Monro-Kellie hypothesis refers to a) the dynamic equilibrium of cranial contents. The hypothesis states that because of the limited space for expansion within the skull, an increase in any one of the cranial contents (brain tissue, blood, or cerebrospinal fluid) causes a change in the volume of the others.

Monro-Kellie hypothesis refers to
a) the dynamic equilibrium of cranial contents.
The hypothesis states that because of the limited space for expansion
within the skull, an increase in any one of the cranial contents (brain
tissue, blood, or cerebrospinal fluid) causes a change in the volume of
the others.
b) unresponsiveness to the environment.
Akinetic mutism is the phrase used to refer to unresponsiveness to the
environment.
c) the brain’s attempt to restore blood flow by increasing arterial
pressure to overcome the increased intracranial pressure.
Cushing’s response is the phrase used to refer to the brain’s attempt
to restore blood flow by increasing arterial pressure to overcome the
increased intracranial pressure.
d) a condition in which the patient is wakeful but devoid of conscious
content, without cognitive or affective mental function.
Persistent vegetative state is the phrase used to describe a condition
in which the patient is wakeful but devoid of conscious content,
without cognitive or affective mental function.
by

1 Answer

Answer :

a) the dynamic equilibrium of cranial contents.
The hypothesis states that because of the limited space for expansion
within the skull, an increase in any one of the cranial contents (brain
tissue, blood, or cerebrospinal fluid) causes a change in the volume of
the others.
by

Related questions

The nurse assesses the dressing of a patient with a basal skull fracture and sees the halo sign - a blood stain surrounded by a yellowish stain. The nurse knows that this sign a) is highly suggestive of a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak. The halo sign - a blood stain surrounded by a yellowish stain is highly suggestive of a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak.

Description : The nurse assesses the dressing of a patient with a basal skull fracture and sees the halo sign - a blood stain surrounded by a yellowish stain. The nurse knows that this sign a) is highly ... following a basal skull fracture. The halo sign is highly suggestive of a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak.

Last Answer : a) is highly suggestive of a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak. The halo sign - a blood stain surrounded by a yellowish stain is highly suggestive of a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak.

A steady state within the body is termed a) Homeostasis. When a change occurs that causes a body function to deviate from its stable range, processes are initiated to restore and maintain the steady state or homeostasis. b) Constancy. Constancy refers to the balanced internal state of the human body maintained by physiologic and biochemical processes. c) Adaptation. Adaptation refers to a constant, ongoing process that requires change in structure, function, or behavior so that the person is better suited to the environment. d) Stress. Stress refers to a state produced by a change in the environment that is perceived as challenging, threatening, or damaging to the person’s dynamic balance or equilibrium.

Description : A steady state within the body is termed a) Homeostasis. When a change occurs that causes a body function to deviate from its stable range, processes are initiated to restore and maintain ... that is perceived as challenging, threatening, or damaging to the person's dynamic balance or equilibrium.

Last Answer : a) Homeostasis. When a change occurs that causes a body function to deviate from its stable range, processes are initiated to restore and maintain the steady state or homeostasis.

Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury include which of the following? a) Age over 65 years Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury include brain contusion with subdural hematoma, skull fracture, loss of consciousness or amnesia of 1 day or more, and age over 65 years.

Description : Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury include which of the following? a) Age over 65 years Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post ... is a risk factor that increases the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury

Last Answer : a) Age over 65 years Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury include brain contusion with subdural hematoma, skull fracture, loss of consciousness or amnesia of 1 day or more, and age over 65 years.

The cranial nerve that is responsible for salivation, tearing, taste, and sensation in the ear is the _____________________ nerve. a) vestibulocochlear The vestibulocochlear (VII) cranial nerve is responsible for hearing and equilibrium.

Description : The cranial nerve that is responsible for salivation, tearing, taste, and sensation in the ear is the _____________________ nerve. a) vestibulocochlear The vestibulocochlear (VII) cranial nerve is ... mastication. d) facial The facial (VII) nerve controls facial expression and muscle movement.

Last Answer : a) vestibulocochlear The vestibulocochlear (VII) cranial nerve is responsible for hearing and equilibrium.

