The individual who demonstrates displacement of the sternum is described as having a a) pigeon chest. Pigeon chest may occur with rickets, Marfan’s syndrome, or severe kyphoscoliosis. b) barrel chest. A barrel chest is seen in patients with emphysema as a result of overinflation of the lungs. c) funnel chest. A funnel chest occurs when there is a depression in the lower portion of the sternum. d) kyphoscoliosis. Kyphoscoliosis is characterized by elevation of the scapula and a corresponding S-shaped spine.

The individual who demonstrates displacement of the sternum
is described as having a
a) pigeon chest.
Pigeon chest may occur with rickets, Marfan’s syndrome, or severe
kyphoscoliosis.
b) barrel chest.
A barrel chest is seen in patients with emphysema as a result of overinflation of the lungs.
c) funnel chest.
A funnel chest occurs when there is a depression in the lower portion
of the sternum.
d) kyphoscoliosis.
Kyphoscoliosis is characterized by elevation of the scapula and a
corresponding S-shaped spine.
by

1 Answer

Answer :

a) pigeon chest.
Pigeon chest may occur with rickets, Marfan’s syndrome, or severe
kyphoscoliosis.
by

Related questions

Which type of chest configuration is typical of the patient with COPD? a) Barrel chest “Barrel chest” results from fixation of the ribs in the inspiratory position. b) Pigeon chest Pigeon chest results from a displaced sternum. c) Flail chest Flail chest results when the ribs are fractured. d) Funnel chest Funnel chest occurs when there is a depression in the lower portion of the sternum and is associated with Mafan’s syndrome or rickets.

Description : Which type of chest configuration is typical of the patient with COPD? a) Barrel chest Barrel chest results from fixation of the ribs in the inspiratory position. b) Pigeon chest Pigeon chest ... depression in the lower portion of the sternum and is associated with Mafan's syndrome or rickets.

Last Answer : a) Barrel chest “Barrel chest” results from fixation of the ribs in the inspiratory position.

Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the nurse to take when the patient demonstrates subcutaneous emphysema along the suture line or chest dressing 2 hours after chest surgery? a) Record the observation. Subcutaneous emphysema occurs after chest surgery as the air that is located within the pleural cavity is expelled through the tissue opening created by the surgical procedure.

Description : Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the nurse to take when the patient demonstrates subcutaneous emphysema along the suture line or chest dressing 2 hours after chest ... finding to the physician immediately. Subcutaneous emphysema results from air entering the tissue planes.

Last Answer : a) Record the observation. Subcutaneous emphysema occurs after chest surgery as the air that is located within the pleural cavity is expelled through the tissue opening created by the surgical procedure.

When x-ray demonstrates a fracture in which the fragments of bone are driven inward, the fracture is described as a) depressed. Depressed skull fractures occur as a result of blunt trauma.

Description : When x-ray demonstrates a fracture in which the fragments of bone are driven inward, the fracture is described as a) depressed. Depressed skull fractures occur as a result of blunt trauma. b) ... impacted. An impacted fracture is one in which a bone fragment is driven into another bone fragment.

Last Answer : a) depressed. Depressed skull fractures occur as a result of blunt trauma.

Emphysema is described as: a) A disease of the airways characterized by destruction of the walls of overdistended alveoli. Emphysema is a category of COPD. b) A disease that results in a common clinical outcome of reversible airflow obstruction. Asthma is the disease described. c) The presence of cough and sputum production for at least a combined total of two or three months in each of two consecutive years. Bronchitis is the disease described. d) Chronic dilatation of a bronchus or bronchi Bronchiectasis is the condition described.

Description : Emphysema is described as: a) A disease of the airways characterized by destruction of the walls of overdistended alveoli. Emphysema is a category of COPD. b) A disease that results in ... disease described. d) Chronic dilatation of a bronchus or bronchi Bronchiectasis is the condition described.

Last Answer : a) A disease of the airways characterized by destruction of the walls of overdistended alveoli. Emphysema is a category of COPD.

Which of the following disorders is characterized by a group of symptoms produced by an excess of free circulating cortisol from the adrenal cortex? a) Cushing’s syndrome The patient with Cushing’s syndrome demonstrates truncal obesity, moon face, acne, abdominal striae, and hypertension.

Description : Which of the following disorders is characterized by a group of symptoms produced by an excess of free circulating cortisol from the adrenal cortex? a) Cushing's syndrome The patient ... individual with Hashimoto's disease demonstrates inflammation of the thyroid gland, resulting in hypothyroidism.

