Which of the following medications are used to reverse the effects of heparin? a) Protamine sulfate Protamine sulfate is known as the antagonist to heparin. b) Streptokinase Streptokinase is a thrombolytic agent. c) Clopidigrel (Plavix) Clopidigrel (Plavix) is an antiplatelet medication that is given to reduce the risk of thrombus formation post coronary stent placement. d) Aspirin The antiplatelet effect of aspirin does not reverse the effects of heparin.

Which of the following medications are used to reverse the
effects of heparin?
a) Protamine sulfate
Protamine sulfate is known as the antagonist to heparin.
b) Streptokinase
Streptokinase is a thrombolytic agent.
c) Clopidigrel (Plavix)
Clopidigrel (Plavix) is an antiplatelet medication that is given to reduce
the risk of thrombus formation post coronary stent placement.
d) Aspirin
The antiplatelet effect of aspirin does not reverse the effects of
heparin.
by

1 Answer

Answer :

a) Protamine sulfate
Protamine sulfate is known as the antagonist to heparin.
by

Related questions

The antidote to heparin is a) protamine sulfate. Protamine sulfate, in the appropriate dosage, acts quickly to reverse the effects of heparin. b) vitamin K. Vitamin K is the antidote to warfarin (Coumadin). c) Narcan. Narcan is the drug used to reverse signs and symptoms of medicationinduced narcosis. d) Ipecac. Ipecac is an emetic used to treat some poisonings.

Description : The antidote to heparin is a) protamine sulfate. Protamine sulfate, in the appropriate dosage, acts quickly to reverse the effects of heparin. b) vitamin K. Vitamin K is the antidote to ... and symptoms of medicationinduced narcosis. d) Ipecac. Ipecac is an emetic used to treat some poisonings.

Last Answer : a) protamine sulfate. Protamine sulfate, in the appropriate dosage, acts quickly to reverse the effects of heparin.

Thrombolytic therapy has become a useful adjunct in the management of peripheral arterial occlusion. In this setting, direct intraarterial administration rather than intravenous has been advocated to decrease the risk of systemic bleeding. Which of the following true statement(s) concerning the use of thrombolytic agents for arterial occlusion is/are true? a. A standard technique involves infusing high-dose urokinase, 4000 units per minute for 1–2 hours, directly into the clot by a catheter embedded in the thrombus b. If progress is made, further fibrinolytic therapy is given at 1000 to 2000 units per minute until clot lysis has occurred c. The usual infusion time by the above-stated technique is usually in excess of 24 hours d. Successful clot lysis occurs more frequently in arterial graf

Description : Thrombolytic therapy has become a useful adjunct in the management of peripheral arterial occlusion. In this setting, direct intraarterial administration rather than intravenous has been advocated ... may be indicated for situations where complete clot evacuation cannot be accomplished surgically

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, e The most popular method for intraarterial thrombolytic therapy for arterial occlusion involves passing a guidewire through the thrombus with arteriographic guidance and ... acute arterial occlusion) or when distal vasculative is occluded and precludes appropriate inflow patency

Low dose subcutaneous heparin therapy is indicated for: A. Prevention of leg vein thrombosis in elderly patients undergoing abdominal surgery B. Ischaemic stroke C. Patients undergoing neurosurgery D. Prevention of extention of coronary artery thrombus in acute myocardial infarction

Description : Low dose subcutaneous heparin therapy is indicated for: A. Prevention of leg vein thrombosis in elderly patients undergoing abdominal surgery B. Ischaemic stroke C. Patients undergoing neurosurgery D. Prevention of extention of coronary artery thrombus in acute myocardial infarction

Last Answer : A. Prevention of leg vein thrombosis in eld

The termination of heparin activity by protamine sulfate is due to (a) A chelating action (b) The inhibition of gastrointestinal absorption of heparin (c) The displacement of heparin-plasma protein binding (d) An acid-base interaction (e) The prothrombin-like activity of protamine

Description : The termination of heparin activity by protamine sulfate is due to (a) A chelating action (b) The inhibition of gastrointestinal absorption of heparin (c) The displacement of heparin-plasma protein binding (d) An acid-base interaction (e) The prothrombin-like activity of protamine

