When x-ray demonstrates a fracture in which bone has splintered into several pieces, that fracture is described as a) comminuted. A comminuted fracture may require open reduction and internal fixation.

When x-ray demonstrates a fracture in which bone has
splintered into several pieces, that fracture is described as
a) comminuted.
A comminuted fracture may require open reduction and internal
fixation.
b) compound.
A compound fracture is one in which damage also involves the skin or
mucous membranes.
c) depressed.
A depressed fracture is one in which fragments are driven inward.
d) impacted.
An impacted fracture is one in which a bone fragment is driven into
another bone fragment.
by

1 Answer

Answer :

a) comminuted.
A comminuted fracture may require open reduction and internal
fixation.
by

Related questions

When x-ray demonstrates a fracture in which the fragments of bone are driven inward, the fracture is described as a) depressed. Depressed skull fractures occur as a result of blunt trauma.

Description : When x-ray demonstrates a fracture in which the fragments of bone are driven inward, the fracture is described as a) depressed. Depressed skull fractures occur as a result of blunt trauma. b) ... impacted. An impacted fracture is one in which a bone fragment is driven into another bone fragment.

Last Answer : a) depressed. Depressed skull fractures occur as a result of blunt trauma.

Surgical fusion of a joint is termed a) arthrodesis. Arthrodesis of a joint is created surgically to treat chronic pain. b) open reduction with internal fixation (ORIF). ORIF refers to surgery to repair and stabilize a fracture. c) heterotrophic ossification. Heterotrophic ossification refers to formation of bone in the periprosthetic space. d) arthroplasty. Arthroplasty refers to surgical repair of a joint or joint replacement.

Description : Surgical fusion of a joint is termed a) arthrodesis. Arthrodesis of a joint is created surgically to treat chronic pain. b) open reduction with internal fixation (ORIF). ORIF refers to ... periprosthetic space. d) arthroplasty. Arthroplasty refers to surgical repair of a joint or joint replacement.

Last Answer : a) arthrodesis. Arthrodesis of a joint is created surgically to treat chronic pain.

What is the code for open reduction with internal fixation for a right fifth metatarsal fracture?

Description : What is the code for open reduction with internal fixation for a right fifth metatarsal fracture?

Last Answer : Feel Free to Answer

The individual who demonstrates displacement of the sternum is described as having a a) pigeon chest. Pigeon chest may occur with rickets, Marfan’s syndrome, or severe kyphoscoliosis. b) barrel chest. A barrel chest is seen in patients with emphysema as a result of overinflation of the lungs. c) funnel chest. A funnel chest occurs when there is a depression in the lower portion of the sternum. d) kyphoscoliosis. Kyphoscoliosis is characterized by elevation of the scapula and a corresponding S-shaped spine.

Description : The individual who demonstrates displacement of the sternum is described as having a a) pigeon chest. Pigeon chest may occur with rickets, Marfan's syndrome, or severe kyphoscoliosis. ... kyphoscoliosis. Kyphoscoliosis is characterized by elevation of the scapula and a corresponding S-shaped spine.

Last Answer : a) pigeon chest. Pigeon chest may occur with rickets, Marfan’s syndrome, or severe kyphoscoliosis.

When the nurse reviews the physician’s progress notes for the patient who has sustained a head injury and sees that the physician observed Battle’s sign when the patient was in the Emergency Department, the nurse knows that the physician observed a) an area of bruising over the mastoid bone. Battle’s sign may indicate skull fracture.

Description : When the nurse reviews the physician's progress notes for the patient who has sustained a head injury and sees that the physician observed Battle's sign when the patient was in the Emergency Department, the ... CSF) from the patient's nose. Escape of CSF from the patient's nose is termed rhinorrhea.

Last Answer : a) an area of bruising over the mastoid bone. Battle’s sign may indicate skull fracture.

During which stage or phase of bone healing after fracture is devitalized tissue removed and new bone reorganized into its former structural arrangement? a) Remodeling Remodeling is the final stage of fracture repair. b) Inflammation During inflammation, macrophages invade and debride the fracture area. c) Revascularization Revascularization occurs within about 5 days after the fracture. d) Reparative Callus formation occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion at the fracture site.