Last Answer : a) Cushing’s syndrome The patient with Cushing’s syndrome demonstrates truncal obesity, moon face, acne, abdominal striae, and hypertension.

When the patient’s eosinophil count is 50-90% of blood leukocytes, the nurse interprets the result as a) indicative of idiopathic hypereosinophilic syndrome. When eosinophils make up 50-90% of white cell count, the patient is demonstrating severe eosinophilia.

Description : When the patient's eosinophil count is 50-90% of blood leukocytes, the nurse interprets the result as a) indicative of idiopathic hypereosinophilic syndrome. When eosinophils make up 50-90% of white cell ... d) normal. Eosinophils normally make up 1-3% of the total number of white blood cells.

Last Answer : a) indicative of idiopathic hypereosinophilic syndrome. When eosinophils make up 50-90% of white cell count, the patient is demonstrating severe eosinophilia.

When the post-cardiac surgical patient demonstrates vasodilation, hypotension, hyporeflexia, slow gastrointestinal motility (hypoactive bowel sounds), lethargy, and respiratory depression, the nurse suspects which of the following electrolyte imbalances? a) Hypermagnesemia Untreated hypomagnesemia may result in coma, apnea, cardiac arrest.

Description : When the post-cardiac surgical patient demonstrates vasodilation, hypotension, hyporeflexia, slow gastrointestinal motility (hypoactive bowel sounds), lethargy, and respiratory depression, the nurse suspects ... and QT intervals, broad flat T waves), disorientation, depression, and hypotension.

Last Answer : a) Hypermagnesemia Untreated hypomagnesemia may result in coma, apnea, cardiac arrest.

The nurse auscultates the apex beat at which of the following anatomical locations? a) Fifth intercostal space, midclavicular line The left ventricle is responsible for the apex beat or the point of maximum impulse, which is normally palpable in the left midclavicular line of the chest wall at the fifth intercostal space. b) Mid-sternum The right ventricle lies anteriorly, just beneath the sternum. c) 2” to the left of the lower end of the sternum Use of inches to identify the location of the apex beat is inappropriate based upon variations in human anatomy. d) 1” to the left of the xiphoid process Auscultation below and to the left of the xiphoid process will detect gastrointestinal sounds, but not the apex beat of the heart.

Description : The nurse auscultates the apex beat at which of the following anatomical locations? a) Fifth intercostal space, midclavicular line The left ventricle is responsible for the apex beat or the point of ... of the xiphoid process will detect gastrointestinal sounds, but not the apex beat of the heart.

Last Answer : a) Fifth intercostal space, midclavicular line The left ventricle is responsible for the apex beat or the point of maximum impulse, which is normally palpable in the left midclavicular line of the chest wall at the fifth intercostal space.

Which type of sleep apnea is characterized by lack of airflow due to pharyngeal occlusion? a) Obstructive Obstructive sleep apnea occurs usually in men, especially those who are older and overweight. b) Simple Types of sleep apnea do not include a simple characterization. c) Mixed Mixed sleep apnea is a combination of central and obstructive apnea with one apneic episode. d) Central In central sleep apnea, the patient demonstrates simultaneous cessation of both airflow and respiratory movements.

Description : Which type of sleep apnea is characterized by lack of airflow due to pharyngeal occlusion? a) Obstructive Obstructive sleep apnea occurs usually in men, especially those who are older ... central sleep apnea, the patient demonstrates simultaneous cessation of both airflow and respiratory movements.

Last Answer : a) Obstructive Obstructive sleep apnea occurs usually in men, especially those who are older and overweight.

In which phase of the trajectory model of chronic illness are the symptoms under control and managed? a) Stable The stable phase indicates that the symptoms and disability are under control or managed. b) Acute The acute phase is characterized by sudden onset of severe or unrelieved symptoms or complications that may necessitate hospitalization for their management. c) Comeback The comeback phase is the period in the trajectory marked by recovery after an acute period. d) Downward The downward phase occurs when symptoms worsen or the disability progresses despite attempts to control the course through proper management.

Description : In which phase of the trajectory model of chronic illness are the symptoms under control and managed? a) Stable The stable phase indicates that the symptoms and disability are under ... symptoms worsen or the disability progresses despite attempts to control the course through proper management.

Last Answer : a) Stable The stable phase indicates that the symptoms and disability are under control or managed.

Which of the phases of a migraine headache usually lasts less than an hour? a) Aura The aura phase occurs in about 20% of patients who have migraines and may be characterized by focal neurological symptoms.

