Of the following areas for assessing the patient profile, which should be addressed after the others? a) Body image The patient is often less anxious when the interview progresses from information that is less personal to information that is more personal. b) Education Educational level is relatively impersonal and readily revealed by the patient. c) Occupation Occupation is relatively impersonal and readily revealed by the patient. d) Environment Housing, religion, and language are relatively impersonal and readily revealed by the patient.

Of the following areas for assessing the patient profile, which
should be addressed after the others?
a) Body image
The patient is often less anxious when the interview progresses from
information that is less personal to information that is more personal.
b) Education
Educational level is relatively impersonal and readily revealed by the
patient.
c) Occupation
Occupation is relatively impersonal and readily revealed by the patient.
d) Environment
Housing, religion, and language are relatively impersonal and readily
revealed by the patient.
by

1 Answer

Answer :

a) Body image
The patient is often less anxious when the interview progresses from
information that is less personal to information that is more personal.
by

Related questions

In assessing the appropriateness of removing a suprapubic catheter, the nurse recognizes that the patient’s residual urine must be less than which of the following amounts on two separate occasions (morning and evening)? a) 100 cc If the patient complains of discomfort or pain, however, the suprapubic catheter is usually left in place until the patient can void successfully.

Description : In assessing the appropriateness of removing a suprapubic catheter, the nurse recognizes that the patient's residual urine must be less than which of the following amounts on two separate occasions ... urine that is greater than 100 cc indicates that the suprapubic catheter cannot be discontinued.

Last Answer : a) 100 cc If the patient complains of discomfort or pain, however, the suprapubic catheter is usually left in place until the patient can void successfully.

Regarding oral cancer, the nurse provides health teaching to inform the patient that a) many oral cancers produce no symptoms in the early stages. As the cancer progresses, the patient may complain of tenderness or difficulty in chewing, swallowing, or speaking.

Description : Regarding oral cancer, the nurse provides health teaching to inform the patient that a) many oral cancers produce no symptoms in the early stages. As the cancer progresses, the patient may complain of ... crater-like. A typical lesion in oral cancer is a painless hardened ulcer with raised edges.

Last Answer : a) many oral cancers produce no symptoms in the early stages. As the cancer progresses, the patient may complain of tenderness or difficulty in chewing, swallowing, or speaking.

When assessing the older adult, the nurse anticipates increase in which of the follow components of respiratory status? a) Residual lung volume As a result, patient experience fatigue and breathlessness with sustained activity. b) Vital capacity The nurse anticipates decreased vital capacity. c) Gas exchange and diffusing capacity The nurse anticipates decreased gas exchange and diffusing capacity resulting in impaired healing of tissues due to decreased oxygenation. d) Cough efficiency The nurse anticipates difficulty coughing up secretions due to decreased cough efficiency.

Description : When assessing the older adult, the nurse anticipates increase in which of the follow components of respiratory status? a) Residual lung volume As a result, patient experience fatigue ... ) Cough efficiency The nurse anticipates difficulty coughing up secretions due to decreased cough efficiency.

Last Answer : a) Residual lung volume As a result, patient experience fatigue and breathlessness with sustained activity.

In which phase of the trajectory model of chronic illness are the symptoms under control and managed? a) Stable The stable phase indicates that the symptoms and disability are under control or managed. b) Acute The acute phase is characterized by sudden onset of severe or unrelieved symptoms or complications that may necessitate hospitalization for their management. c) Comeback The comeback phase is the period in the trajectory marked by recovery after an acute period. d) Downward The downward phase occurs when symptoms worsen or the disability progresses despite attempts to control the course through proper management.

Description : In which phase of the trajectory model of chronic illness are the symptoms under control and managed? a) Stable The stable phase indicates that the symptoms and disability are under ... symptoms worsen or the disability progresses despite attempts to control the course through proper management.

Last Answer : a) Stable The stable phase indicates that the symptoms and disability are under control or managed.