Description : During which stage or phase of bone healing after fracture is devitalized tissue removed and new bone reorganized into its former structural arrangement? a) Remodeling Remodeling is the final stage of ... occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion at the fracture site.

Last Answer : a) Remodeling Remodeling is the final stage of fracture repair.

During which stage or phase of bone healing after fracture does callus formation occur? a) Reparative Callus formation occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion at the fracture site b) Remodeling Remodeling is the final stage of fracture repair during which the new bone is reorganized into the bone’s former structural arrangement. c) Inflammation During inflammation, macrophages invade and debride the fracture area. d) Revascularization Revascularization occurs within about 5 days after the fracture.

Description : During which stage or phase of bone healing after fracture does callus formation occur? a) Reparative Callus formation occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion ... the fracture area. d) Revascularization Revascularization occurs within about 5 days after the fracture.

Last Answer : a) Reparative Callus formation occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion at the fracture site

Which of the following terms refers to a fracture in which one side of a bone is broken and the other side is bent? a) Greenstick A greenstick fracture is a fracture in which one side of a bone is broken and the other side is bent.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to a fracture in which one side of a bone is broken and the other side is bent? a) Greenstick A greenstick fracture is a fracture in which one side of a bone ... tendon and its attachment. d) Oblique An oblique is a fracture occurring at an angle across the bone.

Last Answer : a) Greenstick A greenstick fracture is a fracture in which one side of a bone is broken and the other side is bent.

A fracture is termed pathologic when the fracture a) occurs through an area of diseased bone. Pathologic fractures can occur without the trauma of a fall.

Description : A fracture is termed pathologic when the fracture a) occurs through an area of diseased bone. Pathologic fractures can occur without the trauma of a fall. b) results in a pulling away of a ... to the skin or mucous membranes. A compound fracture involves damage to the skin or mucous membranes.

Last Answer : a) occurs through an area of diseased bone. Pathologic fractures can occur without the trauma of a fall.

Which of the following terms refers to failure of fragments of a fractured bone to heal together? a) Nonunion When nonunion occurs, the patient complains of persistent discomfort and movement at the fracture site.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to failure of fragments of a fractured bone to heal together? a) Nonunion When nonunion occurs, the patient complains of persistent discomfort and movement at the ... growth of the fragments of a fractured bone in a faulty position, forming an imperfect union.

Last Answer : a) Nonunion When nonunion occurs, the patient complains of persistent discomfort and movement at the fracture site.

Fracture healing occurs in four areas, including the a) external soft tissue. Fracture healing occurs in four areas, including the bone marrow, bone cortex, periosteum, and the external soft tissue, where a bridging callus (fibrous tissue) stabilizes the fracture.

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A 15-year-old girl was seen by her family physician because of increasing lethargy. She had a recent history of the "flu". Biochemistry tests show that she has renal impairement. serum sodium 140 mmol/L (137 - 144) serum potassium 4.2 mmol/L (3.5 - 4.9) serum urea 28 mol/L (2.5 - 7.5) serum creatinine 280 µmol/L (60 - 110) Her condition does not improve after several weeks on corticosteroid therapy, so a renal biopsy is performed. The biopsy demonstrates the presence of segmental sclerosis of 3 of 10 glomeruli identified in the biopsy specimen. Immunofluorescence studies and electron microscopy do not reveal evidence for immune deposits. What is the most appropriate advice to give regarding her condition? 1) She has an underlying malignancy 2) She may require a renal transplant in 10 years

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The nurse notes that the patient demonstrates generalized pallor and recognizes that this finding may be indicative of a) anemia. In the light-skinned individual, generalized pallor is a manifestation of anemia. In brown- and black-skinned individuals, anemia is demonstrated as a dull skin appearance.

