When a person who has been taking opioids becomes less sensitive to their analgesic properties, that person is said to have developed a (an) a) tolerance. Tolerance is characterized by the need for increasing dose requirements to maintain the same level of pain relief. b) addiction. Addiction refers to a behavioral pattern of substance use characterized by a compulsion to take the drug primarily to experience its psychic effects. c) dependence. Dependence occurs when a patient who has been taking opioids experiences a withdrawal syndrome when the opioids are discontinued. d) balanced analgesia. Balanced analgesia occurs when the patient is using more than one form of analgesia concurrently to obtain more pain relief with fewer side effects.

When a person who has been taking opioids becomes less
sensitive to their analgesic properties, that person is said to have
developed a (an)
a) tolerance.
Tolerance is characterized by the need for increasing dose
requirements to maintain the same level of pain relief.
b) addiction.
Addiction refers to a behavioral pattern of substance use characterized
by a compulsion to take the drug primarily to experience its psychic
effects.
c) dependence.
Dependence occurs when a patient who has been taking opioids
experiences a withdrawal syndrome when the opioids are discontinued.
d) balanced analgesia.
Balanced analgesia occurs when the patient is using more than one
form of analgesia concurrently to obtain more pain relief with fewer
side effects.
by

1 Answer

Answer :

a) tolerance.
Tolerance is characterized by the need for increasing dose
requirements to maintain the same level of pain relief.
by

Related questions

Regarding tolerance and addiction, the nurse understands that a) although patients may need increasing levels of opioids, they are not addicted. Physical tolerance usually occurs in the absence of addiction. b) tolerance to opioids is uncommon. Tolerance to opioids is common. c) addiction to opioids commonly develops. Addiction to opioids is rare. d) the nurse must be primarily concerned about development of addiction by the patient in pain. Addiction is rare and should never be the primary concern for a patient in pain.

Description : Regarding tolerance and addiction, the nurse understands that a) although patients may need increasing levels of opioids, they are not addicted. Physical tolerance usually occurs in the absence of addiction. b ... pain. Addiction is rare and should never be the primary concern for a patient in pain.

Last Answer : a) although patients may need increasing levels of opioids, they are not addicted. Physical tolerance usually occurs in the absence of addiction.

Adaptive neurophysiological changes produced by repeated administration of a drug, which result in the appearance of characteristic withdrawal syndrome on discontinuation of the drug is called: A. Drug addiction B. Drug abuse C. Psychological dependence D. Physical dependence

Description : Adaptive neurophysiological changes produced by repeated administration of a drug, which result in the appearance of characteristic withdrawal syndrome on discontinuation of the drug is called: A. Drug addiction B. Drug abuse C. Psychological dependence D. Physical dependence

Last Answer : D. Physical dependence

Adaptive neurophysiological changes produced by repeated administration of a drug, which result in the appearance of characteristic withdrawal syndrome on discontinuation of the drug is called: A. Drug addiction B. Drug abuse C. Psychological dependence D. Physical dependence

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Last Answer : D. Physical dependence

Which of the following terms has been defined by the American Psychiatric Association as a group of behavioral or psychological symptoms or a pattern that manifests itself in significant distress, impaired functioning, or accentuated risk of enduring severe suffering or possible death? a) Mental disorder The definition was adopted by the American Psychiatric Association in 1994. b) Emotional disorder There is no universally accepted definition of what constitutes an emotional disorder. c) Anxiety Anxiety is defined as fear of the unknown. d) Schizophrenia Schizophrenia is a specific disorder characterized by psychosis.

Description : Which of the following terms has been defined by the American Psychiatric Association as a group of behavioral or psychological symptoms or a pattern that manifests itself in significant distress ... of the unknown. d) Schizophrenia Schizophrenia is a specific disorder characterized by psychosis.

Last Answer : a) Mental disorder The definition was adopted by the American Psychiatric Association in 1994.

A steady state within the body is termed a) Homeostasis. When a change occurs that causes a body function to deviate from its stable range, processes are initiated to restore and maintain the steady state or homeostasis. b) Constancy. Constancy refers to the balanced internal state of the human body maintained by physiologic and biochemical processes. c) Adaptation. Adaptation refers to a constant, ongoing process that requires change in structure, function, or behavior so that the person is better suited to the environment. d) Stress. Stress refers to a state produced by a change in the environment that is perceived as challenging, threatening, or damaging to the person’s dynamic balance or equilibrium.