Description : Which of the phases of a migraine headache usually lasts less than an hour? a) Aura The aura phase occurs in about 20% of patients who have migraines and may be characterized by focal neurological ... to 72 hours. d) Recovery During the post-headache phase, patients may sleep for extended periods.

Last Answer : a) Aura The aura phase occurs in about 20% of patients who have migraines and may be characterized by focal neurological symptoms.

When x-ray demonstrates a fracture in which bone has splintered into several pieces, that fracture is described as a) comminuted. A comminuted fracture may require open reduction and internal fixation.

Description : When x-ray demonstrates a fracture in which bone has splintered into several pieces, that fracture is described as a) comminuted. A comminuted fracture may require open reduction and internal fixation. b ... . An impacted fracture is one in which a bone fragment is driven into another bone fragment.

Last Answer : a) comminuted. A comminuted fracture may require open reduction and internal fixation.

Which of the following states is characterized by a decline in intellectual functioning? a) Dementia Dementia is an acquired syndrome in which progressive deterioration in global intellectual abilities is of such severity that it interferes with the person’s customary occupational and social performance. b) Depression Depression is a mood disorder that disrupts quality of life. c) Delirium Delirium is often called acute confusional state. d) Delusion Delusion is a symptom of psychoses.

Description : Which of the following states is characterized by a decline in intellectual functioning? a) Dementia Dementia is an acquired syndrome in which progressive deterioration in global intellectual abilities is of ... is often called acute confusional state. d) Delusion Delusion is a symptom of psychoses.

Last Answer : a) Dementia Dementia is an acquired syndrome in which progressive deterioration in global intellectual abilities is of such severity that it interferes with the person’s customary occupational and social performance.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning heparin-associated thrombocytopenia? a. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia occurs only in the face of over anticoagulation with heparin b. Severe thrombocytopenia (platelet count less than 100,000) is seen in less than 10% of patients treated with heparin c. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia is due to the aggregation of platelets and may result in thrombosis or embolic episodes d. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia may be seen within hours of initiation of heparin therapy

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning heparin-associated thrombocytopenia? a. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia occurs only in the face of over anticoagulation with heparin b. ... d. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia may be seen within hours of initiation of heparin therapy

Last Answer : Answer: b, c Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia occurs in 0.6% to 30% of patients who receive heparin, although severe thrombocytopenia (platelet counts less than 100,000) is seen in ... as coating on pulmonary artery catheters or low rate infusion into arterial catheters may cause this syndrome

The nurse notes that the patient demonstrates generalized pallor and recognizes that this finding may be indicative of a) anemia. In the light-skinned individual, generalized pallor is a manifestation of anemia. In brown- and black-skinned individuals, anemia is demonstrated as a dull skin appearance.

Description : The nurse notes that the patient demonstrates generalized pallor and recognizes that this finding may be indicative of a) anemia. In the light-skinned individual, generalized pallor is a ... . d) local arterial insufficiency. Local arterial insufficiency is characterized by marked localized pallor.

Last Answer : a) anemia. In the light-skinned individual, generalized pallor is a manifestation of anemia. In brown- and black-skinned individuals, anemia is demonstrated as a dull skin appearance.

Which of the following phases of psychological reaction to rape is characterized by fear and flashbacks? a) Heightening anxiety phase During the heightened anxiety phase, the patient demonstrates anxiety, hyperalertness, and psychosomatic reactions, in addition to fear and flashbacks.

Description : Which of the following phases of psychological reaction to rape is characterized by fear and flashbacks? a) Heightening anxiety phase During the heightened anxiety phase, the patient demonstrates anxiety, ... the incident is put into perspective. Some patients never fully recover from rape trauma.

Last Answer : a) Heightening anxiety phase During the heightened anxiety phase, the patient demonstrates anxiety, hyperalertness, and psychosomatic reactions, in addition to fear and flashbacks.

Nondisjunction of a chromosome results in which of the following diagnoses? a) Down Syndrome When a pair of chromosomes fails to separate completely and creates a sperm or oocyte that contains two copies of a particular chromosome (nondisjunction) Down syndrome results from three number 21 chromosomes. b) Huntingon Disease Huntington disease is one example of a germ-line mutation. c) Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy Duchenne muscular dystrophy, an inherited form of muscular dystrophy, is an example of a genetic caused by structural gene mutations. d) Marphan Syndrome Marphan Syndrome is a genetic condition that may occur in a single family member as a result of spontaneous mutation.

