the symptoms under control and managed? a) Stable The stable phase indicates that the symptoms and disability are under ... symptoms worsen or the disability progresses despite attempts to control the course through proper management.

Last Answer : a) Stable The stable phase indicates that the symptoms and disability are under control or managed.

Which of the following statements describes accurate information related to chronic illness? a) Most people with chronic conditions do not consider themselves sick or ill. Although some people take on a sick role identity, most people with chronic conditions do not consider themselves sick or ill and try to live

Description : Which of the following statements describes accurate information related to chronic illness? a) Most people with chronic conditions do not consider themselves sick or ill. Although some people ... are easily controlled. Many chronic conditions require therapeutic regimens to keep them under control.

Last Answer : a) Most people with chronic conditions do not consider themselves sick or ill. Although some people take on a sick role identity, most people with chronic conditions do not consider themselves sick or ill and try to live as normal a life as is possible.

When up to a 6-month period elapses between the experience of trauma and the onset of symptoms of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD), the episode is termed a) delayed. In the case of delayed PTSD, there may be up to a 6-month period of time that elapses between the trauma and the manifestation of symptoms. b) acute. Acute PTSD is defined as the experience of symptoms for less than a 3-month period. c) chronic. Chronic PTSD is defined as the experience of symptoms lasting longer than 3 months. d) primary. The concept of primary disease is not used in relation to PTSD.

Description : When up to a 6-month period elapses between the experience of trauma and the onset of symptoms of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD), the episode is termed a) delayed. In the case of delayed PTSD, there ... than 3 months. d) primary. The concept of primary disease is not used in relation to PTSD.

Last Answer : a) delayed. In the case of delayed PTSD, there may be up to a 6-month period of time that elapses between the trauma and the manifestation of symptoms.

Nonadherence to therapeutic regimens is a significant problem for which of the following age groups? a) Adults 65 and over Elderly people frequently have one or more chronic illnesses that are managed with numerous medications and complicated by periodic acute episodes, making adherence difficult. b) Teenagers Problems of teenagers, generally, are time limited and specific, and require promoting adherence to treatment to return to health. c) Children In general, the compliance of children depends on the compliance of their parents. d) Middle-aged adults Middle-aged adults, in general, have fewer health problems, thus promoting adherence.

Description : Nonadherence to therapeutic regimens is a significant problem for which of the following age groups? a) Adults 65 and over Elderly people frequently have one or more chronic illnesses that are ... -aged adults Middle-aged adults, in general, have fewer health problems, thus promoting adherence.

Last Answer : a) Adults 65 and over Elderly people frequently have one or more chronic illnesses that are managed with numerous medications and complicated by periodic acute episodes, making adherence difficult.

Medical management of arthropod-borne virus (arboviral) encephalitis is aimed at a) controlling seizures and increased intracranical pressure. There is no specific medication for arboviral encephalitis. Medical management is aimed at controlling seizures and increased intracranial pressure.

Description : Medical management of arthropod-borne virus (arboviral) encephalitis is aimed at a) controlling seizures and increased intracranical pressure. There is no specific medication for arboviral ... muscular atrophy. Medical management is aimed at controlling seizures and increased intracranial pressure.

Last Answer : a) controlling seizures and increased intracranical pressure. There is no specific medication for arboviral encephalitis. Medical management is aimed at controlling seizures and increased intracranial pressure.

Which of the following interventions is the single most important aspect for the patient at risk for anaphylaxis? a) Prevention People who have experienced food, medication, idiopathic, or exerciseinduced anaphylactic reactions should always carry an emergency kit containing epinephrine for injection to prevent the onset of the reaction upon exposure.

Description : Which of the following interventions is the single most important aspect for the patient at risk for anaphylaxis? a) Prevention People who have experienced food, medication, idiopathic, or ... alert bracelet will assist those rendering aid to the patient who has experienced an anaphylactic reaction

Last Answer : a) Prevention People who have experienced food, medication, idiopathic, or exerciseinduced anaphylactic reactions should always carry an emergency kit containing epinephrine for injection to prevent the onset of the reaction upon exposure.

Which type of medication may be used in the treatment of a patient with incontinence to inhibit contraction of the bladder? a) Anticholinergic agent Anticholinergic agents are considered first-line medications for urge incontinence.

Description : Which type of medication may be used in the treatment of a patient with incontinence to inhibit contraction of the bladder? a) Anticholinergic agent Anticholinergic agents are ... be treated using pseudoephedrine and phenylpropanolamine, ingredients found in over-the-counter decongestants.

Last Answer : a) Anticholinergic agent Anticholinergic agents are considered first-line medications for urge incontinence.

Which of the following medications used for the treatment of obesity prevents the absorption of triglycerides? a) Orlistat (Xenical) Orlistat (Xenical) prevents the absorption of triglycerides. Side effects of Xenical may include increased bowel movements, gas with oily discharge, decreased food absorption, decreased bile flow, and decreased absorption of some vitamins. b) bupropion hydrochloride (Wellbutrin) buproprion hydrochloride (Wellbutrin) is an antidepressant medication. c) Sibutramine hydrochoride (Meridia) Sibutramine hydrochloride (Meridia) inhibits the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephine. Meridia decreases appetite. d) Fluoxetine hydrochloride (Prozac) Fluoxetine hydrochloride (Prozac) has not been approved by the FDA for use in the treatment of obesity.

Description : Which of the following medications used for the treatment of obesity prevents the absorption of triglycerides? a) Orlistat (Xenical) Orlistat (Xenical) prevents the absorption of triglycerides. Side effects of ... (Prozac) has not been approved by the FDA for use in the treatment of obesity.

Last Answer : a) Orlistat (Xenical) Orlistat (Xenical) prevents the absorption of triglycerides. Side effects of Xenical may include increased bowel movements, gas with oily discharge, decreased food absorption, decreased bile flow, and decreased absorption of some vitamins.

For which of the following medications must the nurse contact the pharmacist in consultation when the patient receives all oral medications by feeding tube? a) Enteric-coated tablets Enteric-coated tablets are meant to be digested in the intestinal tract and may be destroyed by stomach acids. A change of form of medication is required by patients with tube feedings.

Description : For which of the following medications must the nurse contact the pharmacist in consultation when the patient receives all oral medications by feeding tube? a) Enteric-coated tablets Enteric-coated ... make an opening in the capsule and squeeze out contents for administration by feeding tube.

Last Answer : a) Enteric-coated tablets Enteric-coated tablets are meant to be digested in the intestinal tract and may be destroyed by stomach acids. A change of form of medication is required by patients with tube feedings.

Which of the following medications are used to reverse the effects of heparin? a) Protamine sulfate Protamine sulfate is known as the antagonist to heparin. b) Streptokinase Streptokinase is a thrombolytic agent. c) Clopidigrel (Plavix) Clopidigrel (Plavix) is an antiplatelet medication that is given to reduce the risk of thrombus formation post coronary stent placement. d) Aspirin The antiplatelet effect of aspirin does not reverse the effects of heparin.

Description : Which of the following medications are used to reverse the effects of heparin? a) Protamine sulfate Protamine sulfate is known as the antagonist to heparin. b) Streptokinase Streptokinase is a ... placement. d) Aspirin The antiplatelet effect of aspirin does not reverse the effects of heparin.

Last Answer : a) Protamine sulfate Protamine sulfate is known as the antagonist to heparin.

71. Before the nurse administers the medication, which of the following is most relevant for the nurse to ask?

Description : 71. Before the nurse administers the medication, which of the following is most relevant for the nurse to ask?

Last Answer : C. “When was your last menstruation?”