A patient with fungal encephalitis receiving amphotericin B complaints of fever, chills, and body aches. The nurse knows that these symptoms a) may be controlled by the administration of diphenhydramine (Benedryl) and acetaminophen (Tylenol) approximately 30 minutes prior to administration of the amphotericin. Administration of amphotericin B may cause fever, chills and body aches. The administration of diphenhydramine (Benedryl) and acetaminophen (Tylenol) approximately 30 minutes prior to the administration of amphotericin B may prevent these side effects.

A patient with fungal encephalitis receiving amphotericin B
complaints of fever, chills, and body aches. The nurse knows that
these symptoms
a) may be controlled by the administration of diphenhydramine
(Benedryl) and acetaminophen (Tylenol) approximately 30 minutes
prior to administration of the amphotericin.
Administration of amphotericin B may cause fever, chills and body
aches. The administration of diphenhydramine (Benedryl) and
acetaminophen (Tylenol) approximately 30 minutes prior to the
administration of amphotericin B may prevent these side effects.
b) indicate renal toxicity and a worsening of the patient’s condition.
Renal toxicity due to amphotericin B is dose limiting. Monitoring the
serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen levels may alert the nurse to
the development of renal insufficiency and the need to address the
patients’ renal status.
c) are primarily associated with infection with Coccidioides immitis and
Aspergillus.
Vascular changes are associated with C. immitis and Aspergillus
Manifestations of vascular change may include arteritis or cerebral
infarction.
d) indicate the need for immediate blood and cerebral spinal fluid (CSF)
cultures.
Blood and CSF cultures help diagnosis fungal encephalitis.
by

1 Answer

Answer :

a) may be controlled by the administration of diphenhydramine
(Benedryl) and acetaminophen (Tylenol) approximately 30 minutes
prior to administration of the amphotericin.
Administration of amphotericin B may cause fever, chills and body
aches. The administration of diphenhydramine (Benedryl) and
acetaminophen (Tylenol) approximately 30 minutes prior to the
administration of amphotericin B may prevent these side effects.
by

Related questions

The patient with Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) encephalitis is receiving acyclovir (Zovirax). The nurse monitors blood chemistry test results and urinary output for a) renal complications related to acyclovir therapy. Monitoring of blood chemistry test results and urinary output will alert the nurse to the presence of renal complications related to acyclovir therapy.

Description : The patient with Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) encephalitis is receiving acyclovir (Zovirax). The nurse monitors blood chemistry test results and urinary output for a) renal complications related to ... output will alert the nurse to the presence of renal complications related to acyclovir therapy.

Last Answer : a) renal complications related to acyclovir therapy. Monitoring of blood chemistry test results and urinary output will alert the nurse to the presence of renal complications related to acyclovir therapy.

When the nurse administers intravenous gamma-globulin infusion, she recognizes that which of the following complaints, if reported by the patient, may indicate an adverse effect of the infusion? a) Tightness in the chest Flank pain, tightness in the chest, or hypotension indicates adverse effects of gamma-globulin infusion.

Description : When the nurse administers intravenous gamma-globulin infusion, she recognizes that which of the following complaints, if reported by the patient, may indicate an adverse effect of the infusion? a) ... urination is a sign of urinary tract infection, not an adverse effect of gamma-globulin infusion.

Last Answer : a) Tightness in the chest Flank pain, tightness in the chest, or hypotension indicates adverse effects of gamma-globulin infusion.

Prophylaxis antibiotic for anthrax is given to people with symptoms who have been in a defined “hot zone” for a period of a) 60 days. Those with symptoms who have been in the hot zone should be given 60 days of prophylactic antibiotic. The aim of prophylaxis is to assure that if spores were inhaled, bacteria will be killed immediately upon release from spores. Those who have symptoms of fever, cough, headache, chills, and especially evidence of mediastinal lymph node involvement should be treated with intravenous antibiotics and respiratory support, if needed.

Description : Prophylaxis antibiotic for anthrax is given to people with symptoms who have been in a defined hot zone for a period of a) 60 days. Those with symptoms who have been in the hot zone should ... . Those with symptoms who have been in the hot zone should be given 60 days of prophylactic antibiotic

Last Answer : a) 60 days. Those with symptoms who have been in the hot zone should be given 60 days of prophylactic antibiotic. The aim of prophylaxis is to assure that if spores were ... of mediastinal lymph node involvement should be treated with intravenous antibiotics and respiratory support, if needed.