Description : Nondisjunction of a chromosome results in which of the following diagnoses? a) Down Syndrome When a pair of chromosomes fails to separate completely and creates a sperm or oocyte that contains two ... genetic condition that may occur in a single family member as a result of spontaneous mutation.

Last Answer : a) Down Syndrome When a pair of chromosomes fails to separate completely and creates a sperm or oocyte that contains two copies of a particular chromosome (nondisjunction) Down syndrome results from three number 21 chromosomes.

When the nurse notes that the post cardiac surgery patient demonstrates low urine output (< 25 ml/hr) with high specific gravity (> 1.025), the nurse suspects: a) Inadequate fluid volume Urine output of less than 25 ml/hr may indicate a decrease in cardiac output. A high specific gravity indicates increased concentration of solutes in the urine which occurs with inadequate fluid volume. b) Normal glomerular filtration Indices of normal glomerular filtration are output of 25 ml or greater per hour and specific gravity between 1.010 and 1.025. c) Overhydration Overhydration is manifested by high urine output with low specific gravity. d) Anuria The anuric patient does not produce urine.

Description : When the nurse notes that the post cardiac surgery patient demonstrates low urine output (< 25 ml/hr) with high specific gravity (> 1.025), the nurse suspects: a) Inadequate fluid volume Urine ... by high urine output with low specific gravity. d) Anuria The anuric patient does not produce urine.

Last Answer : a) Inadequate fluid volume Urine output of less than 25 ml/hr may indicate a decrease in cardiac output. A high specific gravity indicates increased concentration of solutes in the urine which occurs with inadequate fluid volume.

When the patient who has experienced trauma to an extremity complains of severe burning pain, vasomotor changes, and muscles spasms in the injured extremity, the nurse recognizes that the patient is likely demonstrating signs of a) reflex sympathetic dystrophy syndrome. RSD is frequently chronic and occurs most often in women.

Description : When the patient who has experienced trauma to an extremity complains of severe burning pain, vasomotor changes, and muscles spasms in the injured extremity, the nurse ... heterotrophic ossification. Heterotrophic ossification causes muscular pain and limited muscular contraction and movement.

Last Answer : a) reflex sympathetic dystrophy syndrome. RSD is frequently chronic and occurs most often in women.

When the nurse notes that the patient’s left great toe deviates laterally, she recognizes that the patient has a a) hallux valgus. Hallux valgus is commonly referred to as a bunion. b) hammertoe. Hammertoes are usually pulled upward. c) pes cavus. Pes cavus refers to a foot with an abnormally high arch and a fixed equinus deformity of the forefoot. d) flatfoot. In flatfoot, the patient demonstrates a diminished longitudinal arch of the foot.

Description : When the nurse notes that the patient's left great toe deviates laterally, she recognizes that the patient has a a) hallux valgus. Hallux valgus is commonly referred to as a bunion. b) ... the forefoot. d) flatfoot. In flatfoot, the patient demonstrates a diminished longitudinal arch of the foot.

Last Answer : a) hallux valgus. Hallux valgus is commonly referred to as a bunion.

The nurse reading the physician’s report of an elderly patient’s physical examination knows a notation that the patient demonstrates xanthelasma refers to a) yellowish waxy deposits on upper eyelids. The change is a common, benign manifestation of aging skin or it can sometimes signal hyperlipidemia.

Description : The nurse reading the physician's report of an elderly patient's physical examination knows a notation that the patient demonstrates xanthelasma refers to a) yellowish waxy deposits on upper eyelids. The change is ... red moles. Cherry angioma is the term that is used to describe a bright red mole.

Last Answer : a) yellowish waxy deposits on upper eyelids. The change is a common, benign manifestation of aging skin or it can sometimes signal hyperlipidemia.

When the post-cardiac surgery patient demonstrates restlessness, nausea, weakness, and peaked T waves, the nurse reviews the patient’s serum electrolytes anticipating which abnormality? a) Hyperkalemia Hyperkalemia is indicated by mental confusion, restlessness, nausea, weakness, and dysrhythmias (tall, peaked T waves). b) Hypercalcemia Hypercalcemia would likely be demonstrated by asystole. c) Hypomagnesemia Hypomagenesemia would likely be demonstrated by hypotension, lethargy, and vasodilation. d) Hyponatremia Hyponatremia would likely be indicated by weakness, fatigue, and confusion without change in T wave formation

Description : When the post-cardiac surgery patient demonstrates restlessness, nausea, weakness, and peaked T waves, the nurse reviews the patient's serum electrolytes anticipating which abnormality? a) Hyperkalemia ... likely be indicated by weakness, fatigue, and confusion without change in T wave formation

Last Answer : a) Hyperkalemia Hyperkalemia is indicated by mental confusion, restlessness, nausea, weakness, and dysrhythmias (tall, peaked T waves).

