Which of the following statements reflect what is known about the Ebola and Marburg viruses? a) The diagnosis should be considered in a patient who has a febrile, hemorrhagic illness after traveling to Asia or Africa. The diagnosis should be considered in a patient who has a febrile, hemorrhagic illness after traveling to Asia or Africa, or who has handled animals or animal carcasses from those parts of the world.

Which of the following statements reflect what is known about
the Ebola and Marburg viruses?
a) The diagnosis should be considered in a patient who has a febrile,
hemorrhagic illness after traveling to Asia or Africa.
The diagnosis should be considered in a patient who has a febrile,
hemorrhagic illness after traveling to Asia or Africa, or who has
handled animals or animal carcasses from those parts of the world.
b) Treatment during the acute phase includes administration of acyclovir,
and ventilator and dialysis support.
No antivirals have been approved or show promise against the viruses.
Treatment must be largely supportive maintenance of the circulatory
system and respiratory systems. It is likely that the infected patient
would need ventilator and dialysis support through the acute phases of
illness.
c) The viruses can be spread only by airborne exposure.
The viruses can be spread by exposure to blood or other body fluid,
insect bite, and mucous membrane exposure.
d) Symptoms include severe lower abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and
dehydration.
Symptoms include fever, rash, and encephalitis which progress rapidly
to profound hemorrhage, organ destruction, and shock.
by

1 Answer

Answer :

a) The diagnosis should be considered in a patient who has a febrile,
hemorrhagic illness after traveling to Asia or Africa.
The diagnosis should be considered in a patient who has a febrile,
hemorrhagic illness after traveling to Asia or Africa, or who has
handled animals or animal carcasses from those parts of the world.
by

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Description : Which of the following items is considered the single most important factor in assisting the health professional in arriving at a diagnosis or determining the person's needs? a) History of ... data Biographical information puts the health history in context but does not focus the diagnosis.

Last Answer : a) History of present illness The history of the present illness is the single most important factor in assisting the health professional in arriving at a diagnosis or determining the person’s needs.

Which of the following statements reflect the nursing management of the patient with a white phosphorus chemical burn? a) Do not apply water to the burn. Water should not be applied to burns from lye or white phosphorus because of the potential for an explosion or deepening of the burn.

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Last Answer : a) Do not apply water to the burn. Water should not be applied to burns from lye or white phosphorus because of the potential for an explosion or deepening of the burn.

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Last Answer : a) Providing care aimed at slowing the loss of strength and maintaining the physical, psychological and social well being of the patient. No specific medical or surgical treatment is available for ... loss of strength and maintaining the physical, psychological and social well being of the patient.

Which of the following statements reflect nursing management of the patient with expressive aphasia? a) Encourage the patient to repeat sounds of the alphabet. Nursing management of the patient with expressive aphasia includes encouraging the patient to repeat sounds of the alphabet.

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Last Answer : a) Encourage the patient to repeat sounds of the alphabet. Nursing management of the patient with expressive aphasia includes encouraging the patient to repeat sounds of the alphabet.

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Which of the following statements reflect nursing interventions in the care of the patient with osteoarthritis? a) Encourage weight loss and an increase in aerobic activity. Weight loss and an increase in aerobic activity such as walking, with special attention to quadriceps strengthening are important approaches to pain management.

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Which of the following statements reflect the treatment of HIV infection? a) Treatment of HIV infection for an individual patient is based on the clinical condition of the patient, CD4 T cell count level, and HIV RNA (viral load). Although specific therapies vary, treatment of HIV infection for an individual patient is based on three factors: the clinical condition of the patient, CD4 T cell count level, and HIV RNA (viral load).

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Which of the following statements reflect a goal of rehabilitation for the patient with an MI: a) To improve the quality of life Overall, cardiac rehabilitation is a complete program dedicated to extending and improving quality of life.

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Last Answer : a. Yellow fever.

Which of the following statements reflect the nursing management of pulmonary anthrax (B. anthracis)? a) Prophylaxis with fluoroquinone is suggested after exposure. Treatment is with ciprofloxacin or doxycycline.

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Which of the following statements reflects the World Health Organization’s definition of health? a) A state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being and not merely the absence of disease and infirmity. Such a definition, however, does not allow for any variations in the degrees of wellness or illness. b) A condition of homeostasis and adaptation.

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Which of the following statements reflect the progress of bone healing? a) Serial x-rays are used to monitor the progress of bone healing. Serial x-rays are used to monitor the progress of bone healing.