When the nurse reviews the physician’s progress notes for the patient who has sustained a head injury and sees that the physician observed Battle’s sign when the patient was in the Emergency Department, the nurse knows that the physician observed a) an area of bruising over the mastoid bone. Battle’s sign may indicate skull fracture.

Description : When the nurse reviews the physician's progress notes for the patient who has sustained a head injury and sees that the physician observed Battle's sign when the patient was in the Emergency Department, the ... CSF) from the patient's nose. Escape of CSF from the patient's nose is termed rhinorrhea.

Last Answer : a) an area of bruising over the mastoid bone. Battle’s sign may indicate skull fracture.

When the nurse observes the patient’s urine to be orange, she further assesses the patient for a) intake of medication such as phenytoin (Dilantin). Urine that is orange may be caused by intake of Dilantin or other medications. Orange to amber colored urine may also indicate concentrated urine due to dehydration or fever.

Description : When the nurse observes the patient's urine to be orange, she further assesses the patient for a) intake of medication such as phenytoin (Dilantin). Urine that is orange may be caused by intake ... white urine may indicate infection, pyruria, or in the female patient, the use of vaginal creams.

Last Answer : a) intake of medication such as phenytoin (Dilantin). Urine that is orange may be caused by intake of Dilantin or other medications. Orange to amber colored urine may also indicate concentrated urine due to dehydration or fever.

A 55-year-old renal transplant patient has been hospitalized in a Surgical Intensive Care Unit, receiving a prolonged course of antibiotics following an attack of acute cholecystitis. The following statement(s) is/are true concerning his management. a. Due to the potential risk of Candida infection, prophylaxis with oral nystatin should be instituted early in the patient’s course b. A Candida urinary tract infection should be treated with systemic amphotericin B c. Changes of Candida retinitis are of little significance d. The presence of a virulent Candida bacteremia should suggest a dosage reduction in immunosuppressive agents until the infection can be adequately controlled

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Last Answer : Answer: a, d Infections due to fungal pathogens have become increasingly common during the past decade, frequently occurring in patients undergoing prolonged hospitalization in the Surgical ... agents should be discontinued until evidence of infection is absolutely controlled or is eradicated

When caring for a patient receiving autolytic debridement therapy, the nurse a) advises the patient about the foul odor that will occur during therapy. During autolytic debridement therapy a foul odor will be produced by the breakdown of cellular debris. This odor does not indicate that the wound is infected.

Description : When caring for a patient receiving autolytic debridement therapy, the nurse a) advises the patient about the foul odor that will occur during therapy. During autolytic debridement ... Pancrease. Commercially available enzymatic debriding agents include Accuzyme, Clooagenase, Granulex, and Zymase.

Last Answer : a) advises the patient about the foul odor that will occur during therapy. During autolytic debridement therapy a foul odor will be produced by the breakdown of cellular debris. This odor does not indicate that the wound is infected.

If tube feeding is continuous, the placement of the feeding tube should be checked a) every shift. Each nurse caring for the patient is responsible for verifying that the tube is located in the proper area for continuous feeding. b) every hour. Checking for placement each hour is unnecessary unless the patient is extremely restless or there is basis for rechecking the tube based on other patient activities. c) every 24 hours. Checking for placement every 24 hours does not meet the standard of care due the patient receiving continuous tube feedings. d) when a tube feeding is continuous, it is unnecessary to check placement. Even though the feedings are continuous, the placement must be assessed.

Description : If tube feeding is continuous, the placement of the feeding tube should be checked a) every shift. Each nurse caring for the patient is responsible for verifying that the tube is located ... is unnecessary to check placement. Even though the feedings are continuous, the placement must be assessed.

Last Answer : a) every shift. Each nurse caring for the patient is responsible for verifying that the tube is located in the proper area for continuous feeding.

The most significant nursing problem related to continuous tube feedings is a) potential for aspiration Because the normal swallowing mechanism is bypassed, consideration of the danger of aspiration must be foremost in the mind of the nurse caring for the patient receiving continuous tube feedings. b) interruption of GI integrity Tube feedings preserve GI integrity by intraluminal delivery of nutrients. c) disturbance in the sequence of intestinal and hepatic metabolism Tube feedings preserve the normal sequence of intestinal and hepatic metabolism. d) interruption in fat metabolism and lipoprotein synthesis Tube feedings maintain fat metabolism and lipoprotein synthesis.

Description : The most significant nursing problem related to continuous tube feedings is a) potential for aspiration Because the normal swallowing mechanism is bypassed, consideration of the danger of ... in fat metabolism and lipoprotein synthesis Tube feedings maintain fat metabolism and lipoprotein synthesis.