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When the nurse notes that the post cardiac surgery patient demonstrates low urine output (< 25 ml/hr) with high specific gravity (> 1.025), the nurse suspects: a) Inadequate fluid volume Urine output of less than 25 ml/hr may indicate a decrease in cardiac output. A high specific gravity indicates increased concentration of solutes in the urine which occurs with inadequate fluid volume. b) Normal glomerular filtration Indices of normal glomerular filtration are output of 25 ml or greater per hour and specific gravity between 1.010 and 1.025. c) Overhydration Overhydration is manifested by high urine output with low specific gravity. d) Anuria The anuric patient does not produce urine.

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When the post-cardiac surgical patient demonstrates vasodilation, hypotension, hyporeflexia, slow gastrointestinal motility (hypoactive bowel sounds), lethargy, and respiratory depression, the nurse suspects which of the following electrolyte imbalances? a) Hypermagnesemia Untreated hypomagnesemia may result in coma, apnea, cardiac arrest.

Description : When the post-cardiac surgical patient demonstrates vasodilation, hypotension, hyporeflexia, slow gastrointestinal motility (hypoactive bowel sounds), lethargy, and respiratory depression, the nurse suspects ... and QT intervals, broad flat T waves), disorientation, depression, and hypotension.

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A Colles’ fracture is a fracture of the a) distal radius. A Colles’ fracture is a fracture of the distal radius (wrist). It is usually the result of a fall on an open, dorsiflexed hand.

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When a bone breaks into more than two pieces, such a fracture is called

Description : When a bone breaks into more than two pieces, such a fracture is called

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Which of the following terms refers to fixation or immobility of a joint? a) Ankylosis Ankylosis may result from disease or scarring due to trauma.

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Which of the following phases of psychological reaction to rape is characterized by fear and flashbacks? a) Heightening anxiety phase During the heightened anxiety phase, the patient demonstrates anxiety, hyperalertness, and psychosomatic reactions, in addition to fear and flashbacks.

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When the nurse notes that the patient’s left great toe deviates laterally, she recognizes that the patient has a a) hallux valgus. Hallux valgus is commonly referred to as a bunion. b) hammertoe. Hammertoes are usually pulled upward. c) pes cavus. Pes cavus refers to a foot with an abnormally high arch and a fixed equinus deformity of the forefoot. d) flatfoot. In flatfoot, the patient demonstrates a diminished longitudinal arch of the foot.

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Last Answer : a) hallux valgus. Hallux valgus is commonly referred to as a bunion.

A patient who demonstrates an obtunded level of consciousness a) sleeps almost constantly but can be aroused and can follow simple commands. An obtunded patient stays awake only with persistent stimulation.

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Of the following neurotransmitters, which demonstrates inhibitory action, helps control mood and sleep, and inhibits pain pathways? a) Serotonin The sources of serotonin are the brain stem, hypothalamus, and dorsal horn of the spinal cord.

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Which of the following terms refers to the absence of the natural lens? a) Aphakia When a cataract is extracted, and an intraocular lens implant is not used, the patient demonstrates aphakia.

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Last Answer : a) Aphakia When a cataract is extracted, and an intraocular lens implant is not used, the patient demonstrates aphakia.

The nurse teaches the patient who demonstrates herpes zoster (shingles) that a) the infection results from reactivation of the chickenpox virus. It is assumed that herpes zoster represents a reactivation of latent varicella (chickenpox) virus and reflects lowered immunity.

Description : The nurse teaches the patient who demonstrates herpes zoster (shingles) that a) the infection results from reactivation of the chickenpox virus. It is assumed that herpes zoster represents a ... is arrested if oral antiviral agents are administered within 24 hours of the initial eruption.

Last Answer : a) the infection results from reactivation of the chickenpox virus. It is assumed that herpes zoster represents a reactivation of latent varicella (chickenpox) virus and reflects lowered immunity.

The nurse reading the physician’s report of an elderly patient’s physical examination knows a notation that the patient demonstrates xanthelasma refers to a) yellowish waxy deposits on upper eyelids. The change is a common, benign manifestation of aging skin or it can sometimes signal hyperlipidemia.

Description : The nurse reading the physician's report of an elderly patient's physical examination knows a notation that the patient demonstrates xanthelasma refers to a) yellowish waxy deposits on upper eyelids. The change is ... red moles. Cherry angioma is the term that is used to describe a bright red mole.

