The percentage of patients over the age of 70 admitted to the hospital with delirium is about a) 25%. About 25% of patients over the age of 70 admitted to the hospital have delirium. The cause is often reversible and treatable (as in drug toxicity, vitamin B12 deficiency or thyroid disease) or chronic and irreversible. Depression may produce impairment of attention and memory.

The percentage of patients over the age of 70 admitted to the
hospital with delirium is about
a) 25%.
About 25% of patients over the age of 70 admitted to the hospital
have delirium. The cause is often reversible and treatable (as in drug
toxicity, vitamin B12 deficiency or thyroid disease) or chronic and
irreversible. Depression may produce impairment of attention and
memory.
b) 10%.
About 25% of patients over the age of 70 admitted to the hospital
have delirium.
c) 40%.
About 25% of patients over the age of 70 admitted to the hospital
have delirium.
d) 50%.
About 25% of patients over the age of 70 admitted to the hospital
have delirium.
by

1 Answer

Answer :

a) 25%.
About 25% of patients over the age of 70 admitted to the hospital
have delirium. The cause is often reversible and treatable (as in drug
toxicity, vitamin B12 deficiency or thyroid disease) or chronic and
irreversible. Depression may produce impairment of attention and
memory.
by

Related questions

Which of the following states is characterized by a decline in intellectual functioning? a) Dementia Dementia is an acquired syndrome in which progressive deterioration in global intellectual abilities is of such severity that it interferes with the person’s customary occupational and social performance. b) Depression Depression is a mood disorder that disrupts quality of life. c) Delirium Delirium is often called acute confusional state. d) Delusion Delusion is a symptom of psychoses.

Description : Which of the following states is characterized by a decline in intellectual functioning? a) Dementia Dementia is an acquired syndrome in which progressive deterioration in global intellectual abilities is of ... is often called acute confusional state. d) Delusion Delusion is a symptom of psychoses.

Last Answer : a) Dementia Dementia is an acquired syndrome in which progressive deterioration in global intellectual abilities is of such severity that it interferes with the person’s customary occupational and social performance.

Decrease in absorption of which of the following vitamins in the geriatric patient results in pernicious anemia? a) B12 Vitamin B12 requires the intrinsic factor secreted by the gastric mucosa for absorption. b) C Lack of vitamin C may cause development of signs and symptoms of scurvy. c) D Vitamin D deficiency results in an inability to absorb calcium. d) B6 Vitamin B6 affects neuromuscular function.

Description : Decrease in absorption of which of the following vitamins in the geriatric patient results in pernicious anemia? a) B12 Vitamin B12 requires the intrinsic factor secreted by the gastric mucosa for ... results in an inability to absorb calcium. d) B6 Vitamin B6 affects neuromuscular function.

Last Answer : a) B12 Vitamin B12 requires the intrinsic factor secreted by the gastric mucosa for absorption.

Ethambutol is not used in children below 6 years of age because: A. Young children are intolerant to ethambutol B. Ethambutol causes growth retardation in young children C. It is difficult to detect ethambutol induced visual impairment in young children D. In young children visual toxicity of ethambutol is irreversible

Description : Ethambutol is not used in children below 6 years of age because: A. Young children are intolerant to ethambutol B. Ethambutol causes growth retardation in young children C. It is ... induced visual impairment in young children D. In young children visual toxicity of ethambutol is irreversible

Last Answer : C. It is difficult to detect ethambutol induced visual impairment in young children

Which of the following is a reversible cause of urinary incontinence in the older adult? a) Constipation. Constipation is a reversible cause of urinary incontinence in the older adult. Other reversible causes include acute urinary tract infection, infection elsewhere in the body, decreased fluid intake, a change in a chronic disease pattern, and decreased estrogen levels in the menopausal women.

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Last Answer : a) Constipation. Constipation is a reversible cause of urinary incontinence in the older adult. Other reversible causes include acute urinary tract infection, infection elsewhere in the body, decreased ... a change in a chronic disease pattern, and decreased estrogen levels in the menopausal women.

Which of the following reflect the pathophysiology of cutaneous signs of HIV disease? a) Immune function deterioration Cutaneous signs may be the first manifestations of HIV, appearing in more than 90 per cent of HIV infected patients as the immune function deteriorates. Common complaints include pruritis, folliculitis, and chronic actinic dermatitis.