Last Answer : Ans: D

The following can be used to antagonise the action of heparin in case of overdose: A. Heparan sulfate B. Dextran sulfate C. Protamine sulfate D. Ancrod

Description : The following can be used to antagonise the action of heparin in case of overdose: A. Heparan sulfate B. Dextran sulfate C. Protamine sulfate D. Ancrod

Last Answer : C. Protamine sulfate

Which type of medication may be used in the treatment of a patient with incontinence to inhibit contraction of the bladder? a) Anticholinergic agent Anticholinergic agents are considered first-line medications for urge incontinence.

Description : Which type of medication may be used in the treatment of a patient with incontinence to inhibit contraction of the bladder? a) Anticholinergic agent Anticholinergic agents are ... be treated using pseudoephedrine and phenylpropanolamine, ingredients found in over-the-counter decongestants.

Last Answer : a) Anticholinergic agent Anticholinergic agents are considered first-line medications for urge incontinence.

Which of the following medications used for the treatment of obesity prevents the absorption of triglycerides? a) Orlistat (Xenical) Orlistat (Xenical) prevents the absorption of triglycerides. Side effects of Xenical may include increased bowel movements, gas with oily discharge, decreased food absorption, decreased bile flow, and decreased absorption of some vitamins. b) bupropion hydrochloride (Wellbutrin) buproprion hydrochloride (Wellbutrin) is an antidepressant medication. c) Sibutramine hydrochoride (Meridia) Sibutramine hydrochloride (Meridia) inhibits the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephine. Meridia decreases appetite. d) Fluoxetine hydrochloride (Prozac) Fluoxetine hydrochloride (Prozac) has not been approved by the FDA for use in the treatment of obesity.

Description : Which of the following medications used for the treatment of obesity prevents the absorption of triglycerides? a) Orlistat (Xenical) Orlistat (Xenical) prevents the absorption of triglycerides. Side effects of ... (Prozac) has not been approved by the FDA for use in the treatment of obesity.

Last Answer : a) Orlistat (Xenical) Orlistat (Xenical) prevents the absorption of triglycerides. Side effects of Xenical may include increased bowel movements, gas with oily discharge, decreased food absorption, decreased bile flow, and decreased absorption of some vitamins.

Fibrinolytic therapy is based on activation of plasminogen, the inactive proteolytic enzyme of plasma that binds to fibrin during the formation of thrombosis. Activation of plasminogen to plasmin results in selective thrombolysis at the fibrin clot surface. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning agents used in thrombolytic therapy? a. Streptokinase is a bacterial protein which is antigenic in humans, resulting in allergic reactions in up to l5% of cases b. Tissue plasminogen activator acts directly on plasmin without an intermediate drug–plasmin complex c. The half-life of urokinase, streptokinase, and TPA all exceed 30 minutes d. Streptokinase is significantly cheaper than urokinase or TPA

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Last Answer : Answer: a, b, d Streptokinase is a bacterial protein produced by group C b-hemolytic streptococci. It is therefore antigenic in humans and can be associated with allergic reaction in ... one agent over the other. Streptokinase however, is markedly less expensive than either urokinase or TPA

Which of the following medications represents the category proton (gastric acid) pump inhibitors? a) Omeprazole (Prilosec) Omeprazole decreases gastric acid by slowing the hydrogenpotassium-adenosine-triphosphatase pump on the surface of the parietal cells. b) Sucralfate (Carafate) Sucralfate is a cytoprotective drug. c) Famotidine (Pepcid) Famotidine is a histamine-2 receptor antagonist. d) Metronidazole (Flagyl) Metronidazole is an antibiotic, specifically an amebicide.

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Last Answer : a) Omeprazole (Prilosec) Omeprazole decreases gastric acid by slowing the hydrogenpotassium-adenosine-triphosphatase pump on the surface of the parietal cells.

Of the following classifications of medications, which is known to inhibit prostaglandin synthesis or release? a) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) in large doses NSAIDs include aspirin and ibuprofen.