Last Answer : a) potential for aspiration Because the normal swallowing mechanism is bypassed, consideration of the danger of aspiration must be foremost in the mind of the nurse caring for the patient receiving continuous tube feedings.

The nurse assesses the dressing of a patient with a basal skull fracture and sees the halo sign - a blood stain surrounded by a yellowish stain. The nurse knows that this sign a) is highly suggestive of a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak. The halo sign - a blood stain surrounded by a yellowish stain is highly suggestive of a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak.

Description : The nurse assesses the dressing of a patient with a basal skull fracture and sees the halo sign - a blood stain surrounded by a yellowish stain. The nurse knows that this sign a) is highly ... following a basal skull fracture. The halo sign is highly suggestive of a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak.

Last Answer : a) is highly suggestive of a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak. The halo sign - a blood stain surrounded by a yellowish stain is highly suggestive of a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak.

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Description : A patient who has had a previous stroke and is taking warfarin tells the nurse that he started taking garlic to help reduce his blood pressure. The nurse knows that garlic when taken ... headaches. Garlic and warfarin taken together can greatly increase the INR, increasing the risk of bleeding.

Last Answer : a) can greatly increase the international normalization ratio (INR) and therefore increase the risk of bleeding. Garlic and warfarin taken together can greatly increase the INR, increasing the risk of bleeding.

The nurse reading the physician’s report of an elderly patient’s physical examination knows a notation that the patient demonstrates xanthelasma refers to a) yellowish waxy deposits on upper eyelids. The change is a common, benign manifestation of aging skin or it can sometimes signal hyperlipidemia.

Description : The nurse reading the physician's report of an elderly patient's physical examination knows a notation that the patient demonstrates xanthelasma refers to a) yellowish waxy deposits on upper eyelids. The change is ... red moles. Cherry angioma is the term that is used to describe a bright red mole.

Last Answer : a) yellowish waxy deposits on upper eyelids. The change is a common, benign manifestation of aging skin or it can sometimes signal hyperlipidemia.

When caring for a patient with an uncomplicated, mild urinary tract infection (UTI), the nurse knows that recent studies have shown which of the following drugs to be a good choice for shortcourse (e.g. 3-day) therapy? a) Levofloxacin (Levaquin) Levofloxacin, a floroquinolone, is a good choice for short-course therapy of uncomplicated, mild to moderate UTI. Clinical trial data show high patient compliance with the 3-day regimen (95.6%) and a high eradication rate for all pathogens (96.4%).

Description : When caring for a patient with an uncomplicated, mild urinary tract infection (UTI), the nurse knows that recent studies have shown which of the following drugs to be a good choice for ... to be significantly more effective than TMP-SMX in community-based patients and in nursing home residents.

Last Answer : a) Levofloxacin (Levaquin) Levofloxacin, a floroquinolone, is a good choice for short-course therapy of uncomplicated, mild to moderate UTI. Clinical trial data show high patient compliance with the 3-day regimen (95.6%) and a high eradication rate for all pathogens (96.4%).

The nurse teaches the patient with peripheral vascular disease to refrain from smoking because nicotine causes a) vasospasm. Nicotine causes vasospasm and can thereby dramatically reduce circulation to the extremities. b) slowed heart rate. Nicotine has stimulant effects. c) depression of the cough reflex. Nicotine does not suppress cough. Smoking irritates the bronchial tree, causing coughing. d) diuresis. Nicotine does not cause diuresis.

Description : The nurse teaches the patient with peripheral vascular disease to refrain from smoking because nicotine causes a) vasospasm. Nicotine causes vasospasm and can thereby dramatically reduce circulation to the ... the bronchial tree, causing coughing. d) diuresis. Nicotine does not cause diuresis.

Last Answer : a) vasospasm. Nicotine causes vasospasm and can thereby dramatically reduce circulation to the extremities.

Treatment of an acetaminophen overdose includes the administration of a) N-acetylcysteine (Mucomyst). Treatment of acetaminophen overdose includes administration of Nacetylcysteine (Mucomyst).

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Last Answer : a) N-acetylcysteine (Mucomyst). Treatment of acetaminophen overdose includes administration of Nacetylcysteine (Mucomyst).

Regarding oral cancer, the nurse provides health teaching to inform the patient that a) many oral cancers produce no symptoms in the early stages. As the cancer progresses, the patient may complain of tenderness or difficulty in chewing, swallowing, or speaking.