Which among the following is not a feature of village? A. Less population B. Less diversity C. Impersonal relationship D. Predominance of primary occupation

Description : Which among the following is not a feature of village? A. Less population B. Less diversity C. Impersonal relationship D. Predominance of primary occupation

Last Answer : C. Impersonal relationship

A Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 7 or less is generally interpreted as a) coma. The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a tool for assessing a patient’s response to stimuli. A score of 7 or less is generally interpreted as coma.

Description : A Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 7 or less is generally interpreted as a) coma. The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a tool for assessing a patient's response to stimuli. A score of 7 or ... 3 is interpreted as least responsive. d) most responsive. A GCS score of 15 is interpreted as most responsive.

Last Answer : a) coma. The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a tool for assessing a patient’s response to stimuli. A score of 7 or less is generally interpreted as coma.

Which of the following statements accurately reflects a rule of thumb upon which the nurse may rely in assessing the patient’s fluid balance? a) Minimal intake of 1.5 liters per day If food and fluids are withheld, IV fluids (3L/day) are usually prescribed. b) Minimal urine output of 50 milliliters per hour Minimal urine output may be less than 50 mL/hr. c) Minimal urine output of 10 milliliters per hour Minimal urine output must exceed 10 mL/hr. d) Minimal intake of 2 liters per day Minimal intake, as a rule of thumb, is less than 2 liters per day.

Description : Which of the following statements accurately reflects a rule of thumb upon which the nurse may rely in assessing the patient's fluid balance? a) Minimal intake of 1.5 liters per day If food and fluids are ... 2 liters per day Minimal intake, as a rule of thumb, is less than 2 liters per day.

Last Answer : a) Minimal intake of 1.5 liters per day If food and fluids are withheld, IV fluids (3L/day) are usually prescribed.

The nurse recognizes that the patient with a duodenal ulcer will likely experience a) pain 2-3 hours after a meal. The patient with a gastric ulcer often awakens between 1-2 A.M. with pain and ingestion of food brings relief. b) vomiting. Vomiting is uncommon in the patient with duodenal ulcer. c) hemorrhage. Hemorrhage is less likely in the patient with duodenal ulcer than the patient with gastric ulcer. d) weight loss. The patient with a duodenal ulcer may experience weight gain.

Description : The nurse recognizes that the patient with a duodenal ulcer will likely experience a) pain 2-3 hours after a meal. The patient with a gastric ulcer often awakens between 1-2 A.M. with pain ... patient with gastric ulcer. d) weight loss. The patient with a duodenal ulcer may experience weight gain.

Last Answer : a) pain 2-3 hours after a meal. The patient with a gastric ulcer often awakens between 1-2 A.M. with pain and ingestion of food brings relief.

For individuals known to be dying by virtue of age and/or diagnoses, which of the following signs indicate approaching death: a) Increased restlessness As the oxygen supply to the brain decreases, the patient may become restless. b) Increased wakefulness As the body weakens, the patient will sleep more and begin to detach from the environment. c) Increased eating For many patients, refusal of food is an indication that they are ready to die. d) Increased urinary output Based upon decreased intake, urinary output generally decreases in amount and frequency.

Description : For individuals known to be dying by virtue of age and/or diagnoses, which of the following signs indicate approaching death: a) Increased restlessness As the oxygen supply to the ... Increased urinary output Based upon decreased intake, urinary output generally decreases in amount and frequency.

Last Answer : a) Increased restlessness As the oxygen supply to the brain decreases, the patient may become restless.

Which of the following patient behaviors, if observed by the nurse, would indicate that the cardiac patient’s level of anxiety has decreased? a) Answers questions regarding status with no problem. Generally, when anxiety begins to increase, the patient will be less likely to want to discuss prognosis.

Description : Which of the following patient behaviors, if observed by the nurse, would indicate that the cardiac patient's level of anxiety has decreased? a) Answers questions regarding status with ... in support groups. Participation in support groups indicates some degree of comfort with prognosis.

Last Answer : a) Answers questions regarding status with no problem. Generally, when anxiety begins to increase, the patient will be less likely to want to discuss prognosis.

The nurse teaches the parent of the child with chickenpox that the child is no longer contagious to others when a) the vesicles and pustules have crusted. When the lesions have crusted, the patient is no longer contagious to others.