The following are true about the spinal cord: a. segment T12 lies at the level of vertebral body T9 b. cerebrospinal fluid is found within the subdural space c. two point discrimination is transmitted in the dorsal column d. hemisection results in contralateral loss of pain and temperature sense below the lesio

Description : The following are true about the spinal cord: a. segment T12 lies at the level of vertebral body T9 b. cerebrospinal fluid is found within the subdural space c. two point ... the dorsal column d. hemisection results in contralateral loss of pain and temperature sense below the lesio

Last Answer : segment T12 lies at the level of vertebral body T9

The cerebrospinal fluid: a. has a normal volume of 150 ml b. has a normal opening pressure of 7 - 18 cm H2O c. flows from the ventricles to the subarachnoid space via the foramen of Monrod. does not contain neutrophils in normal individuals

Description : The cerebrospinal fluid: a. has a normal volume of 150 ml b. has a normal opening pressure of 7 - 18 cm H2O c. flows from the ventricles to the subarachnoid space via the foramen of Monro d. does not contain neutrophils in normal individuals

Last Answer : has a normal volume of 150 m

Which of the following terms refers to chest pain brought on by physical or emotional stress and relieved by rest or medication? a) angina pectoris Angina pectoris is a symptom of myocardial ischemia. b) atherosclerosis Atherosclerosis is an abnormal accumulation of lipid deposits and fibrous tissue within arterial walls and lumens. c) atheroma Atheromas are fibrous caps composed of smooth muscle cells that form over lipid deposits within arterial vessels. d) ischemia Ischemia is insufficient tissue oxygenation and may occur in any part of the body.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to chest pain brought on by physical or emotional stress and relieved by rest or medication? a) angina pectoris Angina pectoris is a symptom of myocardial ischemia. ... d) ischemia Ischemia is insufficient tissue oxygenation and may occur in any part of the body.

Last Answer : a) angina pectoris Angina pectoris is a symptom of myocardial ischemia.

Which of the following methods of physical examination refers to the translation of physical force into sound? a) Percussion Percussion translates the application of physical force into sound. b) Palpation Palpation refers to examination by non-forceful touching. c) Auscultation Auscultation refers to the skill of listening to sounds produced within the body created by movement of air or fluid. d) Manipulation Manipulation refers to the use of the hands to determine motion of a body part.

Description : Which of the following methods of physical examination refers to the translation of physical force into sound? a) Percussion Percussion translates the application of physical force into sound. b) Palpation ... Manipulation refers to the use of the hands to determine motion of a body part.

Last Answer : a) Percussion Percussion translates the application of physical force into sound.

Ductal lavage is used for a) women at higher risk for benign proliferative breast disease. Performed in the doctor’s office, a microcatheter is inserted through the nipple while instilling saline and retrieving the fluid for analysis. It has been shown to identify atypical cells in this population and has been found to be adept at detecting cellular changes within the breast tissue.

Description : Ductal lavage is used for a) women at higher risk for benign proliferative breast disease. Performed in the doctor's office, a microcatheter is inserted through the nipple while instilling saline ... risk for benign proliferative breast disease; it is not specific for women with breast implants.

Last Answer : a) women at higher risk for benign proliferative breast disease. Performed in the doctor's office, a microcatheter is inserted through the nipple while instilling saline and retrieving the fluid ... population and has been found to be adept at detecting cellular changes within the breast tissue.

An osmotic diuretic, such as Mannitol, is given to the patient with increased intracranial pressure (IICP) in order to a) dehydrate the brain and reduce cerebral edema. Osmotic diuretics draw water across intact membranes, thereby reducing the volume of brain and extracellular fluid.

Description : An osmotic diuretic, such as Mannitol, is given to the patient with increased intracranial pressure (IICP) in order to a) dehydrate the brain and reduce cerebral edema. Osmotic diuretics ... Medications such as barbiturates are given to the patient with IICP to reduce cellular metabolic demands.

Last Answer : a) dehydrate the brain and reduce cerebral edema. Osmotic diuretics draw water across intact membranes, thereby reducing the volume of brain and extracellular fluid.

An increase in the number of new cells in an organ or tissue that is reversible when the stimulus for production of new cells is removed is termed a) Hyperplasia. Hyperplasia occurs as cells multiply and are subjected to increased stimulation resulting in tissue mass enlargement. b) Hypertrophy. Hypertrophy is an increase in size and bulk of tissue that does not result from an increased number of cells. c) Atrophy. Atrophy refers to reduction in size of a structure after having come to full maturity. d) Neoplasia. With neoplasia, the increase in the number of new cells in an organ or tissue continues after the stimulus is removed.

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Last Answer : a) Hyperplasia. Hyperplasia occurs as cells multiply and are subjected to increased stimulation resulting in tissue mass enlargement.