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Which of the following statements describes accurate information related to chronic illness? a) Most people with chronic conditions do not consider themselves sick or ill. Although some people take on a sick role identity, most people with chronic conditions do not consider themselves sick or ill and try to live

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Is it a good idea for the containment of diseases like Ebola to handled at the state level?

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Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the diagnosis and management of hypovolemic shock? a. A fall in hematocrit or hemoglobin always accompanies hemorrhagic shock b. The treatment of shock is generic regardless of the etiology c. Pharmacologic intervention to increase myocardial contractility in hypovolemic shock is an important part the early management d. Complications are less frequent after treatment of hemorrhagic shock than septic or traumatic shock

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Three medications referred to as the ‘ABC drugs’ are currently the main pharmacological therapy for multiple sclerosis. Which of the following statements reflects information to be included in patient teaching? a) Flu-like symptoms can be controlled with nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and usually resolve after a few months of therapy. Seventy-five percent of patients taking one of the interferons experience flu-like symptoms that can be controlled with NSAIDS and usually resolve after a few months of therapy.

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The nurse who provides teaching to the female patient regarding prevention of recurrent urinary tract infections includes which of the following statements? a) Void immediately after sexual intercourse. Voiding will serve to flush the urethra, expelling contaminants.

Description : The nurse who provides teaching to the female patient regarding prevention of recurrent urinary tract infections includes which of the following statements? a) Void immediately after sexual intercourse. Voiding ... encouraged to void every 2-3 hours during the day and completely empty the bladder.

Last Answer : a) Void immediately after sexual intercourse. Voiding will serve to flush the urethra, expelling contaminants.

What safety actions does the nurse need to take for a patient on oxygen therapy who is undergoing magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)? a) Ensure that no patient care equipment containing metal enters the room where the MRI is located. For patient safety the nurse must make sure no patient care equipment (e.g., portable oxygen tanks) that contains metal or metal parts enters the room where the MRI is located. The magnetic field generated by the unit is so strong that any metal-containing items will be strongly attracted and can literally be pulled away with such great force that they can fly like projectiles towards the magnet.

Description : What safety actions does the nurse need to take for a patient on oxygen therapy who is undergoing magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)? a) Ensure that no patient care equipment containing metal enters the ... oxygen tanks) that contains metal or metal parts enters the room where the MRI is located.

Last Answer : a) Ensure that no patient care equipment containing metal enters the room where the MRI is located. For patient safety the nurse must make sure no patient care equipment (e.g., portable oxygen ... literally be pulled away with such great force that they can fly like projectiles towards the magnet.

Of the following disorders, which results from excessive secretion of somatotropin? a) Acromegaly The patient with acromegaly demonstrates progressive enlargement of peripheral body parts, most commonly the face, head, hands, and feet.

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Last Answer : a) Acromegaly The patient with acromegaly demonstrates progressive enlargement of peripheral body parts, most commonly the face, head, hands, and feet.

The most useful test for the diagnosis of acute hemorrhagic pancreatitis during the first few days is (A) Urinary lipase test (B) Serum calcium (C) Urinary amylase (D) Serum amylase

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Last Answer : Answer : D

If a case of smallpox is suspected, the nurse should a) Call the CDC Emergency Preparedness Office. Anyone suspecting a case of smallpox should call the CDC Emergency Preparedness Office at 770-488-7100. The CDC will respond by immmediate provision of diagnostic support and eventual release of vaccine if a case is confirmed. Until instructed otherwise by the CDC, healthcare providers should carefully establish isolation with negative pressure, and maintain thorough lists of all those who have contact with the patient.

Description : If a case of smallpox is suspected, the nurse should a) Call the CDC Emergency Preparedness Office. Anyone suspecting a case of smallpox should call the CDC Emergency Preparedness Office ... very different from that of chickenpox. With chickenpox, lesions appear at different developmental stages.

Last Answer : a) Call the CDC Emergency Preparedness Office. Anyone suspecting a case of smallpox should call the CDC Emergency Preparedness Office at 770-488-7100. The CDC will respond by immmediate provision ... with negative pressure, and maintain thorough lists of all those who have contact with the patient.

Which type of sleep apnea is characterized by lack of airflow due to pharyngeal occlusion? a) Obstructive Obstructive sleep apnea occurs usually in men, especially those who are older and overweight. b) Simple Types of sleep apnea do not include a simple characterization. c) Mixed Mixed sleep apnea is a combination of central and obstructive apnea with one apneic episode. d) Central In central sleep apnea, the patient demonstrates simultaneous cessation of both airflow and respiratory movements.