Description : The nurse teaches the parent of the child with chickenpox that the child is no longer contagious to others when a) the vesicles and pustules have crusted. When the lesions have crusted, the ... , and pustules appear. The child remains contagious when the rash is changing into vesicles and pustules.

Last Answer : a) the vesicles and pustules have crusted. When the lesions have crusted, the patient is no longer contagious to others.

Which of the following “awareness contexts” is characterized by the patient, the family, and the health care professionals being aware that the patient is dying but all pretend otherwise? a) Mutual pretense awareness In mutual pretense awareness, the patient, the family and the health care professionals are aware that the patient is dying but all pretend otherwise. b) Closed awareness In closed awareness, the patient is unaware of his terminality in a context where others are aware. c) Suspected awareness In suspected awareness, the patient suspects what others know and attempts to find it out. d) Open awareness In open awareness, all are aware that the patient is dying and are able to openly acknowledge that reality.

Description : Which of the following awareness contexts is characterized by the patient, the family, and the health care professionals being aware that the patient is dying but all pretend otherwise? a) Mutual ... , all are aware that the patient is dying and are able to openly acknowledge that reality.

Last Answer : a) Mutual pretense awareness In mutual pretense awareness, the patient, the family and the health care professionals are aware that the patient is dying but all pretend otherwise.

Health education of the patient by the nurse a) Is an independent function of nursing practice. Health education is an independent function of nursing practice and is included in all state nurse practice acts. b) Requires a physician’s order. Teaching, as a function of nursing, is included in all state nurse practice acts. c) Must be approved by the physician. Health education is a primary responsibility of the nursing profession. d) Must focus on wellness issues. Health education by the nurse focuses on promoting, maintaining, and restoring health; preventing illness; and assisting people to adapt to the residual effects of illness.

Description : Health education of the patient by the nurse a) Is an independent function of nursing practice. Health education is an independent function of nursing practice and is included in all state ... restoring health; preventing illness; and assisting people to adapt to the residual effects of illness.

Last Answer : a) Is an independent function of nursing practice. Health education is an independent function of nursing practice and is included in all state nurse practice acts.

direct shear test possesses the following disadvantage: (A) A relatively thin thickness of sample permits quick drainage (B) A relatively thin thickness of sample permits quick dissipation of pore pressure developed during the test (C) As the test progresses the area under shear, gradually changes (D) None of these

Description : direct shear test possesses the following disadvantage: (A) A relatively thin thickness of sample permits quick drainage (B) A relatively thin thickness of sample permits quick dissipation of pore pressure ... C) As the test progresses the area under shear, gradually changes (D) None of these

Last Answer : Answer: Option C

When the patient who has experienced trauma to an extremity complains of severe burning pain, vasomotor changes, and muscles spasms in the injured extremity, the nurse recognizes that the patient is likely demonstrating signs of a) reflex sympathetic dystrophy syndrome. RSD is frequently chronic and occurs most often in women.

Description : When the patient who has experienced trauma to an extremity complains of severe burning pain, vasomotor changes, and muscles spasms in the injured extremity, the nurse ... heterotrophic ossification. Heterotrophic ossification causes muscular pain and limited muscular contraction and movement.

Last Answer : a) reflex sympathetic dystrophy syndrome. RSD is frequently chronic and occurs most often in women.

When the nurse observes diffuse swelling involving the deeper skin layers in the patient who has experienced an allergic reaction, the nurse records the finding as a) angioneurotic edema. The area of skin demonstrating angioneurotic edema may appear normal but often has a reddish hue and does not pit.

Description : When the nurse observes diffuse swelling involving the deeper skin layers in the patient who has experienced an allergic reaction, the nurse records the finding as a) angioneurotic edema. ... the result of increased interstitial fluid and associated with disorders such as congestive heart failure.

Last Answer : a) angioneurotic edema. The area of skin demonstrating angioneurotic edema may appear normal but often has a reddish hue and does not pit.

The nurse teaches the female patient who is premenopausal to perform breast self-examination (BSE) a) on day 5 to day 7, counting the first day of menses as day 1. BSE is best performed after menses, when less fluid is retained.