Description : Regarding oral cancer, the nurse provides health teaching to inform the patient that a) many oral cancers produce no symptoms in the early stages. As the cancer progresses, the patient may complain of ... crater-like. A typical lesion in oral cancer is a painless hardened ulcer with raised edges.

Last Answer : a) many oral cancers produce no symptoms in the early stages. As the cancer progresses, the patient may complain of tenderness or difficulty in chewing, swallowing, or speaking.

The nurse teaches the patient about diabetes including which of the following statements? a) Elevated blood glucose levels contribute to complications of diabetes, such as diminished vision. When blood glucose levels are well controlled, the potential for complications of diabetes is reduced.

Description : The nurse teaches the patient about diabetes including which of the following statements? a) Elevated blood glucose levels contribute to complications of diabetes, such as diminished vision. When blood ... be able to resume previous methods for control of diabetes when the stress is resolved.

Last Answer : a) Elevated blood glucose levels contribute to complications of diabetes, such as diminished vision. When blood glucose levels are well controlled, the potential for complications of diabetes is reduced.

When the indication for surgery is without delay, the nurse recognizes that the surgery will be classified as a) emergency. Emergency surgery means that the patient requires immediate attention and the disorder may be life-threatening. b) urgent. Urgent surgery means that the patient requires prompt attention within 24-30 hours. c) required. Required surgery means that the patient needs to have surgery, and it should be planned within a few weeks or months. d) elective. Elective surgery means that there is an indication for surgery, but failure to have surgery will not be catastrophic.

Description : When the indication for surgery is without delay, the nurse recognizes that the surgery will be classified as a) emergency. Emergency surgery means that the patient requires immediate attention and the ... there is an indication for surgery, but failure to have surgery will not be catastrophic.

Last Answer : a) emergency. Emergency surgery means that the patient requires immediate attention and the disorder may be life-threatening.

Which of the following reflects basic nursing measures in the care of the patient with viral encephalitis? a) Providing comfort measures Providing comfort measures directed at the headache, include dimmed lights, limited noise, and analgesics are the basic nursing measures in the care of the patient with a viral encephalitis.

Description : Which of the following reflects basic nursing measures in the care of the patient with viral encephalitis? a) Providing comfort measures Providing comfort measures directed at the headache, include ... output to alert the nurse to the presence of renal complications related to acyclovir therapy.

Last Answer : a) Providing comfort measures Providing comfort measures directed at the headache, include dimmed lights, limited noise, and analgesics are the basic nursing measures in the care of the patient with a viral encephalitis.

The nurse knows that a postoperative vision-threatening complication of LASIK refractive surgery, diffuse lamellar keratitis (DLK) occurs a) in the first week after surgery. DLK is a peculiar, non-infectious, inflammatory reaction in the lamellar interface after LASIK. It is characterized by a white granular, diffuse culture-negative lamellar keratitis occurring in the first week after surgery. Studies suggest that since no single agent appears to be solely the cause of DLK, a multifactorial etiology is likely.

Description : The nurse knows that a postoperative vision-threatening complication of LASIK refractive surgery, diffuse lamellar keratitis (DLK) occurs a) in the first week after surgery. DLK is a peculiar, non-infectious, ... after surgery. d) 6 months after surgery. DLK occurs in the first week after surgery.

Last Answer : a) in the first week after surgery. DLK is a peculiar, non-infectious, inflammatory reaction in the lamellar interface after LASIK. It is characterized by a white granular, diffuse culture-negative ... no single agent appears to be solely the cause of DLK, a multifactorial etiology is likely.

Halitosis and a sour taste in the mouth are signs and symptoms associated most directly with a) esophageal diverticula. Because the diverticula may retain decomposed food, halitosis and a sour taste in the mouth are frequent complaints. b) achalasia. Achalasia presents as difficulty in swallowing both liquids and solids. c) gastroesophageal reflux. Gastroesophageal reflux presents as burning in the esophagus, indigestion, and difficulty in or pain upon swallowing. d) hiatal hernia. Hiatal hernia presents as heartburn, regurgitation, and dysphagia in many patients while at least 50% are asymptomatic.

Description : Halitosis and a sour taste in the mouth are signs and symptoms associated most directly with a) esophageal diverticula. Because the diverticula may retain decomposed food, halitosis and a sour ... as heartburn, regurgitation, and dysphagia in many patients while at least 50% are asymptomatic.

Last Answer : a) esophageal diverticula. Because the diverticula may retain decomposed food, halitosis and a sour taste in the mouth are frequent complaints.