Which phase of the trajectory model of chronic illness is characterized by reactivation of the illness? a) Unstable The unstable phase is characterized by development of complications or reactivation of the illness. b) Stable The stable phase indicates that the symptoms and disability are under control or managed. c) Acute The acute phase is characterized by sudden onset of severe or unrelieved symptoms or complications that may necessitate hospitalization for their management. d) Comeback The comeback phase is the period in the trajectory marked by recovery after an acute period.

Description : Which phase of the trajectory model of chronic illness is characterized by reactivation of the illness? a) Unstable The unstable phase is characterized by development of complications or reactivation of the ... comeback phase is the period in the trajectory marked by recovery after an acute period.

Last Answer : a) Unstable The unstable phase is characterized by development of complications or reactivation of the illness.

Which stage of anesthesia is termed surgical anesthesia? a) III With proper administration of the anesthetic, this stage may be maintained for hours. b) I Stage I is beginning anesthesia, as the patient breathes in the anesthetic mixture and experiences warmth, dizziness, and a feeling of detachment. c) II Stage II is the excitement stage, which may be characterized by struggling, singing, laughing, or crying. d) IV Stage IV is a stage of medullary depression and is reached when too much anesthesia has been administered.

Description : Which stage of anesthesia is termed surgical anesthesia? a) III With proper administration of the anesthetic, this stage may be maintained for hours. b) I Stage I is beginning anesthesia, as the ... IV is a stage of medullary depression and is reached when too much anesthesia has been administered.

Last Answer : a) III With proper administration of the anesthetic, this stage may be maintained for hours.

Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column-I Column-II (A) Floating ribs (i) Located between second and seventh ribs (B) Acromion (ii) Head of the humerus (C) Scapula (iii) Clavicle (D) Glenoid cavity (iv) Do not connect with the sternum (A) (B) (C) (D) (a) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) (b) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) (c) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) (d) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

Description : Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column-I Column-II (A) Floating ribs (i) Located between second and seventh ribs (B) Acromion (ii) Head of the humerus (C) Scapula (iii) Clavicle (D) Glenoid cavity (iv) Do ... ) (ii) (iv) (c) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) (d) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

Last Answer : (d) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

Flight muscles of bird are attached to (a) clavicle (b) keel of sternum (c) scapula (d) coracoid.

Description : Flight muscles of bird are attached to (a) clavicle (b) keel of sternum (c) scapula (d) coracoid.

Last Answer : (b) keel of sternum

Which of the following statements describes benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)? a) The vertigo is usually accompanied by nausea and vomiting; however hearing impairment does not generally occur. BPPV is a brief period of incapacitating vertigo that occurs when the position of the patient’s head is changed with respect to gravity. The vertigo is usually accompanied by nausea and vomiting; however hearing impairment does not generally occur.

Description : Which of the following statements describes benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)? a) The vertigo is usually accompanied by nausea and vomiting; however hearing impairment does not generally occur. ... as acetaminophen. BPPV is frequently stimulated by head trauma, infection, or other events.

Last Answer : a) The vertigo is usually accompanied by nausea and vomiting; however hearing impairment does not generally occur. BPPV is a brief period of incapacitating vertigo that occurs when the ... vertigo is usually accompanied by nausea and vomiting; however hearing impairment does not generally occur.

The percentage of patients over the age of 70 admitted to the hospital with delirium is about a) 25%. About 25% of patients over the age of 70 admitted to the hospital have delirium. The cause is often reversible and treatable (as in drug toxicity, vitamin B12 deficiency or thyroid disease) or chronic and irreversible. Depression may produce impairment of attention and memory.

Description : The percentage of patients over the age of 70 admitted to the hospital with delirium is about a) 25%. About 25% of patients over the age of 70 admitted to the hospital have delirium. The cause is ... delirium. d) 50%. About 25% of patients over the age of 70 admitted to the hospital have delirium.

Last Answer : a) 25%. About 25% of patients over the age of 70 admitted to the hospital have delirium. The cause is often reversible and treatable (as in drug toxicity, vitamin B12 deficiency or thyroid disease) or chronic and irreversible. Depression may produce impairment of attention and memory.