Description : Which of the following reflect the pathophysiology of cutaneous signs of HIV disease? a) Immune function deterioration Cutaneous signs may be the first manifestations of HIV, appearing in more ... Decrease in normal skin flora Cutaneous signs of HIV disease appear as immune function deteriorates.

Last Answer : a) Immune function deterioration Cutaneous signs may be the first manifestations of HIV, appearing in more than 90 per cent of HIV infected patients as the immune function deteriorates. Common complaints include pruritis, folliculitis, and chronic actinic dermatitis.

Emphysema is described as: a) A disease of the airways characterized by destruction of the walls of overdistended alveoli. Emphysema is a category of COPD. b) A disease that results in a common clinical outcome of reversible airflow obstruction. Asthma is the disease described. c) The presence of cough and sputum production for at least a combined total of two or three months in each of two consecutive years. Bronchitis is the disease described. d) Chronic dilatation of a bronchus or bronchi Bronchiectasis is the condition described.

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Last Answer : a) A disease of the airways characterized by destruction of the walls of overdistended alveoli. Emphysema is a category of COPD.

51. Albert came to the hospital with chest pain and fever. After a thorough assessment by the doctor, he was admitted for pericarditis management. The nurse positions the client to reduce pain and discomfort. Describe this position.

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Last Answer : C. Sit the client upright and lean forward

Which of the following statements describes benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)? a) The vertigo is usually accompanied by nausea and vomiting; however hearing impairment does not generally occur. BPPV is a brief period of incapacitating vertigo that occurs when the position of the patient’s head is changed with respect to gravity. The vertigo is usually accompanied by nausea and vomiting; however hearing impairment does not generally occur.

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Last Answer : a) The vertigo is usually accompanied by nausea and vomiting; however hearing impairment does not generally occur. BPPV is a brief period of incapacitating vertigo that occurs when the ... vertigo is usually accompanied by nausea and vomiting; however hearing impairment does not generally occur.

The standard management oral anticoagulant therapy for chronic treatment of venous thromboembolism is with the drug warfarin. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the administration of warfarin? a. An important complication of warfarin therapy is skin necrosis in patients with protein C deficiency b. Warfarin interferes with vitamin K dependent clotting factors II, VII, IX, X c. For effective anticoagulation the prothrombin time (PT) should be kept at 2 control d. It is recommended that warfarin be continued for at least one year after initial episode of deep venous thrombosis

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Last Answer : Answer: a, b Warfarin interferes with the vitamin K dependent clotting factors II, VII, IX and X, protein C, and protein S. An important complication of warfarin is skin ... the benefit from anticoagulant therapy and thus is the basis for discontinuing warfarin administration at this time

Which of the following is the most important risk factor for development of Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease? a) Cigarette smoking Pipe, cigar and other types of tobacco smoking are also risk factors. b) Occupational exposure While a risk factor, occupational exposure is not the most important risk factor for development of COPD. c) Air pollution Air pollution is a risk factor for development of COPD, but it is not the most important risk factor. d) Genetic abnormalities A deficiency of alpha-antitrypsin is a risk factor for development of COPD, but it is not the most important risk factor.

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Last Answer : a) Cigarette smoking Pipe, cigar and other types of tobacco smoking are also risk factors.

Metformin is preferred over phenformin because: A. It is more potent B. It is less liable to cause lactic acidosis C. It does not interfere with vitamin B12 absorption D. It is not contraindicated in patients with kidney disease

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Which of the following statements reflect current research regarding the utilization of non-pharmacological measures in the management of burn pain? a) Music therapy may provide reality orientation, distraction, and sensory stimulation. Researchers have found that music affects both the physiologic and psychological aspects of the pain experience. Music diverts the patient’s attention away from the painful stimulus. Music may also provide reality orientation, distraction, and sensory stimulation. It also allows for patient self-expression.

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The individual who demonstrates displacement of the sternum is described as having a a) pigeon chest. Pigeon chest may occur with rickets, Marfan’s syndrome, or severe kyphoscoliosis. b) barrel chest. A barrel chest is seen in patients with emphysema as a result of overinflation of the lungs. c) funnel chest. A funnel chest occurs when there is a depression in the lower portion of the sternum. d) kyphoscoliosis. Kyphoscoliosis is characterized by elevation of the scapula and a corresponding S-shaped spine.