Description : A steady state within the body is termed a) Homeostasis. When a change occurs that causes a body function to deviate from its stable range, processes are initiated to restore and maintain ... that is perceived as challenging, threatening, or damaging to the person's dynamic balance or equilibrium.

Last Answer : a) Homeostasis. When a change occurs that causes a body function to deviate from its stable range, processes are initiated to restore and maintain the steady state or homeostasis.

The nurse recognizes that the patient with a duodenal ulcer will likely experience a) pain 2-3 hours after a meal. The patient with a gastric ulcer often awakens between 1-2 A.M. with pain and ingestion of food brings relief. b) vomiting. Vomiting is uncommon in the patient with duodenal ulcer. c) hemorrhage. Hemorrhage is less likely in the patient with duodenal ulcer than the patient with gastric ulcer. d) weight loss. The patient with a duodenal ulcer may experience weight gain.

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Last Answer : a) pain 2-3 hours after a meal. The patient with a gastric ulcer often awakens between 1-2 A.M. with pain and ingestion of food brings relief.

The relaxation techniques of progressive muscle relaxation, relaxation with guided imagery, and the Benson Relaxation Response share which of the following elements? a) A mental device (something on which to focus the attention) Similar elements also include a quiet environment, a comfortable position, and a passive attitude. b) Nutritional foundation Relaxation techniques do not encompass specific nutritional guidelines. c) Analgesic preparation Relaxation techniques are used to reduce one’s response to stress and do not require analgesia prior to practicing the techniques. d) Physician’s order A physician’s order is not required to assist an individual to learn techniques to reduce one’s response to stress.

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Last Answer : a) A mental device (something on which to focus the attention) Similar elements also include a quiet environment, a comfortable position, and a passive attitude.

Morphine dependence is characterized by (a) Marked drug seeking behavior (b) Physical dependence without psychic dependence (c) Physical as well as psychic dependence (d) Both (a) and (c)

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Last Answer : Ans: D

Morphine dependence is characterized by: A. Marked drug seeking behaviour B. Physical dependence without psychic dependence C. Physical as well as psychic dependence D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correc

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Which stage of anesthesia is termed surgical anesthesia? a) III With proper administration of the anesthetic, this stage may be maintained for hours. b) I Stage I is beginning anesthesia, as the patient breathes in the anesthetic mixture and experiences warmth, dizziness, and a feeling of detachment. c) II Stage II is the excitement stage, which may be characterized by struggling, singing, laughing, or crying. d) IV Stage IV is a stage of medullary depression and is reached when too much anesthesia has been administered.

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All of the following facts are true about non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) except (a) They are antipyretic (b) There is a celling effect to their analgesia (c) They can cause tolerance (d) They do not cause dependence (e) They are anti-inflammatory

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Last Answer : Ans: C

When the patient who has experienced trauma to an extremity complains of severe burning pain, vasomotor changes, and muscles spasms in the injured extremity, the nurse recognizes that the patient is likely demonstrating signs of a) reflex sympathetic dystrophy syndrome. RSD is frequently chronic and occurs most often in women.

Description : When the patient who has experienced trauma to an extremity complains of severe burning pain, vasomotor changes, and muscles spasms in the injured extremity, the nurse ... heterotrophic ossification. Heterotrophic ossification causes muscular pain and limited muscular contraction and movement.

Last Answer : a) reflex sympathetic dystrophy syndrome. RSD is frequently chronic and occurs most often in women.

Which of the following disorders is characterized by a group of symptoms produced by an excess of free circulating cortisol from the adrenal cortex? a) Cushing’s syndrome The patient with Cushing’s syndrome demonstrates truncal obesity, moon face, acne, abdominal striae, and hypertension.

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Mu opioids have which of the following effects on respiratory rate: a) Stimulation, then depression Mu opioids also cause bradycardia, hypothermia, and constipation. b) No change Kappa opioids result in no change in respiratory rate. c) Stimulation, only Delta opioids result in stimulation of respiratory rate. d) Depression, only Neither mu, nor kappa, nor delta opoids depress respiratory rate as its only effect upon respiratory rate.