Which of the following observations regarding ulcer formation on the patient’s lower extremity indicate to the nurse that the ulcer is a result of venous insufficiency? a) The border of the ulcer is irregular. The border of an ulcer caused by arterial insufficiency is circular. b) The ulcer is very painful to the patient, even though superficial. Superficial venous insufficiency ulcers cause minimal pain. c) The ulcer base is pale to black. The base of a venous insufficiency ulcer shows beefy red to yellow fibrinous color. d) The ulcer is deep, involving the joint space. Venous insufficiency ulcers are usually superficial.

Description : Which of the following observations regarding ulcer formation on the patient's lower extremity indicate to the nurse that the ulcer is a result of venous insufficiency? a) The border of the ... d) The ulcer is deep, involving the joint space. Venous insufficiency ulcers are usually superficial.

Last Answer : a) The border of the ulcer is irregular. The border of an ulcer caused by arterial insufficiency is circular.

yo presented by hx of syncope when he do excurses and there was hix of same complain when he on rest . and there is chest pain on ex. There was ejection systolic murmur 2-4 degree most side is lower lf sternum not radiating to other site increase when he lying down and there is non specific s and t changing and there is lf atrium enlargement Aortic stenosis p.s hypertrophic cardiomyopathy constrictive cardiomyopathy

Description : yo presented by hx of syncope when he do excurses and there was hix of same complain when he on rest . and there is chest pain on ex. There was ejection systolic murmur ... t changing and there is lf atrium enlargement Aortic stenosis p.s hypertrophic cardiomyopathy constrictive cardiomyopathy

Last Answer : Aortic stenosis

Which of the following terms refers to chest pain brought on by physical or emotional stress and relieved by rest or medication? a) angina pectoris Angina pectoris is a symptom of myocardial ischemia. b) atherosclerosis Atherosclerosis is an abnormal accumulation of lipid deposits and fibrous tissue within arterial walls and lumens. c) atheroma Atheromas are fibrous caps composed of smooth muscle cells that form over lipid deposits within arterial vessels. d) ischemia Ischemia is insufficient tissue oxygenation and may occur in any part of the body.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to chest pain brought on by physical or emotional stress and relieved by rest or medication? a) angina pectoris Angina pectoris is a symptom of myocardial ischemia. ... d) ischemia Ischemia is insufficient tissue oxygenation and may occur in any part of the body.

Last Answer : a) angina pectoris Angina pectoris is a symptom of myocardial ischemia.

Which of the following diseases is a rare, transmissible, progressive fatal disease of the central nervous system characterized by spongiform degeneration of the gray matter of the brain? a) Creutzfeldt-Jakob’s disease The disease causes severe dementia and myoclonus.

Description : Which of the following diseases is a rare, transmissible, progressive fatal disease of the central nervous system characterized by spongiform degeneration of the gray matter of the brain? a) ... disease of the nervous system that results in progressive involuntary dance-like movement and dementia.

Last Answer : a) Creutzfeldt-Jakob’s disease The disease causes severe dementia and myoclonus.

Which of the following conditions of the inner ear is associated with normal hearing? a) Vestibular neuronitis Vestibular neuronitis is a disorder of the vestibular nerve characterized by severe vertigo with normal hearing.

Description : Which of the following conditions of the inner ear is associated with normal hearing? a) Vestibular neuronitis Vestibular neuronitis is a disorder of the vestibular nerve characterized by ... Endolymphatic hydrops refers to dilation in the endolymmphatic space associated with Meniere's disease.

Last Answer : a) Vestibular neuronitis Vestibular neuronitis is a disorder of the vestibular nerve characterized by severe vertigo with normal hearing.

Which of the following terms has been defined by the American Psychiatric Association as a group of behavioral or psychological symptoms or a pattern that manifests itself in significant distress, impaired functioning, or accentuated risk of enduring severe suffering or possible death? a) Mental disorder The definition was adopted by the American Psychiatric Association in 1994. b) Emotional disorder There is no universally accepted definition of what constitutes an emotional disorder. c) Anxiety Anxiety is defined as fear of the unknown. d) Schizophrenia Schizophrenia is a specific disorder characterized by psychosis.

Description : Which of the following terms has been defined by the American Psychiatric Association as a group of behavioral or psychological symptoms or a pattern that manifests itself in significant distress ... of the unknown. d) Schizophrenia Schizophrenia is a specific disorder characterized by psychosis.