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Korsakoff’s syndrome is characterized by a) psychosis, disorientation, delirium, insomnia, and hallucinations. Korsakoff’s syndrome is a personality disorder characterized by psychosis, disorientation, delirium, insomnia, and hallucinations.

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The nurse anticipates that the immunosuppressed patient is at greatest risk for which type of shock? a) Septic Septic shock is associated with immunosuppression, extremes of age, malnourishment, chronic illness, and invasive procedures. b) Neurogenic Neurogenic shock is associated with spinal cord injury and anesthesia. c) Cardiogenic Cardiogenic shock is associated with disease of the heart. d) Anaphylactic Anaphylactic shock is associated with hypersensitivity reactions.

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Which of the following diseases is a chronic, degenerative, progressive disease of the central nervous system characterized by the occurrence of small patches of demyelination in the brain and spinal cord? a) Multiple sclerosis The cause of MS is not known and the disease affects twice as many women as men.

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Which of the following factors are associated with increased fluid requirements in the management of patients with burn injury? a) Inhalation injuries Factors associated with increased fluid requirements include inhalation injuries, delayed resuscitation, scald burn injuries, high-voltage electrical injuries, hyperglycemia, alcohol intoxification and chronic diuretic therapy.

Description : Which of the following factors are associated with increased fluid requirements in the management of patients with burn injury? a) Inhalation injuries Factors associated with increased fluid ... fluid requirements. d) Hypoglycemia Hypoglycemia is not associated with increased fluid requirements.

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Osteoarthritis is known as a disease that a) is the most common and frequently disabling of joint disorders. The functional impact of osteoarthritis on quality of life, especially for elderly patients, is often ignored.

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While making your PM shift endorsement, you saw the nursing attendant receiving a package from a patient’s watcher. Your appropriate action would be A. Reprimand the nursing attendant right away B. Remind the patient that gift giving to any hospital staff is not allowed C. Review with the nursing attendant the hospital policy D. Endorse to the incoming shift for proper action

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Last Answer : D. Endorse to the incoming shift for proper action

When up to a 6-month period elapses between the experience of trauma and the onset of symptoms of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD), the episode is termed a) delayed. In the case of delayed PTSD, there may be up to a 6-month period of time that elapses between the trauma and the manifestation of symptoms. b) acute. Acute PTSD is defined as the experience of symptoms for less than a 3-month period. c) chronic. Chronic PTSD is defined as the experience of symptoms lasting longer than 3 months. d) primary. The concept of primary disease is not used in relation to PTSD.

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Last Answer : a) delayed. In the case of delayed PTSD, there may be up to a 6-month period of time that elapses between the trauma and the manifestation of symptoms.

The nurse teaches the patient with peripheral vascular disease to refrain from smoking because nicotine causes a) vasospasm. Nicotine causes vasospasm and can thereby dramatically reduce circulation to the extremities. b) slowed heart rate. Nicotine has stimulant effects. c) depression of the cough reflex. Nicotine does not suppress cough. Smoking irritates the bronchial tree, causing coughing. d) diuresis. Nicotine does not cause diuresis.

Description : The nurse teaches the patient with peripheral vascular disease to refrain from smoking because nicotine causes a) vasospasm. Nicotine causes vasospasm and can thereby dramatically reduce circulation to the ... the bronchial tree, causing coughing. d) diuresis. Nicotine does not cause diuresis.

Last Answer : a) vasospasm. Nicotine causes vasospasm and can thereby dramatically reduce circulation to the extremities.

Palliation refers to a) relief of symptoms associated with cancer. Palliation is the goal for care in terminal cancer patients. b) hair loss. Alopecia is the term that refers to hair loss. c) the spread of cancer cells from the primary tumor to distant sites. Metastasis is the term that refers to the spread of cancer cells from the primary tumor to distant sites. d) the lowest point of white blood cell depression after therapy that has toxic effects on the bone marrow. Nadir is the term that refers to the lowest point of white blood cell depression after therapy that has toxic effects on the bone marrow.

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Last Answer : a) relief of symptoms associated with cancer. Palliation is the goal for care in terminal cancer patients.

Nonadherence to therapeutic regimens is a significant problem for which of the following age groups? a) Adults 65 and over Elderly people frequently have one or more chronic illnesses that are managed with numerous medications and complicated by periodic acute episodes, making adherence difficult. b) Teenagers Problems of teenagers, generally, are time limited and specific, and require promoting adherence to treatment to return to health. c) Children In general, the compliance of children depends on the compliance of their parents. d) Middle-aged adults Middle-aged adults, in general, have fewer health problems, thus promoting adherence.