Health education of the patient by the nurse a) Is an independent function of nursing practice. Health education is an independent function of nursing practice and is included in all state nurse practice acts. b) Requires a physician’s order. Teaching, as a function of nursing, is included in all state nurse practice acts. c) Must be approved by the physician. Health education is a primary responsibility of the nursing profession. d) Must focus on wellness issues. Health education by the nurse focuses on promoting, maintaining, and restoring health; preventing illness; and assisting people to adapt to the residual effects of illness.

Description : Health education of the patient by the nurse a) Is an independent function of nursing practice. Health education is an independent function of nursing practice and is included in all state ... restoring health; preventing illness; and assisting people to adapt to the residual effects of illness.

Last Answer : a) Is an independent function of nursing practice. Health education is an independent function of nursing practice and is included in all state nurse practice acts.

A patient has had neurologic deficits lasting for more than 24 hours, and now the symptoms are resolving. The nurse concludes that the patient has had which type of stroke? a) Reversible ischemic neurologic deficit With a reversible ischemic neurologic deficit, the patient has more pronounced signs and symptoms that last more than 24 hours; symptoms resolve in a matter of days without any permanent neurologic deficit.

Description : A patient has had neurologic deficits lasting for more than 24 hours, and now the symptoms are resolving. The nurse concludes that the patient has had which type of stroke? a) Reversible ... and symptoms have stabilized with no indication of further progression of the hypoxic insult to the brain.

Last Answer : a) Reversible ischemic neurologic deficit With a reversible ischemic neurologic deficit, the patient has more pronounced signs and symptoms that last more than 24 hours; symptoms resolve in a matter of days without any permanent neurologic deficit.

Three medications referred to as the ‘ABC drugs’ are currently the main pharmacological therapy for multiple sclerosis. Which of the following statements reflects information to be included in patient teaching? a) Flu-like symptoms can be controlled with nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and usually resolve after a few months of therapy. Seventy-five percent of patients taking one of the interferons experience flu-like symptoms that can be controlled with NSAIDS and usually resolve after a few months of therapy.

Description : Three medications referred to as the ABC drugs' are currently the main pharmacological therapy for multiple sclerosis. Which of the following statements reflects information to be included in patient ... on an empty stomach. Glatiramer acetate is administed by intramuscular injection once a week.

Last Answer : a) Flu-like symptoms can be controlled with nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and usually resolve after a few months of therapy. Seventy-five percent of patients taking one of the ... symptoms that can be controlled with NSAIDS and usually resolve after a few months of therapy.

The nurse places the patient after liver biopsy in which of the following positions? a) On the right side In this position, the liver capsule at the site of penetration is compressed against the chest wall, and the escape of blood or bile through the perforation made for the biopsy is impeded.

Description : The nurse places the patient after liver biopsy in which of the following positions? a) On the right side In this position, the liver capsule at the site of penetration is compressed against the chest ... . d) High Fowler's High Fowler's position is not indicated for the patient after liver biopsy.

Last Answer : a) On the right side In this position, the liver capsule at the site of penetration is compressed against the chest wall, and the escape of blood or bile through the perforation made for the biopsy is impeded.

The primary North American vector transmitting arthropodborne virus encephalitis is the a) mosquito Arthropod vectors transmit several types of viruses that cause encephalitis. The primary vector in North America is the mosquito.

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Last Answer : a) mosquito Arthropod vectors transmit several types of viruses that cause encephalitis. The primary vector in North America is the mosquito.

The most common cause of acute encephalitis in the United States is a) Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV). Viral infection is the most common cause of encephalitis. HSV is the most common cause of acute encephalitis in the U.S.

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Last Answer : a) Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV). Viral infection is the most common cause of encephalitis. HSV is the most common cause of acute encephalitis in the U.S.

Decrease in absorption of which of the following vitamins in the geriatric patient results in pernicious anemia? a) B12 Vitamin B12 requires the intrinsic factor secreted by the gastric mucosa for absorption. b) C Lack of vitamin C may cause development of signs and symptoms of scurvy. c) D Vitamin D deficiency results in an inability to absorb calcium. d) B6 Vitamin B6 affects neuromuscular function.

Description : Decrease in absorption of which of the following vitamins in the geriatric patient results in pernicious anemia? a) B12 Vitamin B12 requires the intrinsic factor secreted by the gastric mucosa for ... results in an inability to absorb calcium. d) B6 Vitamin B6 affects neuromuscular function.

Last Answer : a) B12 Vitamin B12 requires the intrinsic factor secreted by the gastric mucosa for absorption.