Last Answer : a) yellowish waxy deposits on upper eyelids. The change is a common, benign manifestation of aging skin or it can sometimes signal hyperlipidemia.

When the female patient demonstrates thickening, scaling, and erosion of the nipple and areola, the nurse recognizes that the patient is exhibiting signs of a) Paget’s disease. Paget’s disease is a malignancy of mammary ducts with early signs of erythema of nipple and areola. b) acute mastitis. Acute mastitis is demonstrated by nipple cracks or abrasions along with reddened and warm breast skin and tenderness.

Description : When the female patient demonstrates thickening, scaling, and erosion of the nipple and areola, the nurse recognizes that the patient is exhibiting signs of a) Paget's disease. Paget's disease ... the breast and demonstrates an orange peel apearance of breast skin with enlargement of skin pores.

Last Answer : a) Paget’s disease. Paget’s disease is a malignancy of mammary ducts with early signs of erythema of nipple and areola.

Of the following disorders, which results from excessive secretion of somatotropin? a) Acromegaly The patient with acromegaly demonstrates progressive enlargement of peripheral body parts, most commonly the face, head, hands, and feet.

Description : Of the following disorders, which results from excessive secretion of somatotropin? a) Acromegaly The patient with acromegaly demonstrates progressive enlargement of peripheral body parts, most ... syndrome is the result of abnormal secretion of adrenocortical hormones, especially androgen.

Last Answer : a) Acromegaly The patient with acromegaly demonstrates progressive enlargement of peripheral body parts, most commonly the face, head, hands, and feet.

Which of the following disorders is characterized by a group of symptoms produced by an excess of free circulating cortisol from the adrenal cortex? a) Cushing’s syndrome The patient with Cushing’s syndrome demonstrates truncal obesity, moon face, acne, abdominal striae, and hypertension.

Description : Which of the following disorders is characterized by a group of symptoms produced by an excess of free circulating cortisol from the adrenal cortex? a) Cushing's syndrome The patient ... individual with Hashimoto's disease demonstrates inflammation of the thyroid gland, resulting in hypothyroidism.

Last Answer : a) Cushing’s syndrome The patient with Cushing’s syndrome demonstrates truncal obesity, moon face, acne, abdominal striae, and hypertension.

Officially, hypertension is diagnosed when the patient demonstrates a systolic blood pressure greater than ______ mm Hg and a diastolic blood pressure greater than _____ mm Hg over a sustained period. a) 140, 90 According to the categories of blood pressure levels established by the JNC VI, stage 1 hypertension is demonstrated by a systolic pressure of 140–159 or a diastolic pressure of 90–99.

Description : Officially, hypertension is diagnosed when the patient demonstrates a systolic blood pressure greater than ______ mm Hg and a diastolic blood pressure greater than _____ mm Hg over a sustained period. a) ... , 70 Pressure of 120 systolic and 70 diastolic falls within the normal range for an adult.

Last Answer : a) 140, 90 According to the categories of blood pressure levels established by the JNC VI, stage 1 hypertension is demonstrated by a systolic pressure of 140–159 or a diastolic pressure of 90–99.

When the post-cardiac surgery patient demonstrates restlessness, nausea, weakness, and peaked T waves, the nurse reviews the patient’s serum electrolytes anticipating which abnormality? a) Hyperkalemia Hyperkalemia is indicated by mental confusion, restlessness, nausea, weakness, and dysrhythmias (tall, peaked T waves). b) Hypercalcemia Hypercalcemia would likely be demonstrated by asystole. c) Hypomagnesemia Hypomagenesemia would likely be demonstrated by hypotension, lethargy, and vasodilation. d) Hyponatremia Hyponatremia would likely be indicated by weakness, fatigue, and confusion without change in T wave formation

Description : When the post-cardiac surgery patient demonstrates restlessness, nausea, weakness, and peaked T waves, the nurse reviews the patient's serum electrolytes anticipating which abnormality? a) Hyperkalemia ... likely be indicated by weakness, fatigue, and confusion without change in T wave formation

Last Answer : a) Hyperkalemia Hyperkalemia is indicated by mental confusion, restlessness, nausea, weakness, and dysrhythmias (tall, peaked T waves).

Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the nurse to take when the patient demonstrates subcutaneous emphysema along the suture line or chest dressing 2 hours after chest surgery? a) Record the observation. Subcutaneous emphysema occurs after chest surgery as the air that is located within the pleural cavity is expelled through the tissue opening created by the surgical procedure.

Description : Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the nurse to take when the patient demonstrates subcutaneous emphysema along the suture line or chest dressing 2 hours after chest ... finding to the physician immediately. Subcutaneous emphysema results from air entering the tissue planes.

Last Answer : a) Record the observation. Subcutaneous emphysema occurs after chest surgery as the air that is located within the pleural cavity is expelled through the tissue opening created by the surgical procedure.

Which of the following community-acquired pneumonias demonstrates the highest occurrence during summer and fall? a) Legionnaires’ disease Legionnaires’ disease accounts for 15% of community-acquired pneumonias. b) Streptococcal (pneumococcal) pneumonia Streptococcal pneumonia demonstrates the highest occurrence in winter months. c) Mycoplasma pneumonia Mycoplasma pneumonia demonstrates the highest occurrence in fall and early winter. d) Viral pneumonia Viral pneumonia demonstrates the greatest incidence during winter months.

Description : Which of the following community-acquired pneumonias demonstrates the highest occurrence during summer and fall? a) Legionnaires' disease Legionnaires' disease accounts for 15% of community-acquired ... . d) Viral pneumonia Viral pneumonia demonstrates the greatest incidence during winter months.

Last Answer : a) Legionnaires’ disease Legionnaires’ disease accounts for 15% of community-acquired pneumonias.

Which type of sleep apnea is characterized by lack of airflow due to pharyngeal occlusion? a) Obstructive Obstructive sleep apnea occurs usually in men, especially those who are older and overweight. b) Simple Types of sleep apnea do not include a simple characterization. c) Mixed Mixed sleep apnea is a combination of central and obstructive apnea with one apneic episode. d) Central In central sleep apnea, the patient demonstrates simultaneous cessation of both airflow and respiratory movements.

Description : Which type of sleep apnea is characterized by lack of airflow due to pharyngeal occlusion? a) Obstructive Obstructive sleep apnea occurs usually in men, especially those who are older ... central sleep apnea, the patient demonstrates simultaneous cessation of both airflow and respiratory movements.

Last Answer : a) Obstructive Obstructive sleep apnea occurs usually in men, especially those who are older and overweight.

A malignant tumor a) gains access to the blood and lymphatic channels. By this mechanism, the tumor metastasizes to other areas of the body. b) demonstrates cells that are well-differentiated. Cells of malignant tumors are undifferentiated. c) is usually slow growing. Malignant tumors demonstrate variable rate of growth; however, the more anaplastic the tumor, the faster its growth. d) grows by expansion. A malignant tumor grows at the periphery and sends out processes that infiltrate and destroy surrounding tissues.

Description : A malignant tumor a) gains access to the blood and lymphatic channels. By this mechanism, the tumor metastasizes to other areas of the body. b) demonstrates cells that are well- ... malignant tumor grows at the periphery and sends out processes that infiltrate and destroy surrounding tissues.

Last Answer : a) gains access to the blood and lymphatic channels. By this mechanism, the tumor metastasizes to other areas of the body.