Description : Nonadherence to therapeutic regimens is a significant problem for which of the following age groups? a) Adults 65 and over Elderly people frequently have one or more chronic illnesses that are ... -aged adults Middle-aged adults, in general, have fewer health problems, thus promoting adherence.

Last Answer : a) Adults 65 and over Elderly people frequently have one or more chronic illnesses that are managed with numerous medications and complicated by periodic acute episodes, making adherence difficult.

When measuring the blood pressure in each of the patient’s arms, the nurse recognizes that in the normal adult, the pressures a) differ no more than 5 mm Hg between arm pressures. Normally, in the absence of disease of the vasculature, there is a difference of no more than 5 mm Hg between arm pressures. b) must be equal in both arms. The pressures in each arm do not have to be equal in order to be considered normal. c) may vary 10 mm Hg or more between arms. Pressures that vary more than 10 mm Hg between arms indicate an abnormal finding. d) may vary, with the higher pressure found in the left arm. The left arm pressure is not anticipated to be higher than the right as a normal anatomical variant.

Description : When measuring the blood pressure in each of the patient's arms, the nurse recognizes that in the normal adult, the pressures a) differ no more than 5 mm Hg between arm pressures. Normally, in ... . The left arm pressure is not anticipated to be higher than the right as a normal anatomical variant.

Last Answer : a) differ no more than 5 mm Hg between arm pressures. Normally, in the absence of disease of the vasculature, there is a difference of no more than 5 mm Hg between arm pressures.

For individuals known to be dying by virtue of age and/or diagnoses, which of the following signs indicate approaching death: a) Increased restlessness As the oxygen supply to the brain decreases, the patient may become restless. b) Increased wakefulness As the body weakens, the patient will sleep more and begin to detach from the environment. c) Increased eating For many patients, refusal of food is an indication that they are ready to die. d) Increased urinary output Based upon decreased intake, urinary output generally decreases in amount and frequency.

Description : For individuals known to be dying by virtue of age and/or diagnoses, which of the following signs indicate approaching death: a) Increased restlessness As the oxygen supply to the ... Increased urinary output Based upon decreased intake, urinary output generally decreases in amount and frequency.

Last Answer : a) Increased restlessness As the oxygen supply to the brain decreases, the patient may become restless.

Which of the following categories of medications may result in seizure activity if withdrawn suddenly? a) Tranquilizers Abrupt withdrawal of tranquilizers may result in anxiety, tension, and even seizures if withdrawn suddenly. b) Adrenal corticosteroids Abrupt withdrawal of steroids may precipitate cardiovascular collapse. c) Antidepressants Monoamine oxidase inhibitors increase the hypotensive effects of anesthetics. d) Diuretics Thiazide diuretics may cause excessive respiratory depression during anesthesia due to an associated electrolyte imbalance.

Description : Which of the following categories of medications may result in seizure activity if withdrawn suddenly? a) Tranquilizers Abrupt withdrawal of tranquilizers may result in anxiety, tension, ... may cause excessive respiratory depression during anesthesia due to an associated electrolyte imbalance.

Last Answer : a) Tranquilizers Abrupt withdrawal of tranquilizers may result in anxiety, tension, and even seizures if withdrawn suddenly.

When the patient who has experienced trauma to an extremity complains of severe burning pain, vasomotor changes, and muscles spasms in the injured extremity, the nurse recognizes that the patient is likely demonstrating signs of a) reflex sympathetic dystrophy syndrome. RSD is frequently chronic and occurs most often in women.

Description : When the patient who has experienced trauma to an extremity complains of severe burning pain, vasomotor changes, and muscles spasms in the injured extremity, the nurse ... heterotrophic ossification. Heterotrophic ossification causes muscular pain and limited muscular contraction and movement.

Last Answer : a) reflex sympathetic dystrophy syndrome. RSD is frequently chronic and occurs most often in women.

Which of the following statements accurately describes cancer of the esophagus? a) Chronic irritation of the esophagus is a known risk factor. In the United States, cancer of the esophagus has been associated with the ingestion of alcohol and the use of tobacco. b) It is three times more common in women in the U.S. than men. In the United States, carcinoma of the esophagus occurs more than three times as often in men as in women. c) It is seen more frequently in Caucasians than in African Americans. It is seen more frequently in African Americans than in Caucasians. d) It usually occurs in the fourth decade of life. It usually occurs in the fifth decade of life.