The nurse teaches the patient with allergies about anaphylaxis including which of the following statements? a) The most common cause of anaphylaxis is penicillin. The most common cause of anaphylaxis, accounting for about 75% of fatal anaphylactic reactions in the U.S., is penicillin.

Description : The nurse teaches the patient with allergies about anaphylaxis including which of the following statements? a) The most common cause of anaphylaxis is penicillin. The most common ... 30 minutes of exposure involving cardiovascular, respiratory, gastrointestinal, and integumentary organ systems.

Last Answer : a) The most common cause of anaphylaxis is penicillin. The most common cause of anaphylaxis, accounting for about 75% of fatal anaphylactic reactions in the U.S., is penicillin.

When providing care to the patient with bilateral nephrostomy tubes, the nurse never does which of the following? a) Clamps each nephrostomy tube when the patient is moved The nurse must never clamp a nephrostomy tube because it could cause obstruction and resultant pyelonephritis.

Description : When providing care to the patient with bilateral nephrostomy tubes, the nurse never does which of the following? a) Clamps each nephrostomy tube when the patient is moved The nurse must never clamp a ... saline q8h as ordered The nurse may irrigate a nephrostomy tube with specific orders to do so.

Last Answer : a) Clamps each nephrostomy tube when the patient is moved The nurse must never clamp a nephrostomy tube because it could cause obstruction and resultant pyelonephritis.

The nurse teaches the patient about glargine (Lantus), a “peakless” basal insulin including which of the following statements? a) Do not mix the drug with other insulins Because glargine is in a suspension with a pH of 4, it cannot be mixed with other insulins because this would cause precipitation. When administering glargine (Lantus) insulin it is very important to read the label carefully and to avoid mistaking Lantus insulin for Lente insulin and vice versa.

Description : The nurse teaches the patient about glargine (Lantus), a peakless basal insulin including which of the following statements? a) Do not mix the drug with other insulins Because glargine is in a ... action Glargine is a peakless basal insulin that is absorbed very slowly over a 24-hour period.

Last Answer : a) Do not mix the drug with other insulins Because glargine is in a suspension with a pH of 4, it cannot be mixed with other insulins because this would cause precipitation. When administering ... to read the label carefully and to avoid mistaking Lantus insulin for Lente insulin and vice versa.

Which of the following observations regarding ulcer formation on the patient’s lower extremity indicate to the nurse that the ulcer is a result of venous insufficiency? a) The border of the ulcer is irregular. The border of an ulcer caused by arterial insufficiency is circular. b) The ulcer is very painful to the patient, even though superficial. Superficial venous insufficiency ulcers cause minimal pain. c) The ulcer base is pale to black. The base of a venous insufficiency ulcer shows beefy red to yellow fibrinous color. d) The ulcer is deep, involving the joint space. Venous insufficiency ulcers are usually superficial.

Description : Which of the following observations regarding ulcer formation on the patient's lower extremity indicate to the nurse that the ulcer is a result of venous insufficiency? a) The border of the ... d) The ulcer is deep, involving the joint space. Venous insufficiency ulcers are usually superficial.

Last Answer : a) The border of the ulcer is irregular. The border of an ulcer caused by arterial insufficiency is circular.

Which stage of anesthesia is termed surgical anesthesia? a) III With proper administration of the anesthetic, this stage may be maintained for hours. b) I Stage I is beginning anesthesia, as the patient breathes in the anesthetic mixture and experiences warmth, dizziness, and a feeling of detachment. c) II Stage II is the excitement stage, which may be characterized by struggling, singing, laughing, or crying. d) IV Stage IV is a stage of medullary depression and is reached when too much anesthesia has been administered.

Description : Which stage of anesthesia is termed surgical anesthesia? a) III With proper administration of the anesthetic, this stage may be maintained for hours. b) I Stage I is beginning anesthesia, as the ... IV is a stage of medullary depression and is reached when too much anesthesia has been administered.

Last Answer : a) III With proper administration of the anesthetic, this stage may be maintained for hours.

What are some of the initial symptoms in about 70% of people infected with HIV within the first few weeks? a. A migrating rash covering the whole body b. Flu-like symptoms, of fever, chills c. Sneezing and symptoms of a head cold d. No one develops symptoms until several years later

Description : What are some of the initial symptoms in about 70% of people infected with HIV within the first few weeks? a. A migrating rash covering the whole body b. Flu-like symptoms, of fever, chills c. Sneezing and symptoms of a head cold d. No one develops symptoms until several years later

Last Answer : b. Flu-like symptoms, of fever, chills

Which of the following solutions should the nurse anticipate for fluid replacement in the male patient? a) Lactated Ringer’s solution Replacement fluids may include isotonic electrolyte solutions and blood component therapy.