Description : The nurse teaches the female patient who is premenopausal to perform breast self-examination (BSE) a) on day 5 to day 7, counting the first day of menses as day 1. BSE is best performed ... retention before their menstrual period, BSE is best performed when the time for menses is taken into account.

Last Answer : a) on day 5 to day 7, counting the first day of menses as day 1. BSE is best performed after menses, when less fluid is retained.

Three medications referred to as the ‘ABC drugs’ are currently the main pharmacological therapy for multiple sclerosis. Which of the following statements reflects information to be included in patient teaching? a) Flu-like symptoms can be controlled with nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and usually resolve after a few months of therapy. Seventy-five percent of patients taking one of the interferons experience flu-like symptoms that can be controlled with NSAIDS and usually resolve after a few months of therapy.

Description : Three medications referred to as the ABC drugs' are currently the main pharmacological therapy for multiple sclerosis. Which of the following statements reflects information to be included in patient ... on an empty stomach. Glatiramer acetate is administed by intramuscular injection once a week.

Last Answer : a) Flu-like symptoms can be controlled with nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and usually resolve after a few months of therapy. Seventy-five percent of patients taking one of the ... symptoms that can be controlled with NSAIDS and usually resolve after a few months of therapy.

When the patient with known angina pectoris complains that he is experiencing chest pain more frequently even at rest, the period of pain is longer, and it takes less stress for the pain to occur, the nurse recognizes that the patient is describing a) unstable angina. Unstable angina is also called crescendo or pre-infarction angina and indicates the need for a change in treatment.

Description : When the patient with known angina pectoris complains that he is experiencing chest pain more frequently even at rest, the period of pain is longer, and it takes less stress for the ... or refractory angina produces severe, incapacitating chest pain that does not respond to conventional treatment.

Last Answer : a) unstable angina. Unstable angina is also called crescendo or pre-infarction angina and indicates the need for a change in treatment.

A patient who demonstrates an obtunded level of consciousness a) sleeps almost constantly but can be aroused and can follow simple commands. An obtunded patient stays awake only with persistent stimulation.

Description : A patient who demonstrates an obtunded level of consciousness a) sleeps almost constantly but can be aroused and can follow simple commands. An obtunded patient stays awake only with persistent ... not respond to environmental stimuli. A comatose patient does not respond to environmental stimuli.

Last Answer : a) sleeps almost constantly but can be aroused and can follow simple commands. An obtunded patient stays awake only with persistent stimulation.

Which of the following statements reflect the treatment of HIV infection? a) Treatment of HIV infection for an individual patient is based on the clinical condition of the patient, CD4 T cell count level, and HIV RNA (viral load). Although specific therapies vary, treatment of HIV infection for an individual patient is based on three factors: the clinical condition of the patient, CD4 T cell count level, and HIV RNA (viral load).

Description : Which of the following statements reflect the treatment of HIV infection? a) Treatment of HIV infection for an individual patient is based on the clinical condition of the patient, CD4 T cell count level, and ... CD4+ T cells/mm3 or plasma HIV RNA levels exceeding 55,000 copies/mL (RT-PCR assay).

Last Answer : a) Treatment of HIV infection for an individual patient is based on the clinical condition of the patient, CD4 T cell count level, and HIV RNA (viral load). Although specific therapies vary, treatment of ... : the clinical condition of the patient, CD4 T cell count level, and HIV RNA (viral load).

When the nurse notes that the post cardiac surgery patient demonstrates low urine output (< 25 ml/hr) with high specific gravity (> 1.025), the nurse suspects: a) Inadequate fluid volume Urine output of less than 25 ml/hr may indicate a decrease in cardiac output. A high specific gravity indicates increased concentration of solutes in the urine which occurs with inadequate fluid volume. b) Normal glomerular filtration Indices of normal glomerular filtration are output of 25 ml or greater per hour and specific gravity between 1.010 and 1.025. c) Overhydration Overhydration is manifested by high urine output with low specific gravity. d) Anuria The anuric patient does not produce urine.

Description : When the nurse notes that the post cardiac surgery patient demonstrates low urine output (< 25 ml/hr) with high specific gravity (> 1.025), the nurse suspects: a) Inadequate fluid volume Urine ... by high urine output with low specific gravity. d) Anuria The anuric patient does not produce urine.