Answer: e The role of nutritional support in the cancer patient remains an important component of overall therapy. Preoperative nutritional support should be given only to those patients who do not require an emergency operation and who have severe weight loss (> 15% of pre-illness body weight) and a serum albumen < 2.9 mg%. Preoperative nutrition (enteral or parenteral) should not be given for longer than 7 to 10 days. Enteral nutrition is always the preferred route of feeding cancer patients if the GI tract is functional. There are several benefits of using the bowel lumen for nutrient delivery. The trophic effects of enteral feeding on small bowel mucosa have been well described. The integrity of the mucosal lining is maintained and it may provide an effective barrier to intraluminal

Description : Answer: e The role of nutritional support in the cancer patient remains an important component of overall therapy. Preoperative nutritional support should be given only to those patients who ... of bowel rest; this atrophy is not reversed by currently available total parenteral nutrition solutions

Last Answer : Which of the following hormones can be expected to be released as part of the stress response? a. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) b. Aldosterone c. Insulin d. Epinephrine nswer: a, b, d ... This hormone has the exact opposite effect of insulin, which promotes glucose storage and uptake by the cells

Which of the following methods is the best method for determining nasogastric tube placement in the stomach? a) X-ray Radiologic identification of tube placement in the stomach is most reliable. b) Observation of gastric aspirate Gastric fluid may be grassy green, brown, clear, or odorless while an aspirate from the lungs may be off-white or tan. Hence, checking aspirate is not the best method of determining nasogastric tube placement in the stomach.

Description : Which of the following methods is the best method for determining nasogastric tube placement in the stomach? a) X-ray Radiologic identification of tube placement in the stomach is most reliable. ... for air bubbles is not a reliable method for determining nasogastric tube placement in the stomach.

Last Answer : a) X-ray Radiologic identification of tube placement in the stomach is most reliable.

The nurse assesses subtle personality changes, restlessness, irritability, and confusion in a patient who has sustained a fracture. The nurse suspects a) fat embolism syndrome. Cerebral disturbances in the patient with fat embolism syndrome include subtle personality changes, restlessness, irritability, and confusion.

Description : The nurse assesses subtle personality changes, restlessness, irritability, and confusion in a patient who has sustained a fracture. The nurse suspects a) fat embolism syndrome. Cerebral disturbances in ... severe, burning pain, local edema, hyperesthesia, muscle spasms, and vasomotor skin changes.

Last Answer : a) fat embolism syndrome. Cerebral disturbances in the patient with fat embolism syndrome include subtle personality changes, restlessness, irritability, and confusion.

The nurse assesses the dressing of a patient with a basal skull fracture and sees the halo sign - a blood stain surrounded by a yellowish stain. The nurse knows that this sign a) is highly suggestive of a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak. The halo sign - a blood stain surrounded by a yellowish stain is highly suggestive of a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak.

Description : The nurse assesses the dressing of a patient with a basal skull fracture and sees the halo sign - a blood stain surrounded by a yellowish stain. The nurse knows that this sign a) is highly ... following a basal skull fracture. The halo sign is highly suggestive of a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak.

Last Answer : a) is highly suggestive of a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak. The halo sign - a blood stain surrounded by a yellowish stain is highly suggestive of a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak.

Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury include which of the following? a) Age over 65 years Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury include brain contusion with subdural hematoma, skull fracture, loss of consciousness or amnesia of 1 day or more, and age over 65 years.

Description : Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury include which of the following? a) Age over 65 years Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post ... is a risk factor that increases the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury

Last Answer : a) Age over 65 years Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury include brain contusion with subdural hematoma, skull fracture, loss of consciousness or amnesia of 1 day or more, and age over 65 years.

Which type of chest configuration is typical of the patient with COPD? a) Barrel chest “Barrel chest” results from fixation of the ribs in the inspiratory position. b) Pigeon chest Pigeon chest results from a displaced sternum. c) Flail chest Flail chest results when the ribs are fractured. d) Funnel chest Funnel chest occurs when there is a depression in the lower portion of the sternum and is associated with Mafan’s syndrome or rickets.

Description : Which type of chest configuration is typical of the patient with COPD? a) Barrel chest Barrel chest results from fixation of the ribs in the inspiratory position. b) Pigeon chest Pigeon chest ... depression in the lower portion of the sternum and is associated with Mafan's syndrome or rickets.

Last Answer : a) Barrel chest “Barrel chest” results from fixation of the ribs in the inspiratory position.