Description : Which of the following solutions should the nurse anticipate for fluid replacement in the male patient? a) Lactated Ringer's solution Replacement fluids may include isotonic electrolyte solutions and ... only to treat severe symptomatic hyponatremia and should be used only in intensive care units.

Last Answer : a) Lactated Ringer’s solution Replacement fluids may include isotonic electrolyte solutions and blood component therapy.

In order to avoid hip dislocation after replacement surgery, the nurse teaches the patient which of the following guidelines? a) Never cross the affected leg when seated. Crossing the affected leg may result in dislocation of the hip joint after total hip replacement.

Description : In order to avoid hip dislocation after replacement surgery, the nurse teaches the patient which of the following guidelines? a) Never cross the affected leg when seated. Crossing the affected leg may result ... a chair. The patient should be taught to avoid bending forward when seated in a chair.

Last Answer : a) Never cross the affected leg when seated. Crossing the affected leg may result in dislocation of the hip joint after total hip replacement.

The nurse notes that the patient demonstrates generalized pallor and recognizes that this finding may be indicative of a) anemia. In the light-skinned individual, generalized pallor is a manifestation of anemia. In brown- and black-skinned individuals, anemia is demonstrated as a dull skin appearance.

Description : The nurse notes that the patient demonstrates generalized pallor and recognizes that this finding may be indicative of a) anemia. In the light-skinned individual, generalized pallor is a ... . d) local arterial insufficiency. Local arterial insufficiency is characterized by marked localized pallor.

Last Answer : a) anemia. In the light-skinned individual, generalized pallor is a manifestation of anemia. In brown- and black-skinned individuals, anemia is demonstrated as a dull skin appearance.

When the nurse observes diffuse swelling involving the deeper skin layers in the patient who has experienced an allergic reaction, the nurse records the finding as a) angioneurotic edema. The area of skin demonstrating angioneurotic edema may appear normal but often has a reddish hue and does not pit.

Description : When the nurse observes diffuse swelling involving the deeper skin layers in the patient who has experienced an allergic reaction, the nurse records the finding as a) angioneurotic edema. ... the result of increased interstitial fluid and associated with disorders such as congestive heart failure.

Last Answer : a) angioneurotic edema. The area of skin demonstrating angioneurotic edema may appear normal but often has a reddish hue and does not pit.

The nurse recognizes that the patient with a duodenal ulcer will likely experience a) pain 2-3 hours after a meal. The patient with a gastric ulcer often awakens between 1-2 A.M. with pain and ingestion of food brings relief. b) vomiting. Vomiting is uncommon in the patient with duodenal ulcer. c) hemorrhage. Hemorrhage is less likely in the patient with duodenal ulcer than the patient with gastric ulcer. d) weight loss. The patient with a duodenal ulcer may experience weight gain.

Description : The nurse recognizes that the patient with a duodenal ulcer will likely experience a) pain 2-3 hours after a meal. The patient with a gastric ulcer often awakens between 1-2 A.M. with pain ... patient with gastric ulcer. d) weight loss. The patient with a duodenal ulcer may experience weight gain.

Last Answer : a) pain 2-3 hours after a meal. The patient with a gastric ulcer often awakens between 1-2 A.M. with pain and ingestion of food brings relief.

For which of the following medications must the nurse contact the pharmacist in consultation when the patient receives all oral medications by feeding tube? a) Enteric-coated tablets Enteric-coated tablets are meant to be digested in the intestinal tract and may be destroyed by stomach acids. A change of form of medication is required by patients with tube feedings.

Description : For which of the following medications must the nurse contact the pharmacist in consultation when the patient receives all oral medications by feeding tube? a) Enteric-coated tablets Enteric-coated ... make an opening in the capsule and squeeze out contents for administration by feeding tube.

Last Answer : a) Enteric-coated tablets Enteric-coated tablets are meant to be digested in the intestinal tract and may be destroyed by stomach acids. A change of form of medication is required by patients with tube feedings.

When the nurse notes that the post cardiac surgery patient demonstrates low urine output (< 25 ml/hr) with high specific gravity (> 1.025), the nurse suspects: a) Inadequate fluid volume Urine output of less than 25 ml/hr may indicate a decrease in cardiac output. A high specific gravity indicates increased concentration of solutes in the urine which occurs with inadequate fluid volume. b) Normal glomerular filtration Indices of normal glomerular filtration are output of 25 ml or greater per hour and specific gravity between 1.010 and 1.025. c) Overhydration Overhydration is manifested by high urine output with low specific gravity. d) Anuria The anuric patient does not produce urine.