Last Answer : a) Inadequate fluid volume Urine output of less than 25 ml/hr may indicate a decrease in cardiac output. A high specific gravity indicates increased concentration of solutes in the urine which occurs with inadequate fluid volume.

Which of the following statements reflects information to be included when teaching the patient about plantar fasciitis? a) Management of plantar fasciitis includes stretching exercises. Management also includes wearing shoes with support and cushioning to relieve pain, orthotic devices (e.g., heel cups, arch supports), and the use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).

Description : Which of the following statements reflects information to be included when teaching the patient about plantar fasciitis? a) Management of plantar fasciitis includes stretching exercises. ... Complications of plantar fasciitis include neuromuscular damage and decreased ankle range of motion.

Last Answer : a) Management of plantar fasciitis includes stretching exercises. Management also includes wearing shoes with support and cushioning to relieve pain, orthotic devices (e.g., heel cups, arch supports), and the use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).

Do we have anyone who majored in health in college or perhaps has any degree in health? If so, what is your occupation and what do you do?

Description : Do we have anyone who majored in health in college or perhaps has any degree in health? If so, what is your occupation and what do you do?

Last Answer : I was a biochem major who switched to health (with a concentration in health care administration) for my senior year. I am currently a public health graduate student focusing on epidemiology. I work as a quality/data analyst in Neonatology at a large regional teaching hospital.

A malignant tumor a) gains access to the blood and lymphatic channels. By this mechanism, the tumor metastasizes to other areas of the body. b) demonstrates cells that are well-differentiated. Cells of malignant tumors are undifferentiated. c) is usually slow growing. Malignant tumors demonstrate variable rate of growth; however, the more anaplastic the tumor, the faster its growth. d) grows by expansion. A malignant tumor grows at the periphery and sends out processes that infiltrate and destroy surrounding tissues.

Description : A malignant tumor a) gains access to the blood and lymphatic channels. By this mechanism, the tumor metastasizes to other areas of the body. b) demonstrates cells that are well- ... malignant tumor grows at the periphery and sends out processes that infiltrate and destroy surrounding tissues.

Last Answer : a) gains access to the blood and lymphatic channels. By this mechanism, the tumor metastasizes to other areas of the body.

62. A 30-year-old client had cholesterol blood test before admission to the hospital. The nurse in charge would teach the family and significant others that the client should exercise to help keep the total cholesterol to a desired level of

Description : 62. A 30-year-old client had cholesterol blood test before admission to the hospital. The nurse in charge would teach the family and significant others that the client should exercise to help keep the total cholesterol to a desired level of

Last Answer : A. 140 mg/dl

Share allotment account is a ------------------. A. personal account B. Real account C. Nominal account D. Impersonal accounShare allotment account is a ------------------. A. personal account B. Real account C. Nominal account D. Impersonal accoun

Description : Share allotment account is a ------------------. A. personal account B. Real account C. Nominal account D. Impersonal accoun

Last Answer : A. personal account

For women aged 19-39 years, recommended health screening diagnostic testing includes which of the following? a) Pap smear A Pap smear is recommended for women aged 19-39 years, as well as for women aged 40 and older. b) Mammography Mammography is recommended for health screening for women aged 40 years and older. c) Cholesterol and lipid profile Cholesterol and lipid profile is recommended for women aged 40 years and older. d) Bone mineral density testing Bone mineral density testing is recommended for women aged 40 years and older.

Description : For women aged 19-39 years, recommended health screening diagnostic testing includes which of the following? a) Pap smear A Pap smear is recommended for women aged 19-39 years, as well as ... Bone mineral density testing Bone mineral density testing is recommended for women aged 40 years and older.

Last Answer : a) Pap smear A Pap smear is recommended for women aged 19-39 years, as well as for women aged 40 and older.

Which personal form of text-based media is often revealed after a person dies?

Description : Which personal form of text-based media is often revealed after a person dies?