Description : Mu opioids have which of the following effects on respiratory rate: a) Stimulation, then depression Mu opioids also cause bradycardia, hypothermia, and constipation. b) No change Kappa opioids result ... nor kappa, nor delta opoids depress respiratory rate as its only effect upon respiratory rate.

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The individual who demonstrates displacement of the sternum is described as having a a) pigeon chest. Pigeon chest may occur with rickets, Marfan’s syndrome, or severe kyphoscoliosis. b) barrel chest. A barrel chest is seen in patients with emphysema as a result of overinflation of the lungs. c) funnel chest. A funnel chest occurs when there is a depression in the lower portion of the sternum. d) kyphoscoliosis. Kyphoscoliosis is characterized by elevation of the scapula and a corresponding S-shaped spine.

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Asking the patient questions to determine if the person understands the health teaching provided would be included during which step of the nursing process? a) Evaluation Evaluation includes observing the person, asking questions, and comparing the patient’s behavioral responses with the expected outcomes. b) Assessment Assessment includes determining the patient’s readiness regarding learning. c) Planning and goals Planning includes identification of teaching strategies and writing the teaching plan. d) Implementation Implementation is the step during which the teaching plan is put into action.

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The preferred route of administration of medication in the most acute care situations is which of the following routes? a) Intravenous The IV route is the preferred parenteral route in most acute care situations because it is much more comfortable for the patient, and peak serum levels and pain relief occur more rapidly and reliably. b) Epidural Epidural administration is used to control postoperative and chronic pain. c) Subcutaneous Subcutaneous administration results in slow absorption of medication. d) Intramuscular Intramuscular administration of medication is absorbed more slowly than intravenously administered medication.

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Which type of sleep apnea is characterized by lack of airflow due to pharyngeal occlusion? a) Obstructive Obstructive sleep apnea occurs usually in men, especially those who are older and overweight. b) Simple Types of sleep apnea do not include a simple characterization. c) Mixed Mixed sleep apnea is a combination of central and obstructive apnea with one apneic episode. d) Central In central sleep apnea, the patient demonstrates simultaneous cessation of both airflow and respiratory movements.

Description : Which type of sleep apnea is characterized by lack of airflow due to pharyngeal occlusion? a) Obstructive Obstructive sleep apnea occurs usually in men, especially those who are older ... central sleep apnea, the patient demonstrates simultaneous cessation of both airflow and respiratory movements.

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Palliation refers to a) relief of symptoms associated with cancer. Palliation is the goal for care in terminal cancer patients. b) hair loss. Alopecia is the term that refers to hair loss. c) the spread of cancer cells from the primary tumor to distant sites. Metastasis is the term that refers to the spread of cancer cells from the primary tumor to distant sites. d) the lowest point of white blood cell depression after therapy that has toxic effects on the bone marrow. Nadir is the term that refers to the lowest point of white blood cell depression after therapy that has toxic effects on the bone marrow.

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Which of the following terms refers to the symptom of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) which is characterized by a burning sensation in the esophagus? a) Pyrosis Pyrosis refers to a burning sensation in the esophagus and indicates GERD. b) Dyspepsia Indigestion is termed dyspepsia. c) Dysphagia Difficulty swallowing is termed dysphagia. d) Odynophagia Pain on swallowing is termed odynophagia.

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Last Answer : a) Pyrosis Pyrosis refers to a burning sensation in the esophagus and indicates GERD.

Thiopental (sodium thiopental, Thiopentone, STP) characterized by the following except A. Prepares as a pale yellow 10.5 (alkaline) B. After iv bolus, rapidly ... C) Effects include decrease cerebral blood flow and O2 requirements D) Has good analgesic ...

Description : Thiopental (sodium thiopental, Thiopentone, STP) characterized by the following except A. Prepares as a pale yellow 10.5 (alkaline) B. After iv bolus, rapidly ... C) Effects include decrease cerebral blood flow and O2 requirements D) Has good analgesic ...

Last Answer : Ans: D

Which of the following terms refers to the decrease in lens flexibility that occurs with age, resulting in the near point of focus getting farther away? a) Presbyopia Presbyopia usually begins in the fifth decade of life, when reading glasses are required to magnify objects. b) Presbycusis Presbycusis refers to age-related hearing loss. c) Cataract Cataract is the development of opacity of the lens of the eye. d) Glaucoma Glaucoma is a disease characterized by increased intraocular pressure.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to the decrease in lens flexibility that occurs with age, resulting in the near point of focus getting farther away? a) Presbyopia Presbyopia usually begins in ... lens of the eye. d) Glaucoma Glaucoma is a disease characterized by increased intraocular pressure.