Description : Of the following classifications of medications, which is known to inhibit prostaglandin synthesis or release? a) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) in large doses NSAIDs ... to cause immunosuppression. d) Antineoplastic agents Antineoplastic agents are known to cause immunosuppression.

Last Answer : a) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) in large doses NSAIDs include aspirin and ibuprofen.

As thrombin generation proceeds, the body has natural anticoagulant systems opposing further thrombus formation. Natural anticoagulants include: a. Tissue plasminogen activator (TPA) b. Antithrombin III c. Activated protein C d. Heparin cofactor II

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Last Answer : Answer: b, c, d Just as thrombin generation is the key to coagulation, antithrombin III is the most central anticoagulant proteins. This glycoprotein binds to thrombin, preventing its removal of ... in the body. Therefore, TPA is part of the fibrinolytic system rather than a natural anticoagulant

The short acting dihydropyridine preparations can aggravate myocardial ischaemia by invoking: A. Coronary vasospasm B. Thrombus formation C. Vagal activation D. Reflex sympathetic discharge to the hear

Description : The short acting dihydropyridine preparations can aggravate myocardial ischaemia by invoking: A. Coronary vasospasm B. Thrombus formation C. Vagal activation D. Reflex sympathetic discharge to the hear

Last Answer : D. Reflex sympathetic discharge to the heart

Prostaglandins are chemical substances thought to a) increase sensitivity of pain receptors. Prostaglandins are believed to increase sensitivity to pain receptors by enhancing the pain-provoking effect of bradykinin. b) reduce the perception of pain. Endorphins and enkephalins reduce or inhibit transmission or perception of pain. c) inhibit the transmission of pain. Endorphins and enkephalins reduce or inhibit transmission or perception of pain. d) inhibit the transmission of noxious stimuli. Morphine and other opioid medications inhibit the transmission of noxious stimuli by mimicking enkephalin and endorphin.

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Last Answer : a) increase sensitivity of pain receptors. Prostaglandins are believed to increase sensitivity to pain receptors by enhancing the pain-provoking effect of bradykinin.

When the nurse observes the patient’s urine to be orange, she further assesses the patient for a) intake of medication such as phenytoin (Dilantin). Urine that is orange may be caused by intake of Dilantin or other medications. Orange to amber colored urine may also indicate concentrated urine due to dehydration or fever.

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Last Answer : a) intake of medication such as phenytoin (Dilantin). Urine that is orange may be caused by intake of Dilantin or other medications. Orange to amber colored urine may also indicate concentrated urine due to dehydration or fever.

For which of the following medications must the nurse contact the pharmacist in consultation when the patient receives all oral medications by feeding tube? a) Enteric-coated tablets Enteric-coated tablets are meant to be digested in the intestinal tract and may be destroyed by stomach acids. A change of form of medication is required by patients with tube feedings.

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Last Answer : a) Enteric-coated tablets Enteric-coated tablets are meant to be digested in the intestinal tract and may be destroyed by stomach acids. A change of form of medication is required by patients with tube feedings.

40. The nurse should ensure that all components of medications are documented. Identify all these components. 1. Dosage, route and frequency 2. Name of client and medication 3. Date and time the medication was ordered 4. Dosage, route, frequency and strength 5. Physician’s signature and specialty 6. Physician’s signature and PRC license number

Description : 40. The nurse should ensure that all components of medications are documented. Identify all these components. 1. Dosage, route and frequency 2. Name of client and medication 3. Date and time ... and strength 5. Physician's signature and specialty 6. Physician's signature and PRC license number

Last Answer : C. All except 5 and 6

A 92-year-old woman is an inpatient in the geriatric unit. She has multivascular dementia. She is more confused and agitated. She has been given lorazepam 4 mg intramuscularly. She is now unconscious with a generalized tonic clonic seizure and a respiratory rate of 6 breaths per minute. Which of the following could be used to reverse the effects of the lorazepam? A. Activated charcoal B. Flumazenil C. N-acetyl cysteine D. Naloxone E. Protamine sulphate

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Last Answer : B. Flumazenil 

Which of the following thrombolytic agents would be appropriate at this time? (a) Anisoylated plasminogen streptokinase activator complex (APSAC) (b) Streptokinase (SK) (c) Recombinant tissue-type plasminogen activator (t-PA)