Description : When the nurse notes that the post cardiac surgery patient demonstrates low urine output (< 25 ml/hr) with high specific gravity (> 1.025), the nurse suspects: a) Inadequate fluid volume Urine ... by high urine output with low specific gravity. d) Anuria The anuric patient does not produce urine.

Last Answer : a) Inadequate fluid volume Urine output of less than 25 ml/hr may indicate a decrease in cardiac output. A high specific gravity indicates increased concentration of solutes in the urine which occurs with inadequate fluid volume.

When the post-cardiac surgical patient demonstrates vasodilation, hypotension, hyporeflexia, slow gastrointestinal motility (hypoactive bowel sounds), lethargy, and respiratory depression, the nurse suspects which of the following electrolyte imbalances? a) Hypermagnesemia Untreated hypomagnesemia may result in coma, apnea, cardiac arrest.

Description : When the post-cardiac surgical patient demonstrates vasodilation, hypotension, hyporeflexia, slow gastrointestinal motility (hypoactive bowel sounds), lethargy, and respiratory depression, the nurse suspects ... and QT intervals, broad flat T waves), disorientation, depression, and hypotension.

Last Answer : a) Hypermagnesemia Untreated hypomagnesemia may result in coma, apnea, cardiac arrest.

When interpreting the results of a Mantoux test, the nurse explains to the patient that a reaction occurs when the intradermal injection site shows a) redness and induration. The site is inspected for redness and palpated for hardening. b) drainage. Drainage at the site does not indicate a reaction to the tubercle bacillus. c) tissue sloughing. Sloughing of tissue at the site of injection does not indicate a reaction to the tubercle bacillus. d) bruising. Bruising of tissue at the site may occur from the injection, but does not indicate a reaction to the tubercle bacillus.

Description : When interpreting the results of a Mantoux test, the nurse explains to the patient that a reaction occurs when the intradermal injection site shows a) redness and induration. The site is inspected for ... site may occur from the injection, but does not indicate a reaction to the tubercle bacillus.

Last Answer : a) redness and induration. The site is inspected for redness and palpated for hardening.

When the patient who has undergone laryngectomy suffers wound breakdown, the nurse monitors him very carefully because he is identified as being at high risk for a) carotid artery hemorrhage. The carotid artery lies close to the stoma and may rupture from erosion if the wound does not heal properly. b) pulmonary embolism. Pulmonary embolism is associated with immobility. c) dehydration. Dehydration may lead to poor wound healing and breakdown. d) pneumonia. Pneumonia is a risk for any postoperative patient.

Description : When the patient who has undergone laryngectomy suffers wound breakdown, the nurse monitors him very carefully because he is identified as being at high risk for a) carotid artery hemorrhage. The ... poor wound healing and breakdown. d) pneumonia. Pneumonia is a risk for any postoperative patient.

Last Answer : a) carotid artery hemorrhage. The carotid artery lies close to the stoma and may rupture from erosion if the wound does not heal properly.

Regarding tolerance and addiction, the nurse understands that a) although patients may need increasing levels of opioids, they are not addicted. Physical tolerance usually occurs in the absence of addiction. b) tolerance to opioids is uncommon. Tolerance to opioids is common. c) addiction to opioids commonly develops. Addiction to opioids is rare. d) the nurse must be primarily concerned about development of addiction by the patient in pain. Addiction is rare and should never be the primary concern for a patient in pain.

Description : Regarding tolerance and addiction, the nurse understands that a) although patients may need increasing levels of opioids, they are not addicted. Physical tolerance usually occurs in the absence of addiction. b ... pain. Addiction is rare and should never be the primary concern for a patient in pain.

Last Answer : a) although patients may need increasing levels of opioids, they are not addicted. Physical tolerance usually occurs in the absence of addiction.

75. At the start of thyroid replacement post-total thyroidectomy, the nurse must monitor for side effects. Which side effects would the nurse expect to assess? 1. Hypertension 2. Tremors 3. Hirsutism 4. Insomnia 5. Tachycardia 6. Hyperglycemia

Description : 75. At the start of thyroid replacement post-total thyroidectomy, the nurse must monitor for side effects. Which side effects would the nurse expect to assess? 1. Hypertension 2. Tremors 3. Hirsutism 4. Insomnia 5. Tachycardia 6. Hyperglycemia

Last Answer : A. 3, 4, 5, and 6