Last Answer : a) Presbyopia Presbyopia usually begins in the fifth decade of life, when reading glasses are required to magnify objects.

Which of the following refers to a management tool for organizing personnel, facilities, equipment, and communication for any emergency situation? a) The Incident Command System The Incident Command System (ICS) is a management tool for organizing personnel, facilities, equipment and communication for any emergency situation. The federal government mandates that the ICS be used during emergencies. Under this structure, one person is designated as incident commander. This person must be continuously informed of all activities and informed about any deviation from the established plan. While the ICS is primarily a field structure and process, aspects of it are used at the level of an individual hospital’s emergency response plan as well.

Description : Which of the following refers to a management tool for organizing personnel, facilities, equipment, and communication for any emergency situation? a) The Incident Command System The ... emergency preparedness required by the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations (JCAHO).

Last Answer : a) The Incident Command System The Incident Command System (ICS) is a management tool for organizing personnel, facilities, equipment and communication for any emergency situation. The federal government mandates ... are used at the level of an individual hospital's emergency response plan as well.

Though nitrates and calcium channel blockers are both vasodilators, they are used concurrently in angina pectoris because (a) They antagonize each other’s side effects (b) Nitrates primarily reduce preload while calcium channel blockers primarily reduce after load (c) Nitrates increase coronary flow while calcium (d) Both (b) and (c)

Description : Though nitrates and calcium channel blockers are both vasodilators, they are used concurrently in angina pectoris because (a) They antagonize each other's side effects (b) Nitrates primarily reduce preload while calcium ... load (c) Nitrates increase coronary flow while calcium (d) Both (b) and (c)

Last Answer : Ans: B

Though nitrates and calcium channel blockers are both vasodilators, they are used concurrently in angina pectoris, because: A. They antagonise each other’s side effects B. Nitrates primarily reduce preload while calcium channel blockers primarily reduce after-load C. Nitrates increase coronary flow while calcium channel blockers reduce ca

Description : Though nitrates and calcium channel blockers are both vasodilators, they are used concurrently in angina pectoris, because: A. They antagonise each other's side effects B. Nitrates primarily ... primarily reduce after-load C. Nitrates increase coronary flow while calcium channel blockers reduce ca

Last Answer : B. Nitrates primarily reduce preload while calcium channel blockers primarily reduce after-load

Morphine analgesia differs from that produced by aspirin in the following respect(s): A. It has a higher ceiling B. It covers both perception as well as psychic processing of the pain C. Visceral and ischaemic pain is relieved better than somatic inflammatory pain D. All of the above are correct

Description : Morphine analgesia differs from that produced by aspirin in the following respect(s): A. It has a higher ceiling B. It covers both perception as well as psychic processing of the pain C. Visceral and ischaemic pain is relieved better than somatic inflammatory pain D. All of the above are correct

Last Answer : D. All of the above are correct

Overuse of digitalis may result in (a) Habituation (b) Tolerance (c) Addiction (d) Physical dependence (e) Cummulative poisoning

Description : Overuse of digitalis may result in (a) Habituation (b) Tolerance (c) Addiction (d) Physical dependence (e) Cummulative poisoning

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Which type of chest configuration is typical of the patient with COPD? a) Barrel chest “Barrel chest” results from fixation of the ribs in the inspiratory position. b) Pigeon chest Pigeon chest results from a displaced sternum. c) Flail chest Flail chest results when the ribs are fractured. d) Funnel chest Funnel chest occurs when there is a depression in the lower portion of the sternum and is associated with Mafan’s syndrome or rickets.

Description : Which type of chest configuration is typical of the patient with COPD? a) Barrel chest Barrel chest results from fixation of the ribs in the inspiratory position. b) Pigeon chest Pigeon chest ... depression in the lower portion of the sternum and is associated with Mafan's syndrome or rickets.

Last Answer : a) Barrel chest “Barrel chest” results from fixation of the ribs in the inspiratory position.