Description : Which of the following thrombolytic agents would be appropriate at this time? (a) Anisoylated plasminogen streptokinase activator complex (APSAC) (b) Streptokinase (SK) (c) Recombinant tissue-type plasminogen activator (t-PA)

Last Answer : Ans: C

A diagnostic test that involves injection of a contrast media into the venous system through a dorsal vein in the foot is termed a) contrast phlebography. When a thrombus exists, an x-ray image will disclose an unfilled segment of a vein. b) air plethysmography Air plethysmography quantifies venous reflux and calf muscle pump ejection.

Description : A diagnostic test that involves injection of a contrast media into the venous system through a dorsal vein in the foot is termed a) contrast phlebography. When a thrombus exists, an x ... d) lymphoscintigraphy. In lymphoscintigraphy, a radioactive-labeled colloid is injected into the lymph system.

Last Answer : a) contrast phlebography. When a thrombus exists, an x-ray image will disclose an unfilled segment of a vein.

Which of the following methods to induce hemostasis after sheath removal post Percutaneous Transluminal Coronary Angioplasty is the least effective? a) Application of a sandbag to the area Several nursing interventions frequently used as part of the standard of care, such as applying a sandbag to the sheath insertion site, have not been shown to be effective in reducing the incidence of bleeding.

Description : Which of the following methods to induce hemostasis after sheath removal post Percutaneous Transluminal Coronary Angioplasty is the least effective? a) Application of a sandbag to the area Several ... ) Application of a pneumatic compression device post PTCA has been demonstrated to be effective

Last Answer : a) Application of a sandbag to the area Several nursing interventions frequently used as part of the standard of care, such as applying a sandbag to the sheath insertion site, have not been shown to be effective in reducing the incidence of bleeding.

Which of the following categories of medications may result in seizure activity if withdrawn suddenly? a) Tranquilizers Abrupt withdrawal of tranquilizers may result in anxiety, tension, and even seizures if withdrawn suddenly. b) Adrenal corticosteroids Abrupt withdrawal of steroids may precipitate cardiovascular collapse. c) Antidepressants Monoamine oxidase inhibitors increase the hypotensive effects of anesthetics. d) Diuretics Thiazide diuretics may cause excessive respiratory depression during anesthesia due to an associated electrolyte imbalance.

Description : Which of the following categories of medications may result in seizure activity if withdrawn suddenly? a) Tranquilizers Abrupt withdrawal of tranquilizers may result in anxiety, tension, ... may cause excessive respiratory depression during anesthesia due to an associated electrolyte imbalance.

Last Answer : a) Tranquilizers Abrupt withdrawal of tranquilizers may result in anxiety, tension, and even seizures if withdrawn suddenly.

Choose the action for which the dose of aspirin required is the lowest: A. Analgesic B. Antipyretic C. Antiinflammatory D. Antiplatelet aggregatory

Description : Choose the action for which the dose of aspirin required is the lowest: A. Analgesic B. Antipyretic C. Antiinflammatory D. Antiplatelet aggregatory

Last Answer : D. Antiplatelet aggregatory

Which of the following interventions is the single most important aspect for the patient at risk for anaphylaxis? a) Prevention People who have experienced food, medication, idiopathic, or exerciseinduced anaphylactic reactions should always carry an emergency kit containing epinephrine for injection to prevent the onset of the reaction upon exposure.

Description : Which of the following interventions is the single most important aspect for the patient at risk for anaphylaxis? a) Prevention People who have experienced food, medication, idiopathic, or ... alert bracelet will assist those rendering aid to the patient who has experienced an anaphylactic reaction

Last Answer : a) Prevention People who have experienced food, medication, idiopathic, or exerciseinduced anaphylactic reactions should always carry an emergency kit containing epinephrine for injection to prevent the onset of the reaction upon exposure.

Angioplasty and stent placement - heart?

Description : Angioplasty and stent placement - heart?