Last Answer : a) Mental disorder The definition was adopted by the American Psychiatric Association in 1994.

The Emergency Department nurse teaches patients with sports injuries to remember the acronym RICE, which stands for which of the following combinations of treatment? a) Rest, ice, compression, elevation RICE is used for the treatment of contusions, sprains, and strains.

Description : The Emergency Department nurse teaches patients with sports injuries to remember the acronym RICE, which stands for which of the following combinations of treatment? a) Rest, ice, compression ... contraindicated when injury is suspected, and examination, while indicated, does not provide treatment.

Last Answer : a) Rest, ice, compression, elevation RICE is used for the treatment of contusions, sprains, and strains.

Korsakoff’s syndrome is characterized by a) psychosis, disorientation, delirium, insomnia, and hallucinations. Korsakoff’s syndrome is a personality disorder characterized by psychosis, disorientation, delirium, insomnia, and hallucinations.

Description : Korsakoff's syndrome is characterized by a) psychosis, disorientation, delirium, insomnia, and hallucinations. Korsakoff's syndrome is a personality disorder characterized by psychosis, ... Huntington's disease results in progressive involuntary choreiform (dancelike) movement and dementia.

Last Answer : a) psychosis, disorientation, delirium, insomnia, and hallucinations. Korsakoff’s syndrome is a personality disorder characterized by psychosis, disorientation, delirium, insomnia, and hallucinations.

In which stage of COPD is the forced expiratory volume (FEV1) < 30%? a) III Stage III patients demonstrate FEV1 < 30% with respiratory failure or clinical signs of right heart failure b) II Stage II patients demonstrate FEV1 between > 30% and 80% c) I Stage I is mild COPD with FEV1 < 70%. d) O Stage O is characterized by normal spirometry

Description : In which stage of COPD is the forced expiratory volume (FEV1) < 30%? a) III Stage III patients demonstrate FEV1 < 30% with respiratory failure or clinical signs of right heart failure b) II Stage II ... I Stage I is mild COPD with FEV1 < 70%. d) O Stage O is characterized by normal spirometry

Last Answer : a) III Stage III patients demonstrate FEV1 < 30% with respiratory failure or clinical signs of right heart failure

Which stage of shock is best described as that stage when the mechanisms that regulate blood pressure fail to sustain a systolic pressure above 90 mm Hg? a) Progressive In the progressive stage of shock, the mechanisms that regulate blood pressure can no longer compensate, and the mean arterial pressure falls below normal limits. b) Refractory The refractory or irreversible stage of shock represents the point at which organ damage is so severe that the patient does not respond to treatment and cannot survive.

Description : Which stage of shock is best described as that stage when the mechanisms that regulate blood pressure fail to sustain a systolic pressure above 90 mm Hg? a) Progressive In the progressive stage of ... which organ damage is so severe that the patient does not respond to treatment and cannot survive.

Last Answer : a) Progressive In the progressive stage of shock, the mechanisms that regulate blood pressure can no longer compensate, and the mean arterial pressure falls below normal limits.

When performing endotracheal suctioning, the nurse applies suctioning while withdrawing and gently rotating the catheter 360 degrees for which of the following time periods? a) 10-15 seconds In general, the nurse should apply suction no longer than 10-15 seconds because hypoxia and dysrhythmias may develop, leading to cardiac arrest. b) 30-35 seconds Applying suction for 30-35 seconds is hazardous and may result in the patient’s developing hypoxia, which can lead to dysrhythmias and, ultimately, cardiac arrest.

Description : When performing endotracheal suctioning, the nurse applies suctioning while withdrawing and gently rotating the catheter 360 degrees for which of the following time periods? a) 10-15 seconds In general ... suction for 0-5 seconds would provide too little time for effective suctioning of secretions.

Last Answer : a) 10-15 seconds In general, the nurse should apply suction no longer than 10-15 seconds because hypoxia and dysrhythmias may develop, leading to cardiac arrest.

According to the American Society of Anesthesiology Physical Status Classification System, a patient with severe systemic disease that is not incapacitating is noted to have physical status classification a) P3 Classification P3 patients are those who have compensated heart failure, cirrhosis, or poorly controlled diabetes, for example. b) P4 Classification P4 patients have an incapacitating systemic disease that is a constant threat to life. c) P1 Classification P1 refers to a normal healthy patient d) P2 Classification P2 reflects a patient with mild systemic disease

Description : According to the American Society of Anesthesiology Physical Status Classification System, a patient with severe systemic disease that is not incapacitating is noted to have physical status ... normal healthy patient d) P2 Classification P2 reflects a patient with mild systemic disease

Last Answer : a) P3 Classification P3 patients are those who have compensated heart failure, cirrhosis, or poorly controlled diabetes, for example.