Which of the following terms, according to Lazarus, refers to the process through which an event is evaluated with respect to what is at stake and what might and can be done? a) Cognitive appraisal The outcome of cognitive appraisal is identification of the situation as either stressful or non-stressful. b) Coping Coping consists of both cognitive and behavioral efforts made to manage the specific external or internal demand that taxes a person’s resources. c) Hardiness Hardiness is a personality characteristic that is composed of control, commitment, and challenge. d) Adaptation Lazarus believed adaptation was affected by emotion that subsumed stress and coping.

Description : Which of the following terms, according to Lazarus, refers to the process through which an event is evaluated with respect to what is at stake and what might and can be done? a) ... and challenge. d) Adaptation Lazarus believed adaptation was affected by emotion that subsumed stress and coping.

Last Answer : a) Cognitive appraisal The outcome of cognitive appraisal is identification of the situation as either stressful or non-stressful.

What percentage of patients who survived the polio epidemic of the 1950s are now estimated to have developed post-polio syndrome? a) 60-80% Patients who survived the polio epidemic of the 1950s, many now elderly, are developing new symptoms of weakness, fatigue and musculoskeletal pain. It is estimated that between 60% and 80% of the 640,000 polio survivors are experiencing the phenomenon known as post-polio syndrome.

Description : What percentage of patients who survived the polio epidemic of the 1950s are now estimated to have developed post-polio syndrome? a) 60-80% Patients who survived the polio epidemic of the 1950s ... 80% of patients who survived the polio epidemic of the 1950s are now experiencing post-polio syndrome.

Last Answer : a) 60-80% Patients who survived the polio epidemic of the 1950s, many now elderly, are developing new symptoms of weakness, fatigue and musculoskeletal pain. It is estimated that between 60% and 80% of the 640,000 polio survivors are experiencing the phenomenon known as post-polio syndrome.

The following statement is true about misoprostol: A. It relieves peptic ulcer pain, but does not promote ulcer healing B. It heals nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug induced gastric ulcer not responding to H2 blockers C. It produces fewer side effects than H2 blockers D. It is the most effective drug for preventing ulcer relapse

Description : The following statement is true about misoprostol: A. It relieves peptic ulcer pain, but does not promote ulcer healing B. It heals nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug induced gastric ulcer not responding ... side effects than H2 blockers D. It is the most effective drug for preventing ulcer relapse

Last Answer : B. It heals nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug induced gastric ulcer not responding to H2 blockers

A patient who has had a previous stroke and is taking warfarin tells the nurse that he started taking garlic to help reduce his blood pressure. The nurse knows that garlic when taken together with warfarin a) can greatly increase the international normalization ratio (INR) and therefore increase the risk of bleeding. Garlic and warfarin taken together can greatly increase the INR, increasing the risk of bleeding.

Description : A patient who has had a previous stroke and is taking warfarin tells the nurse that he started taking garlic to help reduce his blood pressure. The nurse knows that garlic when taken ... headaches. Garlic and warfarin taken together can greatly increase the INR, increasing the risk of bleeding.

Last Answer : a) can greatly increase the international normalization ratio (INR) and therefore increase the risk of bleeding. Garlic and warfarin taken together can greatly increase the INR, increasing the risk of bleeding.

Which of the phases of a migraine headache usually lasts less than an hour? a) Aura The aura phase occurs in about 20% of patients who have migraines and may be characterized by focal neurological symptoms.

Description : Which of the phases of a migraine headache usually lasts less than an hour? a) Aura The aura phase occurs in about 20% of patients who have migraines and may be characterized by focal neurological ... to 72 hours. d) Recovery During the post-headache phase, patients may sleep for extended periods.

Last Answer : a) Aura The aura phase occurs in about 20% of patients who have migraines and may be characterized by focal neurological symptoms.

The following antihypertensive drug has been found to suppress certain manifestations of morphine withdrawal syndrome and to block postoperative pain when injected intrathecally: A. Prazosin B. Clonidine C. Reserpine D. Ketanserin

Description : The following antihypertensive drug has been found to suppress certain manifestations of morphine withdrawal syndrome and to block postoperative pain when injected intrathecally: A. Prazosin B. Clonidine C. Reserpine D. Ketanserin

Last Answer : B. Clonidine

Fentanyl (Sublimaze) is categorized as which type of intravenous anesthetic agent? a) Neuroleptanalgesic Fentanyl is 75-100 times more potent than morphine and has about 25% of the duration of morphine (IV). b) Tranquilizer Examples of tranquilizers include midazolam (Versed) and diazepam (Valium). c) Opioid Opioids include morphine and meperidine hydrochloride (Demerol). d) Dissociative agent Ketamine is a dissociative agent.