Last Answer : A diary

Instructions for the patient with low back pain include which of the following? a) When lifting, avoid overreaching. Instructions for the patient with low back pain should include that when lifting, the patient should avoid overreaching. The patient should also keep the load close to the body, bend the knees and tighten the abdominal muscles, use a wide base of support, and use a back brace to protect the back.

Description : Instructions for the patient with low back pain include which of the following? a) When lifting, avoid overreaching. Instructions for the patient with low back pain should include that when lifting, ... lifting, the patient with low back pain should bend the knees and tighten the abdominal muscles.

Last Answer : a) When lifting, avoid overreaching. Instructions for the patient with low back pain should include that when lifting, the patient should avoid overreaching. The patient should also keep the load close to the ... muscles, use a wide base of support, and use a back brace to protect the back.

A patient with fungal encephalitis receiving amphotericin B complaints of fever, chills, and body aches. The nurse knows that these symptoms a) may be controlled by the administration of diphenhydramine (Benedryl) and acetaminophen (Tylenol) approximately 30 minutes prior to administration of the amphotericin. Administration of amphotericin B may cause fever, chills and body aches. The administration of diphenhydramine (Benedryl) and acetaminophen (Tylenol) approximately 30 minutes prior to the administration of amphotericin B may prevent these side effects.

Description : A patient with fungal encephalitis receiving amphotericin B complaints of fever, chills, and body aches. The nurse knows that these symptoms a) may be controlled by the administration of ... and cerebral spinal fluid (CSF) cultures. Blood and CSF cultures help diagnosis fungal encephalitis.

Last Answer : a) may be controlled by the administration of diphenhydramine (Benedryl) and acetaminophen (Tylenol) approximately 30 minutes prior to administration of the amphotericin. Administration of amphotericin B ... 30 minutes prior to the administration of amphotericin B may prevent these side effects.

Which of the following findings in the patient who has sustained a head injury indicate increasing intracranial pressure (ICP)? a) Widened pulse pressure Additional signs of increasing ICP include increasing systolic blood pressure, bradycardia, rapid respirations, and rapid rise in body temperature.

Description : Which of the following findings in the patient who has sustained a head injury indicate increasing intracranial pressure (ICP)? a) Widened pulse pressure Additional signs of increasing ICP ... regarded as unfavorable because hyperthermia may indicate brain stem damage, a poor prognostic sign.

Last Answer : a) Widened pulse pressure Additional signs of increasing ICP include increasing systolic blood pressure, bradycardia, rapid respirations, and rapid rise in body temperature.

When assisting the patient to interpret a negative HIV test result, the nurse informs the patient that the results mean a) his body has not produced antibodies to the AIDS virus. A negative test result indicates that antibodies to the AIDS virus are not present in the blood at the time the blood sample for the test is drawn.

Description : When assisting the patient to interpret a negative HIV test result, the nurse informs the patient that the results mean a) his body has not produced antibodies to the AIDS virus. A negative test ... When antibodies to the AIDS virus are detected in the blood, the test is interpreted as positive.

Last Answer : a) his body has not produced antibodies to the AIDS virus. A negative test result indicates that antibodies to the AIDS virus are not present in the blood at the time the blood sample for the test is drawn.

Of the following disorders, which results from excessive secretion of somatotropin? a) Acromegaly The patient with acromegaly demonstrates progressive enlargement of peripheral body parts, most commonly the face, head, hands, and feet.

Description : Of the following disorders, which results from excessive secretion of somatotropin? a) Acromegaly The patient with acromegaly demonstrates progressive enlargement of peripheral body parts, most ... syndrome is the result of abnormal secretion of adrenocortical hormones, especially androgen.

Last Answer : a) Acromegaly The patient with acromegaly demonstrates progressive enlargement of peripheral body parts, most commonly the face, head, hands, and feet.

The nurse recognizes which of the following signs as typical of the patient in shock? a) Rapid, weak, thready pulse Pulse increases as the body tries to compensate. b) Flushed face Pallor is an indicator of shock. c) Warm, dry skin Skin is generally cool and moist in shock. d) Increased urine output Usually, a low blood pressure and concentrated urine are observed in the patient in shock.