Regarding tolerance and addiction, the nurse understands that a) although patients may need increasing levels of opioids, they are not addicted. Physical tolerance usually occurs in the absence of addiction. b) tolerance to opioids is uncommon. Tolerance to opioids is common. c) addiction to opioids commonly develops. Addiction to opioids is rare. d) the nurse must be primarily concerned about development of addiction by the patient in pain. Addiction is rare and should never be the primary concern for a patient in pain.

Description : Regarding tolerance and addiction, the nurse understands that a) although patients may need increasing levels of opioids, they are not addicted. Physical tolerance usually occurs in the absence of addiction. b ... pain. Addiction is rare and should never be the primary concern for a patient in pain.

Last Answer : a) although patients may need increasing levels of opioids, they are not addicted. Physical tolerance usually occurs in the absence of addiction.

Which of the following categories of medications may result in seizure activity if withdrawn suddenly? a) Tranquilizers Abrupt withdrawal of tranquilizers may result in anxiety, tension, and even seizures if withdrawn suddenly. b) Adrenal corticosteroids Abrupt withdrawal of steroids may precipitate cardiovascular collapse. c) Antidepressants Monoamine oxidase inhibitors increase the hypotensive effects of anesthetics. d) Diuretics Thiazide diuretics may cause excessive respiratory depression during anesthesia due to an associated electrolyte imbalance.

Description : Which of the following categories of medications may result in seizure activity if withdrawn suddenly? a) Tranquilizers Abrupt withdrawal of tranquilizers may result in anxiety, tension, ... may cause excessive respiratory depression during anesthesia due to an associated electrolyte imbalance.

Last Answer : a) Tranquilizers Abrupt withdrawal of tranquilizers may result in anxiety, tension, and even seizures if withdrawn suddenly.

Which of the following ECG characteristics is usually seen when a patient’s serum potassium level is low? a) U wave The U wave is an ECG waveform characteristic that may reflect Purkinje fiber repolarization. It is usually seen when a patient’s serum potassium level is low. b) T wave The T wave is an ECG characteristic reflecting repolarization of the ventricles. It may become tall or “peaked” if a patient’s serum potassium level is high. c) P wave The P wave is an ECG characteristic reflecting conduction of an electrical impulse through the atria. d) QT interval The QT interval is an ECG characteristic reflecting the time from ventricular depolarization to repolarization.

Description : Which of the following ECG characteristics is usually seen when a patient's serum potassium level is low? a) U wave The U wave is an ECG waveform characteristic that may ... interval The QT interval is an ECG characteristic reflecting the time from ventricular depolarization to repolarization.

Last Answer : a) U wave The U wave is an ECG waveform characteristic that may reflect Purkinje fiber repolarization. It is usually seen when a patient’s serum potassium level is low.

Of the following stages of grieving as described by Kubler-Ross, which is the initial? a) Denial The stages include: denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance. b) Anger Anger is the second stage of the process. c) Bargaining Bargaining is the third stage of the process. d) Depression Depression is the fourth stage of the process.

Description : Of the following stages of grieving as described by Kubler-Ross, which is the initial? a) Denial The stages include: denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance. b) Anger Anger is the second ... is the third stage of the process. d) Depression Depression is the fourth stage of the process.

Last Answer : a) Denial The stages include: denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance.

Bone density testing in patients with post-polio syndrome has demonstrated a) low bone mass and osteoporosis. Bone density testing in patients with post-polio syndrome has demonstrated low bone mass and osteoporosis. Thus, the importance of identifying risks, preventing falls, and treating osteoporosis must be discussed with patients and their families.

Description : Bone density testing in patients with post-polio syndrome has demonstrated a) low bone mass and osteoporosis. Bone density testing in patients with post-polio syndrome has demonstrated low bone ... density testing in patients with post-polio syndrome has demonstrated low bone mass and osteoporosis.

Last Answer : a) low bone mass and osteoporosis. Bone density testing in patients with post-polio syndrome has demonstrated low bone mass and osteoporosis. Thus, the importance of identifying risks, preventing falls, and treating osteoporosis must be discussed with patients and their families.