Description : Fentanyl (Sublimaze) is categorized as which type of intravenous anesthetic agent? a) Neuroleptanalgesic Fentanyl is 75-100 times more potent than morphine and has about 25% of the duration ... morphine and meperidine hydrochloride (Demerol). d) Dissociative agent Ketamine is a dissociative agent.

Last Answer : a) Neuroleptanalgesic Fentanyl is 75-100 times more potent than morphine and has about 25% of the duration of morphine (IV).

Which of the following terms refers to disease of a nerve root? a) Radiculopathy When the patient reports radiating pain down the leg, he is describing radiculopathy.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to disease of a nerve root? a) Radiculopathy When the patient reports radiating pain down the leg, he is describing radiculopathy. b) Involucrum ... cavity. d) Contracture Contracture refers to abnormal shortening of muscle or fibrosis of joint structures.

Last Answer : a) Radiculopathy When the patient reports radiating pain down the leg, he is describing radiculopathy.

Which of the following terms refers to leg pain that is brought on walking and caused by arterial insufficiency? a) Intermittent claudication Intermittent claudication is leg pain that is brought on by exercise and relieved by rest. b) Dyspnea Dyspnea is the patient’s subjective statement of difficulty breathing. c) Orthopnea Orthopnea is the inability of the patient to breathe except in the upright (sitting) position. d) Thromboangitis obliterans Thomroangitis obliterans is a peripheral vascular disease also known as Burger’s disease.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to leg pain that is brought on walking and caused by arterial insufficiency? a) Intermittent claudication Intermittent claudication is leg pain that is ... obliterans Thomroangitis obliterans is a peripheral vascular disease also known as Burger's disease.

Last Answer : a) Intermittent claudication Intermittent claudication is leg pain that is brought on by exercise and relieved by rest.

Which of the following terms refers to failure of fragments of a fractured bone to heal together? a) Nonunion When nonunion occurs, the patient complains of persistent discomfort and movement at the fracture site.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to failure of fragments of a fractured bone to heal together? a) Nonunion When nonunion occurs, the patient complains of persistent discomfort and movement at the ... growth of the fragments of a fractured bone in a faulty position, forming an imperfect union.

Last Answer : a) Nonunion When nonunion occurs, the patient complains of persistent discomfort and movement at the fracture site.

The following statement is correct about buspirone: A. It interacts with benzodiazepine receptor as an inverse agonist B. It is a rapidly acting anxiolytic, good for panic states C. It produces physical dependence and suppresses barbiturate withdrawal syndrome D. It has anxiolytic but no anticonvulsant or muscle relaxant propert

Description : The following statement is correct about buspirone: A. It interacts with benzodiazepine receptor as an inverse agonist B. It is a rapidly acting anxiolytic, good for panic states C. ... suppresses barbiturate withdrawal syndrome D. It has anxiolytic but no anticonvulsant or muscle relaxant propert

Last Answer : D. It has anxiolytic but no anticonvulsant or muscle relaxant property

Apraclonidine is a clonidine congener which is used: A. To suppress opioid withdrawal syndrome B. To suppress menopausal syndrome C. As Analgesic D. To reduce intraocular tension

Description : Apraclonidine is a clonidine congener which is used: A. To suppress opioid withdrawal syndrome B. To suppress menopausal syndrome C. As Analgesic D. To reduce intraocular tension

Last Answer : D. To reduce intraocular tension

Apraclonidine is a clonidine congener which is used: A. To suppress opioid withdrawal syndrome B. To suppress menopausal syndrome C. As Analgesic D. To reduce intraocular tension

Description : Apraclonidine is a clonidine congener which is used: A. To suppress opioid withdrawal syndrome B. To suppress menopausal syndrome C. As Analgesic D. To reduce intraocular tension

Last Answer : D. To reduce intraocular tension

If a person has been exposed to radiation, presenting symptoms, such as nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, diarrhea, or fatigue can be expected to occur within _______ hours after exposure? a) 48 to 72 The prodromal phase (presenting symptoms) of radiation exposure occurs within 48 to 72 hours after exposure. Signs and symptoms include nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, diarrhea, and fatigue. With high-dose radiation exposure, the signs and symptoms may include fever, respiratory distress, and increased excitability.