Description : Which of the following statements accurately describes cancer of the esophagus? a) Chronic irritation of the esophagus is a known risk factor. In the United States, cancer of the esophagus has been associated ... occurs in the fourth decade of life. It usually occurs in the fifth decade of life.

Last Answer : a) Chronic irritation of the esophagus is a known risk factor. In the United States, cancer of the esophagus has been associated with the ingestion of alcohol and the use of tobacco.

43. Mr. Gomez, 71 years old, has a history of chronic back pain. He thinks that his family perceives him as a “weakling” because he often asks for pain medication. Which of the following is the most therapeutic response of the nurse?

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Last Answer : A. “It seems that you are worried. Which matter to you more? What people will say or getting relief from your pain?”

Which type of glaucoma presents an ocular emergency? a) Acute angle-closure glaucoma Acute angle-closure glaucoma results in rapid progressive visual impairment.

Description : Which type of glaucoma presents an ocular emergency? a) Acute angle-closure glaucoma Acute angle-closure glaucoma results in rapid progressive visual impairment. b) Normal tension glaucoma Normal tension ... is treated initially with topical medications, with oral medications added at a later time.

Last Answer : a) Acute angle-closure glaucoma Acute angle-closure glaucoma results in rapid progressive visual impairment.

Which of the following statements accurately describes a risk factor for depression? a) History of physical or sexual abuse History of physical or sexual abuse and current substance abuse are risk factors for depression. b) Male gender A risk factor for depression is female gender. c) Age over 50 years A risk factor for depression is onset before 40 years. d) Negative family history of depression Family history of depression is a risk factor.

Description : Which of the following statements accurately describes a risk factor for depression? a) History of physical or sexual abuse History of physical or sexual abuse and current substance abuse are risk ... years. d) Negative family history of depression Family history of depression is a risk factor.

Last Answer : a) History of physical or sexual abuse History of physical or sexual abuse and current substance abuse are risk factors for depression.

The main advantage of ketorolac over aspirin is that ketorolac (a) Can be combined more safely with an opioid such as codeine (b) Can be obtained as an over-the-counter agent (c) Does not prolong the bleeding time (d) Is available in a parenteral formulation that can be injected intramuscularly or intravenously (e) Is less likely to cause acute renal failure in patients with some preexisting degree of renal impairment

Description : The main advantage of ketorolac over aspirin is that ketorolac (a) Can be combined more safely with an opioid such as codeine (b) Can be obtained as an over-the-counter agent (c) Does not ... (e) Is less likely to cause acute renal failure in patients with some preexisting degree of renal impairment

Last Answer : Ans: D

Degenerative neurologic disorders include which of the following? a) Huntington’s disease Huntington’s disease is a chronic, progressive, degenerative neurologic hereditary disease of the nervous system that results in progressive involuntary choreiform movement and dementia.

Description : Degenerative neurologic disorders include which of the following? a) Huntington's disease Huntington's disease is a chronic, progressive, degenerative neurologic hereditary disease of the nervous system that results in ... the bone. d) Glioma Malignant glioma is the most common type of brain tumor.

Last Answer : a) Huntington’s disease Huntington’s disease is a chronic, progressive, degenerative neurologic hereditary disease of the nervous system that results in progressive involuntary choreiform movement and dementia.

Which of the following diseases is a chronic, progressive, hereditary disease of the nervous system that results in progressive involuntary dance-like movement and dementia? a) Huntington’s disease Because it is transmitted as an autosomal dominant genetic disorder, each child of a parent with HD has a 50% risk of inheriting the illness.

Description : Which of the following diseases is a chronic, progressive, hereditary disease of the nervous system that results in progressive involuntary dance-like movement and dementia? a) Huntington's ... the central nervous system characterized by spongiform degeneration of the gray matter of the brain.

Last Answer : a) Huntington’s disease Because it is transmitted as an autosomal dominant genetic disorder, each child of a parent with HD has a 50% risk of inheriting the illness.

Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for transient ischemic attacks and ischemic strokes? a) History of smoking. Modifiable risk factors for TIAs and ischemic stroke include hypertension, Type 1 diabetes, cardiac disease, history of smoking, and chronic alcoholism.