Description : Which type of sleep apnea is characterized by lack of airflow due to pharyngeal occlusion? a) Obstructive Obstructive sleep apnea occurs usually in men, especially those who are older ... central sleep apnea, the patient demonstrates simultaneous cessation of both airflow and respiratory movements.

Last Answer : a) Obstructive Obstructive sleep apnea occurs usually in men, especially those who are older and overweight.

According to the American Society of Anesthesiology Physical Status Classification System, a patient with severe systemic disease that is not incapacitating is noted to have physical status classification a) P3 Classification P3 patients are those who have compensated heart failure, cirrhosis, or poorly controlled diabetes, for example. b) P4 Classification P4 patients have an incapacitating systemic disease that is a constant threat to life. c) P1 Classification P1 refers to a normal healthy patient d) P2 Classification P2 reflects a patient with mild systemic disease

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Last Answer : a) P3 Classification P3 patients are those who have compensated heart failure, cirrhosis, or poorly controlled diabetes, for example.

When the patient tells the nurse that his vision is 20/200, and asks what that means, the nurse informs the patient that a person with 20/200 vision a) sees an object from 20 feet away that a person with normal vision sees from 200 feet away. The fraction 20/20 is considered the standard of normal vision.

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Last Answer : a) sees an object from 20 feet away that a person with normal vision sees from 200 feet away. The fraction 20/20 is considered the standard of normal vision.

Which type of medication may be used in the treatment of a patient with incontinence to inhibit contraction of the bladder? a) Anticholinergic agent Anticholinergic agents are considered first-line medications for urge incontinence.

Description : Which type of medication may be used in the treatment of a patient with incontinence to inhibit contraction of the bladder? a) Anticholinergic agent Anticholinergic agents are ... be treated using pseudoephedrine and phenylpropanolamine, ingredients found in over-the-counter decongestants.

Last Answer : a) Anticholinergic agent Anticholinergic agents are considered first-line medications for urge incontinence.

The patient with which of the follow characteristics is considered high risk for the development of infective endocarditis? a) The patient who has complex cyanotic congenital malformations is at high risk for the development of infective endocarditis.

Description : The patient with which of the follow characteristics is considered high risk for the development of infective endocarditis? a) The patient who has complex cyanotic congenital malformations is ... with acquired valvular dysfunction is at moderate risk for the development of infective endocarditis.

Last Answer : a) The patient who has complex cyanotic congenital malformations is at high risk for the development of infective endocarditis.

Which phase of the trajectory model of chronic illness is characterized by reactivation of the illness? a) Unstable The unstable phase is characterized by development of complications or reactivation of the illness. b) Stable The stable phase indicates that the symptoms and disability are under control or managed. c) Acute The acute phase is characterized by sudden onset of severe or unrelieved symptoms or complications that may necessitate hospitalization for their management. d) Comeback The comeback phase is the period in the trajectory marked by recovery after an acute period.

Description : Which phase of the trajectory model of chronic illness is characterized by reactivation of the illness? a) Unstable The unstable phase is characterized by development of complications or reactivation of the ... comeback phase is the period in the trajectory marked by recovery after an acute period.

Last Answer : a) Unstable The unstable phase is characterized by development of complications or reactivation of the illness.

In which phase of the trajectory model of chronic illness are the symptoms under control and managed? a) Stable The stable phase indicates that the symptoms and disability are under control or managed. b) Acute The acute phase is characterized by sudden onset of severe or unrelieved symptoms or complications that may necessitate hospitalization for their management. c) Comeback The comeback phase is the period in the trajectory marked by recovery after an acute period. d) Downward The downward phase occurs when symptoms worsen or the disability progresses despite attempts to control the course through proper management.

Description : In which phase of the trajectory model of chronic illness are the symptoms under control and managed? a) Stable The stable phase indicates that the symptoms and disability are under ... symptoms worsen or the disability progresses despite attempts to control the course through proper management.

Last Answer : a) Stable The stable phase indicates that the symptoms and disability are under control or managed.

Which of the following reflect the pathophysiology of cutaneous signs of HIV disease? a) Immune function deterioration Cutaneous signs may be the first manifestations of HIV, appearing in more than 90 per cent of HIV infected patients as the immune function deteriorates. Common complaints include pruritis, folliculitis, and chronic actinic dermatitis.

Description : Which of the following reflect the pathophysiology of cutaneous signs of HIV disease? a) Immune function deterioration Cutaneous signs may be the first manifestations of HIV, appearing in more ... Decrease in normal skin flora Cutaneous signs of HIV disease appear as immune function deteriorates.