Description : If a person has been exposed to radiation, presenting symptoms, such as nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, diarrhea, or fatigue can be expected to occur within _______ hours after exposure? ... prodromal phase (presenting symptoms) of radiation exposure occurs within 48 to 72 hours after exposure.

Last Answer : a) 48 to 72 The prodromal phase (presenting symptoms) of radiation exposure occurs within 48 to 72 hours after exposure. Signs and symptoms include nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, ... radiation exposure, the signs and symptoms may include fever, respiratory distress, and increased excitability.

Regarding the surgical patient, which of the following terms refers to the period of time that constitutes the surgical experience? a) Perioperative phase Perioperative period includes the preoperative, intraoperative, and postoperative phases. b) Preoperative phase Preoperative phase is the period of time from when the decision for surgical intervention is made to when the patient is transferred to the operating room table.

Description : Regarding the surgical patient, which of the following terms refers to the period of time that constitutes the surgical experience? a) Perioperative phase Perioperative period includes the preoperative, ... care unit and ends after a follow-up evaluation in the clinical setting or home.

Last Answer : a) Perioperative phase Perioperative period includes the preoperative, intraoperative, and postoperative phases.

Most skin conditions related to HIV disease may be helped primarily by a) highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). The goals of all HIV-related conditions include improvement of CD4 count and lowering of viral load. Initiation of HAART (highly active antiretroviral therapy) will help improve most skin conditions related to HIV disease. Symptomatic relief will be required until the skin condition improves.

Description : Most skin conditions related to HIV disease may be helped primarily by a) highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). The goals of all HIV-related conditions include improvement of CD4 count and ... for the overall treatment of HIV disease; it is not specific for treatment of skin conditions.

Last Answer : a) highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). The goals of all HIV-related conditions include improvement of CD4 count and lowering of viral load. Initiation of HAART (highly active ... conditions related to HIV disease. Symptomatic relief will be required until the skin condition improves.

The most important drawback of sucralfate in the treatment of duodenal ulcer is: A. Low ulcer healing efficacy B. Poor relief of ulcer pain C. High incidence of side effects D. Need for taking a big tablet four times a day

Description : The most important drawback of sucralfate in the treatment of duodenal ulcer is: A. Low ulcer healing efficacy B. Poor relief of ulcer pain C. High incidence of side effects D. Need for taking a big tablet four times a day

Last Answer : D. Need for taking a big tablet four times a day

When the nurse administers intravenous gamma-globulin infusion, she recognizes that which of the following complaints, if reported by the patient, may indicate an adverse effect of the infusion? a) Tightness in the chest Flank pain, tightness in the chest, or hypotension indicates adverse effects of gamma-globulin infusion.

Description : When the nurse administers intravenous gamma-globulin infusion, she recognizes that which of the following complaints, if reported by the patient, may indicate an adverse effect of the infusion? a) ... urination is a sign of urinary tract infection, not an adverse effect of gamma-globulin infusion.

Last Answer : a) Tightness in the chest Flank pain, tightness in the chest, or hypotension indicates adverse effects of gamma-globulin infusion.

Three medications referred to as the ‘ABC drugs’ are currently the main pharmacological therapy for multiple sclerosis. Which of the following statements reflects information to be included in patient teaching? a) Flu-like symptoms can be controlled with nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and usually resolve after a few months of therapy. Seventy-five percent of patients taking one of the interferons experience flu-like symptoms that can be controlled with NSAIDS and usually resolve after a few months of therapy.

Description : Three medications referred to as the ABC drugs' are currently the main pharmacological therapy for multiple sclerosis. Which of the following statements reflects information to be included in patient ... on an empty stomach. Glatiramer acetate is administed by intramuscular injection once a week.

Last Answer : a) Flu-like symptoms can be controlled with nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and usually resolve after a few months of therapy. Seventy-five percent of patients taking one of the ... symptoms that can be controlled with NSAIDS and usually resolve after a few months of therapy.