Last Answer : DefinitionAngioplasty is a procedure to open narrowed or blocked blood vessels that supply blood to the heart. These blood vessels are called the coronary arteries.A coronary artery stent is a small, metal ... procedure begins, you will be given some pain medicine. You may also be given blood thi

Angioplasty and stent placement - carotid artery?

Description : Angioplasty and stent placement - carotid artery?

Last Answer : DefinitionYou have an artery on each side of your neck called the carotid artery. This artery brings needed blood to your brain and face.The blood flow in this artery can become ... , Division of Cardiology, Harborview Medical Center, University of Washington Medical School, Seattle, Washington.

Angioplasty and stent placement - peripheral arteries?

Description : Angioplasty and stent placement - peripheral arteries?

Last Answer : DefinitionAngioplasty is a procedure to open narrowed or blocked blood vessels that supply blood to your legs. These peripheral arteries can become blocked with fatty material that builds up inside them. This ... artery to open your artery and improve blood flow.Angioplasty can be done in these a

Coronary artery stent?

Description : Coronary artery stent?

Last Answer : A coronary artery stent is a small, metal mesh tube that is placed inside a coronary artery to help keep the artery open. To place the stent, a small incision is made in the groin area to reach the artery ... School of Medicine. Also reviewed by David Zieve, MD, MHA, Medical Director, A.D.A.M., Inc.

Inserting A Coronary Artery Stent?

Description : Inserting A Coronary Artery Stent?

Last Answer : Sometimes the coronary artery becomes weakened, often due to the pressure put on it if there is a buildup of fat or other deposits nearby. Sometimes the coronary artery begins to deteriorate ... of blood, but is only one of several options available for repairing a constricted coronary artery.

Aspirin in small doses (50 to 150 mg per day) (a) Is of benefit in patients of unstable angina (b) Has thrombolytic action (c) PREFerentially inhibits prostacyclin synthetase enzyme (d) MAY Alleviate need for Verapamil in variant angina

Description : Aspirin in small doses (50 to 150 mg per day) (a) Is of benefit in patients of unstable angina (b) Has thrombolytic action (c) PREFerentially inhibits prostacyclin synthetase enzyme (d) MAY Alleviate need for Verapamil in variant angina

Last Answer : Ans: A

Which of the following is not true about warfarin, a. INR of 3 is enough to start any extraction. b. Affects extrinsic system and increases prothrombin time. c. Heparin can be given subcutaneously and acts rapidly. d. It takes at least 12 hours for Vitamin K to reverse the effects of coumarin.

Description : Which of the following is not true about warfarin, a. INR of 3 is enough to start any extraction. b. Affects extrinsic system and increases prothrombin time. c. Heparin can be given subcutaneously ... rapidly. d. It takes at least 12 hours for Vitamin K to reverse the effects of coumarin.

Last Answer : d. It takes at least 12 hours for Vitamin K to reverse the effects of coumarin.

Which of the following is not true about warfarin, ** A. INR of 3 is enough to start any extraction B. Affects extrinsic system and decreases prothrombin time C. Heparin can be given subcutaneously and acts rapidly D. It takes up to 12 hours for Vitamin K to reverse the effects of warfarin

Description : Which of the following is not true about warfarin, ** A. INR of 3 is enough to start any extraction B. Affects extrinsic system and decreases prothrombin time C. Heparin can be given subcutaneously and acts rapidly D. It takes up to 12 hours for Vitamin K to reverse the effects of warfarin

Last Answer : B. Affects extrinsic system and decreases prothrombin time

Vitamin K is indicated for the treatment of bleeding occurring in patients: A. Being treated with heparin B. Being treated with streptokinase C. Of obstructive jaundice D. Of peptic ulcer

Description : Vitamin K is indicated for the treatment of bleeding occurring in patients: A. Being treated with heparin B. Being treated with streptokinase C. Of obstructive jaundice D. Of peptic ulcer

Last Answer : C. Of obstructive jaundice

Of the following categories of medications, which is used in combination with bismuth salts to eradicate Helicobacter pylori? a) Antibiotics Antibiotics and bismuth salts are given to eradicate H. pylori. b) Antacids Antacids are given to manage gastric acidity. c) Proton pump inhibitors Proton pump inhibitors are given to decrease acid secretion. d) Histamine-2 receptor antagonists Histamine-2 receptor antagonists are given to decrease the acid secretion in the stomach.