Last Answer : a) Immune function deterioration Cutaneous signs may be the first manifestations of HIV, appearing in more than 90 per cent of HIV infected patients as the immune function deteriorates. Common complaints include pruritis, folliculitis, and chronic actinic dermatitis.

Which of the following ECG characteristics is usually seen when a patient’s serum potassium level is low? a) U wave The U wave is an ECG waveform characteristic that may reflect Purkinje fiber repolarization. It is usually seen when a patient’s serum potassium level is low. b) T wave The T wave is an ECG characteristic reflecting repolarization of the ventricles. It may become tall or “peaked” if a patient’s serum potassium level is high. c) P wave The P wave is an ECG characteristic reflecting conduction of an electrical impulse through the atria. d) QT interval The QT interval is an ECG characteristic reflecting the time from ventricular depolarization to repolarization.

Description : Which of the following ECG characteristics is usually seen when a patient's serum potassium level is low? a) U wave The U wave is an ECG waveform characteristic that may ... interval The QT interval is an ECG characteristic reflecting the time from ventricular depolarization to repolarization.

Last Answer : a) U wave The U wave is an ECG waveform characteristic that may reflect Purkinje fiber repolarization. It is usually seen when a patient’s serum potassium level is low.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning oxygen kinetics in a critically ill, febrile patient? a. Oxygen consumption will likely exceed three times normal b. The high cardiac output and pulse rate are designed to increase oxygen delivery c. The hyperdynamic response may actually increase oxygen delivery to exceed the increase in oxygen consumption d. The patient can maintain adequate compensation as long as the oxygen delivery/oxygen consumption rate is greater than 2:1

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning oxygen kinetics in a critically ill, febrile patient? a. Oxygen consumption will likely exceed three times normal b. The high cardiac ... adequate compensation as long as the oxygen delivery/oxygen consumption rate is greater than 2:1

Last Answer : Answer: b, d In critically ill patients oxygen consumption may be elevated or depressed, but slight to moderate elevations in oxygen consumption is the most common abnormality in critically ill patients. ... however, and the patient will remain stable as long as the ratio is greater than 2:1

Which of the following statements reflects the nursing management of the patient with West Nile Virus infection? There is no treatment for West Nile Virus infection. Patients are supported by fluid replacement, airway management, and standard nursing care support during the time that the patient has meningitis symptoms. a) The incubation period is three to five days. The incubation period (from mosquito bite until onset of symptoms) is between 5–15 days.

Description : Which of the following statements reflects the nursing management of the patient with West Nile Virus infection? There is no treatment for West Nile Virus infection. Patients are supported by fluid replacement ... the virus to animals and humans. There is no human-to-human transmission of virus.

Last Answer : a) The incubation period is three to five days. The incubation period (from mosquito bite until onset of symptoms) is between 5–15 days.

The nurse teaches the patient with a high risk for osteoporosis about risk-lowering strategies including which of the following statements? a) Walk or perform weight-bearing exercises out of doors. Risk-lowering strategies for osteoporosis include walking or exercising out of doors, performing a regular weight-bearing exercise regimen, increasing dietary calcium and vitamin D intake, smoking cessation, and consuming alcohol and caffeine consumption in moderation.

Description : The nurse teaches the patient with a high risk for osteoporosis about risk-lowering strategies including which of the following statements? a) Walk or perform weight-bearing exercises out ... alcohol and caffeine consumption in moderation, and performing a regular weight-bearing exercise regimen.

Last Answer : a) Walk or perform weight-bearing exercises out of doors. Risk-lowering strategies for osteoporosis include walking or exercising out of doors, performing a regular weight-bearing exercise ... and vitamin D intake, smoking cessation, and consuming alcohol and caffeine consumption in moderation.

Which of the following statements reflects information to be included when teaching the patient about plantar fasciitis? a) Management of plantar fasciitis includes stretching exercises. Management also includes wearing shoes with support and cushioning to relieve pain, orthotic devices (e.g., heel cups, arch supports), and the use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).

Description : Which of the following statements reflects information to be included when teaching the patient about plantar fasciitis? a) Management of plantar fasciitis includes stretching exercises. ... Complications of plantar fasciitis include neuromuscular damage and decreased ankle range of motion.

Last Answer : a) Management of plantar fasciitis includes stretching exercises. Management also includes wearing shoes with support and cushioning to relieve pain, orthotic devices (e.g., heel cups, arch supports), and the use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).

The nurse teaches the patient with allergies about anaphylaxis including which of the following statements? a) The most common cause of anaphylaxis is penicillin. The most common cause of anaphylaxis, accounting for about 75% of fatal anaphylactic reactions in the U.S., is penicillin.