Description : The nurse recognizes which of the following signs as typical of the patient in shock? a) Rapid, weak, thready pulse Pulse increases as the body tries to compensate. b) Flushed face Pallor is ... urine output Usually, a low blood pressure and concentrated urine are observed in the patient in shock.

Last Answer : a) Rapid, weak, thready pulse Pulse increases as the body tries to compensate.

Which of the following terms refers most precisely to a localized skin infection of a single hair follicle? a) Furuncle Furuncles occur anywhere on the body, but are most prevalent in areas subjected to irritation, pressure friction, and excessive perspiration, such as the back of the neck, the axillae, or the buttocks.

Description : Which of the following terms refers most precisely to a localized skin infection of a single hair follicle? a) Furuncle Furuncles occur anywhere on the body, but are most prevalent in areas ... Comedone. Comedones are the primary lesions of acne, caused by sebum blockage in the hair follicle.

Last Answer : a) Furuncle Furuncles occur anywhere on the body, but are most prevalent in areas subjected to irritation, pressure friction, and excessive perspiration, such as the back of the neck, the axillae, or the buttocks.

A steady state within the body is termed a) Homeostasis. When a change occurs that causes a body function to deviate from its stable range, processes are initiated to restore and maintain the steady state or homeostasis. b) Constancy. Constancy refers to the balanced internal state of the human body maintained by physiologic and biochemical processes. c) Adaptation. Adaptation refers to a constant, ongoing process that requires change in structure, function, or behavior so that the person is better suited to the environment. d) Stress. Stress refers to a state produced by a change in the environment that is perceived as challenging, threatening, or damaging to the person’s dynamic balance or equilibrium.

Description : A steady state within the body is termed a) Homeostasis. When a change occurs that causes a body function to deviate from its stable range, processes are initiated to restore and maintain ... that is perceived as challenging, threatening, or damaging to the person's dynamic balance or equilibrium.

Last Answer : a) Homeostasis. When a change occurs that causes a body function to deviate from its stable range, processes are initiated to restore and maintain the steady state or homeostasis.

Which of the following statements reflect what is known about the Ebola and Marburg viruses? a) The diagnosis should be considered in a patient who has a febrile, hemorrhagic illness after traveling to Asia or Africa. The diagnosis should be considered in a patient who has a febrile, hemorrhagic illness after traveling to Asia or Africa, or who has handled animals or animal carcasses from those parts of the world.

Description : Which of the following statements reflect what is known about the Ebola and Marburg viruses? a) The diagnosis should be considered in a patient who has a febrile, hemorrhagic illness after ... fever, rash, and encephalitis which progress rapidly to profound hemorrhage, organ destruction, and shock.

Last Answer : a) The diagnosis should be considered in a patient who has a febrile, hemorrhagic illness after traveling to Asia or Africa. The diagnosis should be considered in a patient who has a febrile, ... Asia or Africa, or who has handled animals or animal carcasses from those parts of the world.

In order to avoid hip dislocation after replacement surgery, the nurse teaches the patient which of the following guidelines? a) Never cross the affected leg when seated. Crossing the affected leg may result in dislocation of the hip joint after total hip replacement.

Description : In order to avoid hip dislocation after replacement surgery, the nurse teaches the patient which of the following guidelines? a) Never cross the affected leg when seated. Crossing the affected leg may result ... a chair. The patient should be taught to avoid bending forward when seated in a chair.

Last Answer : a) Never cross the affected leg when seated. Crossing the affected leg may result in dislocation of the hip joint after total hip replacement.

The nurse advises the patient undergoing photodynamic therapy (PDT) for macular degeneration to avoid exposure to direct sunlight or bright lights for a) the first five days after the procedure. Photodynamic therapy includes the use of verteporfin, a light-activated dye. The dye within the blood vessels near the surface of the skin could become activated with exposure to strong light, such as sunlight or bright lights. Ordinary indoor light is not a problem. The patient should be counseled to wear protective clothing, such as long-sleeved shirts, sunglasses, and wide-brimmed hats, if the patient has to go outdoors during daylight hours in the first five days post-treatment. Inadvertent sunlight exposure can lead to severe blistering of the skin and sunburn.