Description : Of the following categories of medications, which is used in combination with bismuth salts to eradicate Helicobacter pylori? a) Antibiotics Antibiotics and bismuth salts are given to eradicate ... antagonists Histamine-2 receptor antagonists are given to decrease the acid secretion in the stomach.

Last Answer : a) Antibiotics Antibiotics and bismuth salts are given to eradicate H. pylori.

Of the following diuretic medications, which conserves potassium? a) Spironolactone (Aldactone) Aldactone is known as a potassium-sparing diuretic. b) Furosemide (Lasix) Lasix causes loss of potassium from the body. c) Chlorothiazide (Diuril) Diuril causes mild hypokalemia. d) Chlorthalidone (Hygroton) Hygroton causes mild hypokalemia.

Description : Of the following diuretic medications, which conserves potassium? a) Spironolactone (Aldactone) Aldactone is known as a potassium-sparing diuretic. b) Furosemide (Lasix) Lasix causes loss of ... (Diuril) Diuril causes mild hypokalemia. d) Chlorthalidone (Hygroton) Hygroton causes mild hypokalemia.

Last Answer : a) Spironolactone (Aldactone) Aldactone is known as a potassium-sparing diuretic.

In post-myocardial infarction and other high cardiovascular risk subjects but without hypertension or heart failure, prolonged ACE inhibitor medication has been found to: A. Increase the chances of sudden cardiac death B. Reduce the incidence of fatal as well as nonfatal myocardial infarction or stroke C. Lower the risk of developing heart failure and diabetes D. Both ‘B‘ and ‘C’

Description : In post-myocardial infarction and other high cardiovascular risk subjects but without hypertension or heart failure, prolonged ACE inhibitor medication has been found to: A. Increase the chances of sudden cardiac death ... Lower the risk of developing heart failure and diabetes D. Both B and C'

Last Answer : D. Both ‘B‘ and ‘C

A patient who has had a previous stroke and is taking warfarin tells the nurse that he started taking garlic to help reduce his blood pressure. The nurse knows that garlic when taken together with warfarin a) can greatly increase the international normalization ratio (INR) and therefore increase the risk of bleeding. Garlic and warfarin taken together can greatly increase the INR, increasing the risk of bleeding.

Description : A patient who has had a previous stroke and is taking warfarin tells the nurse that he started taking garlic to help reduce his blood pressure. The nurse knows that garlic when taken ... headaches. Garlic and warfarin taken together can greatly increase the INR, increasing the risk of bleeding.

Last Answer : a) can greatly increase the international normalization ratio (INR) and therefore increase the risk of bleeding. Garlic and warfarin taken together can greatly increase the INR, increasing the risk of bleeding.

To ensure patency of central venous line ports, dilute heparin flushes are used in which of the following situations? a) Daily when not in use Daily instillation of dilute heparin flush when a port is not in use will maintain the port.

Description : To ensure patency of central venous line ports, dilute heparin flushes are used in which of the following situations? a) Daily when not in use Daily instillation of dilute heparin flush when a port ... the line is discontinued Heparin flush of ports is not necessary if a line is to be discontinued.

Last Answer : a) Daily when not in use Daily instillation of dilute heparin flush when a port is not in use will maintain the port.

Heparin therapy is usually considered therapeutic when the patient’s activated partial thromboplasin time (aPTT) is how many times normal? a) 1.5 to 2 The amount of heparin administered is based on aPTT results, which should be obtained in follow-up to any alteration of dosage. b) .5 to 1 The patient’s aPTT value would have to be greater than .5 to 1 times normal to be considered therapeutic. c) 2.5 to 3 An aPTT value that is 2.5 to 3 times normal would be too high to be considered therapeutic. d) .25 to .75 The patient’s aPTT value would have to be greater than .25 to .75 times normal to be considered therapeutic.

Description : Heparin therapy is usually considered therapeutic when the patient's activated partial thromboplasin time (aPTT) is how many times normal? a) 1.5 to 2 The amount of heparin administered is based on aPTT ... value would have to be greater than .25 to .75 times normal to be considered therapeutic.