Description : The nurse teaches the patient with allergies about anaphylaxis including which of the following statements? a) The most common cause of anaphylaxis is penicillin. The most common ... 30 minutes of exposure involving cardiovascular, respiratory, gastrointestinal, and integumentary organ systems.

Last Answer : a) The most common cause of anaphylaxis is penicillin. The most common cause of anaphylaxis, accounting for about 75% of fatal anaphylactic reactions in the U.S., is penicillin.

Which of the following statements reflects nursing care of the woman with mild to moderate ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS)? a) Advise the patient to decrease her activity, monitor her urine output and to return for frequent office visits. Management in mild and moderate cases of OHSS consists of decreased activity, monitoring of urine output and frequent office visits as designated by the reproductive endocrinologist.

Description : Which of the following statements reflects nursing care of the woman with mild to moderate ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS)? a) Advise the patient to decrease her activity, monitor ... for immediate hospitalization. The patient with severe OHSS is hospitalized for monitoring and treatment.

Last Answer : a) Advise the patient to decrease her activity, monitor her urine output and to return for frequent office visits. Management in mild and moderate cases of OHSS consists of decreased activity, monitoring of urine output and frequent office visits as designated by the reproductive endocrinologist.

The nurse teaches the patient about glargine (Lantus), a “peakless” basal insulin including which of the following statements? a) Do not mix the drug with other insulins Because glargine is in a suspension with a pH of 4, it cannot be mixed with other insulins because this would cause precipitation. When administering glargine (Lantus) insulin it is very important to read the label carefully and to avoid mistaking Lantus insulin for Lente insulin and vice versa.

Description : The nurse teaches the patient about glargine (Lantus), a peakless basal insulin including which of the following statements? a) Do not mix the drug with other insulins Because glargine is in a ... action Glargine is a peakless basal insulin that is absorbed very slowly over a 24-hour period.

Last Answer : a) Do not mix the drug with other insulins Because glargine is in a suspension with a pH of 4, it cannot be mixed with other insulins because this would cause precipitation. When administering ... to read the label carefully and to avoid mistaking Lantus insulin for Lente insulin and vice versa.

The nurse teaches the patient about diabetes including which of the following statements? a) Elevated blood glucose levels contribute to complications of diabetes, such as diminished vision. When blood glucose levels are well controlled, the potential for complications of diabetes is reduced.

Description : The nurse teaches the patient about diabetes including which of the following statements? a) Elevated blood glucose levels contribute to complications of diabetes, such as diminished vision. When blood ... be able to resume previous methods for control of diabetes when the stress is resolved.

Last Answer : a) Elevated blood glucose levels contribute to complications of diabetes, such as diminished vision. When blood glucose levels are well controlled, the potential for complications of diabetes is reduced.

68. The senior asked Marina to list nursing interventions for the nursing diagnosis “Ineffective tissue perfusion: peripheral”. From the following list, which intervention will the senior nurse consider to be contraindicated?

Description : 68. The senior asked Marina to list nursing interventions for the nursing diagnosis “Ineffective tissue perfusion: peripheral”. From the following list, which intervention will the senior nurse consider to be contraindicated?

Last Answer : D. Maintain both extremities in a dependent position

To confirm the diagnosis of cholecystitis, the attending physician ordered a procedure that can detect gallstones as small as 1 – 2 cm and inflammation. The nurse would prepare the client for which specific diagnostic procedure? A. Cholangiography B. Ultrasonography C. Gall bladder series D. Oral cholecystogram

Description : To confirm the diagnosis of cholecystitis, the attending physician ordered a procedure that can detect gallstones as small as 1 - 2 cm and inflammation. The nurse would prepare ... specific diagnostic procedure? A. Cholangiography B. Ultrasonography C. Gall bladder series D. Oral cholecystogram

Last Answer : B. Ultrasonography

Foodborne microbes can be found ina. cattle carcasses. b. fresh fruits and vegetables. c. healthy animals. d. All the above (A—C) are correct.

Description : Foodborne microbes can be found in a. cattle carcasses. b. fresh fruits and vegetables. c. healthy animals. d. All the above (A—C) are correct.

Last Answer : d. All the above (A—C) are correct.

A long thread-Like RNA virus is typical of the viruses. a. hepatitis C b. Ebola c. polio d. West Nile

Description : A long thread-Like RNA virus is typical of the viruses. a. hepatitis C b. Ebola c. polio d. West Nile

Last Answer : b. Ebola