Description : The nurse advises the patient undergoing photodynamic therapy (PDT) for macular degeneration to avoid exposure to direct sunlight or bright lights for a) the first five days after the procedure. ... should avoid exposure to direct sunlight or bright lights for the first five days post-treatment.

Last Answer : a) the first five days after the procedure. Photodynamic therapy includes the use of verteporfin, a light-activated dye. The dye within the blood vessels near the surface of the skin could ... days post-treatment. Inadvertent sunlight exposure can lead to severe blistering of the skin and sunburn.

The nurse who provides teaching to the female patient regarding prevention of recurrent urinary tract infections includes which of the following statements? a) Void immediately after sexual intercourse. Voiding will serve to flush the urethra, expelling contaminants.

Description : The nurse who provides teaching to the female patient regarding prevention of recurrent urinary tract infections includes which of the following statements? a) Void immediately after sexual intercourse. Voiding ... encouraged to void every 2-3 hours during the day and completely empty the bladder.

Last Answer : a) Void immediately after sexual intercourse. Voiding will serve to flush the urethra, expelling contaminants.

Bladder retraining following removal of an indwelling catheter begins with instructing the patient to follow a 2-3 hour timed voiding schedule. Immediately after the removal of the indwelling catheter, the patient is placed on a timed voiding schedule, usually two to three hours. At the given time interval, the patient is instructed to void. a) encouraging the patient to void immediately. Immediate voiding is not usually encouraged. The patient is commonly placed on a timed voiding schedule, usually within two to three hours.

Description : Bladder retraining following removal of an indwelling catheter begins with instructing the patient to follow a 2-3 hour timed voiding schedule. Immediately after the removal of the indwelling ... in the bladder after voiding, straight catheterization may be performed for complete bladder emptying.

Last Answer : a) encouraging the patient to void immediately. Immediate voiding is not usually encouraged. The patient is commonly placed on a timed voiding schedule, usually within two to three hours.

The nurse places the patient after liver biopsy in which of the following positions? a) On the right side In this position, the liver capsule at the site of penetration is compressed against the chest wall, and the escape of blood or bile through the perforation made for the biopsy is impeded.

Description : The nurse places the patient after liver biopsy in which of the following positions? a) On the right side In this position, the liver capsule at the site of penetration is compressed against the chest ... . d) High Fowler's High Fowler's position is not indicated for the patient after liver biopsy.

Last Answer : a) On the right side In this position, the liver capsule at the site of penetration is compressed against the chest wall, and the escape of blood or bile through the perforation made for the biopsy is impeded.

Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the nurse to take when the patient demonstrates subcutaneous emphysema along the suture line or chest dressing 2 hours after chest surgery? a) Record the observation. Subcutaneous emphysema occurs after chest surgery as the air that is located within the pleural cavity is expelled through the tissue opening created by the surgical procedure.

Description : Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the nurse to take when the patient demonstrates subcutaneous emphysema along the suture line or chest dressing 2 hours after chest ... finding to the physician immediately. Subcutaneous emphysema results from air entering the tissue planes.

Last Answer : a) Record the observation. Subcutaneous emphysema occurs after chest surgery as the air that is located within the pleural cavity is expelled through the tissue opening created by the surgical procedure.

In order to help prevent the development of an external rotation deformity of the hip in a patient who must remain in bed for any period of time, the most appropriate nursing action would be to use a) a trochanter roll extending from the crest of the ilium to the midthigh. A trochanter roll, properly placed, provides resistance to the external rotation of the hip. b) pillows under the lower legs. Pillows under the legs will not prevent the hips from rotating externally. c) a hip-abductor pillow. A hip-abductor pillow is used for the patient after total hip replacement surgery. d) a footboard. A footboard will not prevent the hips from rotating externally.

Description : In order to help prevent the development of an external rotation deformity of the hip in a patient who must remain in bed for any period of time, the most appropriate nursing action would be ... hip replacement surgery. d) a footboard. A footboard will not prevent the hips from rotating externally.

Last Answer : a) a trochanter roll extending from the crest of the ilium to the midthigh. A trochanter roll, properly placed, provides resistance to the external rotation of the hip.