Which of the following terms refers to a grating or crackling sound or sensation? a) Crepitus Crepitus may occur with movement of ends of a broken bone or irregular joint surface.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to a grating or crackling sound or sensation? a) Crepitus Crepitus may occur with movement of ends of a broken bone or irregular joint surface. b) ... to rhythmic contraction of muscle. d) Fasciculation Fasciculation refers to involuntary twitch of muscle fibers.

Last Answer : a) Crepitus Crepitus may occur with movement of ends of a broken bone or irregular joint surface.

The term or disease associated with buildup of fibrous plaques in the sheath of the corpus cavernosum causing curvature of the penis when it is erect is known as a) Peyronie’s disease. Peyronie’s disease may require surgical removal of the plaques when the disease makes sexual intercourse painful, difficult, or impossible.

Description : The term or disease associated with buildup of fibrous plaques in the sheath of the corpus cavernosum causing curvature of the penis when it is erect is known as a) Peyronie's disease. ... refers to an uncontrolled, persistent erection of the penis occurring from either neural or vascular causes.

Last Answer : a) Peyronie’s disease. Peyronie’s disease may require surgical removal of the plaques when the disease makes sexual intercourse painful, difficult, or impossible.

Rejection of a transplanted kidney within 24 hours after transplant is termed a) hyperacute rejection. Hyperacute rejection may require removal of the transplanted kidney.

Description : Rejection of a transplanted kidney within 24 hours after transplant is termed a) hyperacute rejection. Hyperacute rejection may require removal of the transplanted kidney. b) acute rejection. Acute ... term simple is not used in the categorization of types of rejection of kidney transplants.

Last Answer : a) hyperacute rejection. Hyperacute rejection may require removal of the transplanted kidney.

A diagnostic test that involves injection of a contrast media into the venous system through a dorsal vein in the foot is termed a) contrast phlebography. When a thrombus exists, an x-ray image will disclose an unfilled segment of a vein. b) air plethysmography Air plethysmography quantifies venous reflux and calf muscle pump ejection.

Description : A diagnostic test that involves injection of a contrast media into the venous system through a dorsal vein in the foot is termed a) contrast phlebography. When a thrombus exists, an x ... d) lymphoscintigraphy. In lymphoscintigraphy, a radioactive-labeled colloid is injected into the lymph system.

Last Answer : a) contrast phlebography. When a thrombus exists, an x-ray image will disclose an unfilled segment of a vein.

When the nurse auscultates chest sounds that are harsh and cracking, sounding like two pieces of leather being rubbed together, she records her finding as a) pleural friction rub. A pleural friction rub is heard secondary to inflammation and loss of lubricating pleural fluid. b) crackles. Crackles are soft, high-pitched, discontinuous popping sounds that occur during inspiration. c) sonorous wheezes. Sonorous wheezes are deep, low-pitched rumbling sounds heard primarily during expiration. d) sibilant wheezes. Sibilant wheezes are continuous, musical, high-pitched, whistle-like sounds heard during inspiration and expiration.

Description : When the nurse auscultates chest sounds that are harsh and cracking, sounding like two pieces of leather being rubbed together, she records her finding as a) pleural friction rub. A ... wheezes are continuous, musical, high-pitched, whistle-like sounds heard during inspiration and expiration.

Last Answer : a) pleural friction rub. A pleural friction rub is heard secondary to inflammation and loss of lubricating pleural fluid.

92. Which doctrine is invoked if an abdominal X-ray of a postoperative patient shows a forcep inside the abdomen?

Description : 92. Which doctrine is invoked if an abdominal X-ray of a postoperative patient shows a forcep inside the abdomen?

Last Answer : C. Res ipsa loquitor

Which of the following statements reflect the progress of bone healing? a) Serial x-rays are used to monitor the progress of bone healing. Serial x-rays are used to monitor the progress of bone healing.

Description : Which of the following statements reflect the progress of bone healing? a) Serial x-rays are used to monitor the progress of bone healing. Serial x-rays are used to monitor the ... ossification. Adequate immobilization is essential until there is x-ray evidence of bone formation with ossification.

Last Answer : a) Serial x-rays are used to monitor the progress of bone healing. Serial x-rays are used to monitor the progress of bone healing.