Description : Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for transient ischemic attacks and ischemic strokes? a) History of smoking. Modifiable risk factors for TIAs and ischemic stroke include hypertension, Type ... ) Advanced age Advanced age, gender, and race are non-modifiable risk factors for stroke.

Last Answer : a) History of smoking. Modifiable risk factors for TIAs and ischemic stroke include hypertension, Type 1 diabetes, cardiac disease, history of smoking, and chronic alcoholism.

Which of the following terms is used to describe a chronic liver disease in which scar tissue surrounds the portal areas? a) Alcoholic cirrhosis This type of cirrhosis is due to chronic alcoholism and is the most common type of cirrhosis.

Description : Which of the following terms is used to describe a chronic liver disease in which scar tissue surrounds the portal areas? a) Alcoholic cirrhosis This type of cirrhosis is due to chronic alcoholism and ... to the state of liver disease in which the liver continues to be able to function effectively.

Last Answer : a) Alcoholic cirrhosis This type of cirrhosis is due to chronic alcoholism and is the most common type of cirrhosis.

Disease caused due to deficiency of vitamin B12

Description : Disease caused due to deficiency of vitamin B12

Last Answer : Ans. Pernicious anaemia

The disease Beni Beni is caused due to the deficiency of which of the following? (1) Vitamin B2 (2) Vitamin B1 (3) Vitamin B12 (4) Vitamin E

Description : The disease Beni Beni is caused due to the deficiency of which of the following? (1) Vitamin B2 (2) Vitamin B1 (3) Vitamin B12 (4) Vitamin E

Last Answer : (2) Vitamin B1 Explanation: Beriberi is a disease caused by a vitamin B1 (thiamine) deficiency. There are two types of the disease: wet beriberi and dry beriberi. Wet beriberi affects the heart ... -beri damages the nerves and can lead to a loss of muscle strength and eventually, muscle paralysis.

The disease Beri Beri is caused due to the deficiency of which of the following? (1) Vitamin B2 (2) Vitamin B1 (3) Vitamin B12 (4) Vitamin E

Description : The disease Beri Beri is caused due to the deficiency of which of the following? (1) Vitamin B2 (2) Vitamin B1 (3) Vitamin B12 (4) Vitamin E

Last Answer : (2) Vitamin B1 Explanation: Beriberi is a disease caused by a vitamin B1 (thiamine) deficiency. There are two types of the disease: wet beriberi and dry beriberi.

Which vitamin deficiency causes the disease, Pernicious anaemia? (1) Vitamin B5 (2) Vitamin B12 (3) Vitamin B6 (4) Vitamin C

Description : Which vitamin deficiency causes the disease, Pernicious anaemia? (1) Vitamin B5 (2) Vitamin B12 (3) Vitamin B6 (4) Vitamin C

Last Answer : (2) Vitamin B12 Explanation: Pernicious anemia is one of many types of the larger family of megaloblastic anemias. It is caused by loss of gastric parietal cells which are responsible, in ... secretion of intrinsic factor, a protein essential for subsequent absorption of vitamin B12 in the ileum.

The haemorrhagic disease of new born is caused due to the deficiency of (a) vitamin K (b) vitamin B12 (c) vitamin A (d) vitamin B1.

Description : The haemorrhagic disease of new born is caused due to the deficiency of (a) vitamin K (b) vitamin B12 (c) vitamin A (d) vitamin B1.

Last Answer : (a) vitamin K

The disease Beri Beri is caused due to the deficiency of which of the following? (1) Vitamin B2 (2) Vitamin B1 (3) Vitamin B12 (4) Vitamin E

Description : The disease Beri Beri is caused due to the deficiency of which of the following? (1) Vitamin B2 (2) Vitamin B1 (3) Vitamin B12 (4) Vitamin E

Last Answer : Vitamin B1 

Which vitamin deficiency causes the disease, Pernicious anaemia ? (1) Vitamin B5 (2) Vitamin B12 (3) Vitamin B6 (4) Vitamin C

Description : Which vitamin deficiency causes the disease, Pernicious anaemia ? (1) Vitamin B5 (2) Vitamin B12 (3) Vitamin B6 (4) Vitamin C

Last Answer : Vitamin B12

Scurvy is a disease which is caused due to the deficiency of vitamin (1) A (2) K (3) C (4) B12

Description : Scurvy is a disease which is caused due to the deficiency of vitamin (1) A (2) K (3) C (4) B12

Last Answer : C