Last Answer : a) 1.5 to 2 The amount of heparin administered is based on aPTT results, which should be obtained in follow-up to any alteration of dosage.

If tube feeding is continuous, the placement of the feeding tube should be checked a) every shift. Each nurse caring for the patient is responsible for verifying that the tube is located in the proper area for continuous feeding. b) every hour. Checking for placement each hour is unnecessary unless the patient is extremely restless or there is basis for rechecking the tube based on other patient activities. c) every 24 hours. Checking for placement every 24 hours does not meet the standard of care due the patient receiving continuous tube feedings. d) when a tube feeding is continuous, it is unnecessary to check placement. Even though the feedings are continuous, the placement must be assessed.

Description : If tube feeding is continuous, the placement of the feeding tube should be checked a) every shift. Each nurse caring for the patient is responsible for verifying that the tube is located ... is unnecessary to check placement. Even though the feedings are continuous, the placement must be assessed.

Last Answer : a) every shift. Each nurse caring for the patient is responsible for verifying that the tube is located in the proper area for continuous feeding.

Mercury is typically used in the placement of which of the following tubes? a) Miller-Abbott Most nasoenteric tubes use mercury to carry the tube by gravity to its desired location. b) Gastric sump A gastric sump is used to decompress and empty the stomach. c) Dobbhoff Dobbhoff tubes are used for enteric feeding. d) EnterafloW Enteraflow tubes are used for enteric feeding

Description : Mercury is typically used in the placement of which of the following tubes? a) Miller-Abbott Most nasoenteric tubes use mercury to carry the tube by gravity to its desired location. b) ... Dobbhoff tubes are used for enteric feeding. d) EnterafloW Enteraflow tubes are used for enteric feeding

Last Answer : a) Miller-Abbott Most nasoenteric tubes use mercury to carry the tube by gravity to its desired location.

Medium -length nasoenteric tubes are used for: a) Feeding Placement of the tube must be verified prior to any feeding. b) Decompression A gastric sump and nasoenteric tube are used for gastrointestinal decompression. c) Aspiration Nasoenteric tubes are used for gastrointestinal aspiration. d) Emptying Gastric sump tubes are used to decompress the stomach and keep it empty.

Description : Medium -length nasoenteric tubes are used for: a) Feeding Placement of the tube must be verified prior to any feeding. b) Decompression A gastric sump and nasoenteric tube are used for ... aspiration. d) Emptying Gastric sump tubes are used to decompress the stomach and keep it empty.

Last Answer : a) Feeding Placement of the tube must be verified prior to any feeding.

Which of the following methods is the best method for determining nasogastric tube placement in the stomach? a) X-ray Radiologic identification of tube placement in the stomach is most reliable. b) Observation of gastric aspirate Gastric fluid may be grassy green, brown, clear, or odorless while an aspirate from the lungs may be off-white or tan. Hence, checking aspirate is not the best method of determining nasogastric tube placement in the stomach.

Description : Which of the following methods is the best method for determining nasogastric tube placement in the stomach? a) X-ray Radiologic identification of tube placement in the stomach is most reliable. ... for air bubbles is not a reliable method for determining nasogastric tube placement in the stomach.

Last Answer : a) X-ray Radiologic identification of tube placement in the stomach is most reliable.

Which of the following adrenergic inhibitors acts directly on the blood vessels, producing vasodilation? a) Prazosin hydrochloride (Minipress) Minipress is a peripheral vasodilator acting directly on the blood vessel. It is not used in angina and coronary artery disease, however, because it induces tachycardia if not preceded by administration of propranolol and a diuretic.

Description : Which of the following adrenergic inhibitors acts directly on the blood vessels, producing vasodilation? a) Prazosin hydrochloride (Minipress) Minipress is a peripheral vasodilator acting ... through centrally mediated alpha-adrenergic stimulation in the brain, producing blood pressure reduction.

Last Answer : a) Prazosin hydrochloride (Minipress) Minipress is a peripheral vasodilator acting directly on the blood vessel. It is not used in angina and coronary artery disease, however, because it induces tachycardia if not preceded by administration of propranolol and a diuretic.

Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury include which of the following? a) Age over 65 years Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury include brain contusion with subdural hematoma, skull fracture, loss of consciousness or amnesia of 1 day or more, and age over 65 years.

Description : Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury include which of the following? a) Age over 65 years Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post ... is a risk factor that increases the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury

Last Answer : a) Age over 65 years Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury include brain contusion with subdural hematoma, skull fracture, loss of consciousness or amnesia of 1 day or more, and age over 65 years.

Before the nurse can develop a relevant care plan, the nurse understands that in post-laryngectomy, the trachea and the esophagus are permanently separated. Therefore, which of the following will the nurse expect? A. No risk of aspiration during swallowing; speech is lost B. Normal speaking, breathing and swallowing are restored C. Unable to communicate with difficulty of swallowing and breathing D. Permanent tracheostomy created; normal speech is lost

Description : Before the nurse can develop a relevant care plan, the nurse understands that in post-laryngectomy, the trachea and the esophagus are permanently separated. Therefore, which of the ... with difficulty of swallowing and breathing D. Permanent tracheostomy created; normal speech is lost

Last Answer : D. Permanent tracheostomy created; normal speech is lost

The nurse teaches the patient with peripheral vascular disease to refrain from smoking because nicotine causes a) vasospasm. Nicotine causes vasospasm and can thereby dramatically reduce circulation to the extremities. b) slowed heart rate. Nicotine has stimulant effects. c) depression of the cough reflex. Nicotine does not suppress cough. Smoking irritates the bronchial tree, causing coughing. d) diuresis. Nicotine does not cause diuresis.

Description : The nurse teaches the patient with peripheral vascular disease to refrain from smoking because nicotine causes a) vasospasm. Nicotine causes vasospasm and can thereby dramatically reduce circulation to the ... the bronchial tree, causing coughing. d) diuresis. Nicotine does not cause diuresis.

Last Answer : a) vasospasm. Nicotine causes vasospasm and can thereby dramatically reduce circulation to the extremities.

Three medications referred to as the ‘ABC drugs’ are currently the main pharmacological therapy for multiple sclerosis. Which of the following statements reflects information to be included in patient teaching? a) Flu-like symptoms can be controlled with nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and usually resolve after a few months of therapy. Seventy-five percent of patients taking one of the interferons experience flu-like symptoms that can be controlled with NSAIDS and usually resolve after a few months of therapy.

Description : Three medications referred to as the ABC drugs' are currently the main pharmacological therapy for multiple sclerosis. Which of the following statements reflects information to be included in patient ... on an empty stomach. Glatiramer acetate is administed by intramuscular injection once a week.

Last Answer : a) Flu-like symptoms can be controlled with nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and usually resolve after a few months of therapy. Seventy-five percent of patients taking one of the ... symptoms that can be controlled with NSAIDS and usually resolve after a few months of therapy.

Which of the following categories of medications increases aqueous fluid outflow in the patient with glaucoma? a) Cholinergics Cholinergics increase aqueous fluid outflow by contracting the ciliary muscle, causing miosis, and opening the trabecular meshwork.

Description : Which of the following categories of medications increases aqueous fluid outflow in the patient with glaucoma? a) Cholinergics Cholinergics increase aqueous fluid outflow by contracting ... production. d) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors decrease aqueous humor production.

Last Answer : a) Cholinergics Cholinergics increase aqueous fluid outflow by contracting the ciliary muscle, causing miosis, and opening the trabecular meshwork.

Which of the following medications is categorized as a loop diuretic? a) Furosemide (Lasix) Lasix is commonly used in the treatment of cardiac failure.

Description : Which of the following medications is categorized as a loop diuretic? a) Furosemide (Lasix) Lasix is commonly used in the treatment of cardiac failure. b) Chlorothiazide (Diuril) ... thiazide diuretic. d) Spironolactone (Aldactone) Spironolactone is categorized as a potassium-sparing diuretic.

Last Answer : a) Furosemide (Lasix) Lasix is commonly used in the treatment of cardiac failure.