Cerebrospinal fluid: a. is produced mainly by the lateral, third and fourth ventricles b. enters the subarachnoid space through foramina Lushka and Magendie c. is reabsorbed mainly into the lymphatics d. production is dependent of the blood pressure

Description : Cerebrospinal fluid: a. is produced mainly by the lateral, third and fourth ventricles b. enters the subarachnoid space through foramina Lushka and Magendie c. is reabsorbed mainly into the lymphatics d. production is dependent of the blood pressure

Last Answer : is produced mainly by the lateral, third and fourth ventricles

The following are true about cerebrospinal fluid: a. it is found in the space between the pia mater and the arachnoid b. the normal amount in human being is about 500 ml c. with the body lying in lateral horizontal position, the normal intracranial pressure is about 100 ml of water d. only the lateral ventricle contains choroidal plexus which secrete cerebrospinal fluid e. cerebrospinal fluid contains the same concentration of glucose as the blood

Description : The following are true about cerebrospinal fluid: a. it is found in the space between the pia mater and the arachnoid b. the normal amount in human being is about 500 ml c ... plexus which secrete cerebrospinal fluid e. cerebrospinal fluid contains the same concentration of glucose as the blood

Last Answer : it is found in the space between the pia mater and the arachnoid

Bell’s palsy is a disorder of which cranial nerve? a) Facial (VII) Bell’s palsy is characterized by facial dysfunction, weakness, and paralysis

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Last Answer : a) Facial (VII) Bell’s palsy is characterized by facial dysfunction, weakness, and paralysis

The cranial nerve that is responsible for facial sensation and corneal reflex is the _____________________ nerve. a) trigeminal The trigeminal (V) cranial nerve is also responsible for mastication.

Description : The cranial nerve that is responsible for facial sensation and corneal reflex is the _____________________ nerve. a) trigeminal The trigeminal (V) cranial nerve is also responsible for mastication. b) ... The facial nerve is responsible for salivation, tearing, taste, and sensation in the ear.

Last Answer : a) trigeminal The trigeminal (V) cranial nerve is also responsible for mastication.

The cranial nerve that is responsible for muscles that move the eye and lid is the _____________________ nerve. a) oculomotor The oculomotor (III) cranial nerve is also responsible for pupillary constriction and lens accommodation.

Description : The cranial nerve that is responsible for muscles that move the eye and lid is the _____________________ nerve. a) oculomotor The oculomotor (III) cranial nerve is also responsible for pupillary constriction ... (VII) nerve is responsible for salivation, tearing, taste, and sensation in the ear.

Last Answer : a) oculomotor The oculomotor (III) cranial nerve is also responsible for pupillary constriction and lens accommodation.

Is it wrong to not want someone taking care of a family member because of the contents on their Facebook?

Description : Is it wrong to not want someone taking care of a family member because of the contents on their Facebook?

Last Answer : um…I probably wouldn’t want her taking care of my sister either

Which of the following terms is used to describe a procedure in which cervical tissue is removed as result of detection of abnormal cells? a) Conization The procedure is also called a cone biopsy. Colporrhaphy Colporrhaphy refers to repair of the vagina.

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Last Answer : a) Conization The procedure is also called a cone biopsy. Colporrhaphy Colporrhaphy refers to repair of the vagina.

When the valve used in valve replacement surgery is made from the patient’s own heart valve, which of the following terms is used? a) Autograft An example of autograft is found when the surgeon excises the pulmonic valve and uses it for an aortic valve replacement. b) Allograft Allograft refers to replacement using human tissue and is a synonym for homograft. c) Homograft Homograft refers to replacement using human tissue and is a synonym for allograft. d) Xenograft Xenograft refers to replacement of tissue from animal tissue.

Description : When the valve used in valve replacement surgery is made from the patient's own heart valve, which of the following terms is used? a) Autograft An example of autograft is found when the ... and is a synonym for allograft. d) Xenograft Xenograft refers to replacement of tissue from animal tissue.

Last Answer : a) Autograft An example of autograft is found when the surgeon excises the pulmonic valve and uses it for an aortic valve replacement.

Which of the following terms is used to refer to protrusion of abdominal organs through the surgical incision? a) Evisceration Evisceration is a surgical emergency. b) Hernia A hernia is a weakness in the abdominal wall. c) Dehiscence Dehiscence refers to partial or complete separation of wound edges. d) Erythema Erythema refers to redness of tissue.

Description : Which of the following terms is used to refer to protrusion of abdominal organs through the surgical incision? a) Evisceration Evisceration is a surgical emergency. b) Hernia A hernia is a weakness ... partial or complete separation of wound edges. d) Erythema Erythema refers to redness of tissue.

Last Answer : a) Evisceration Evisceration is a surgical emergency.

Which of the following terms is used to describe hemorrhage from the nose? a) Epistaxis Epistaxis is due to rupture of tiny, distended vessels in the mucous membrane of any area of the nose. b) Xerostomia Xerostomia refers to dryness of the mouth. c) Rhinorrhea Rhinorrhea refers to drainage of a large amount of fluid from the nose. d) Dysphagia Dysphagia refers to difficulties in swallowing.

Description : Which of the following terms is used to describe hemorrhage from the nose? a) Epistaxis Epistaxis is due to rupture of tiny, distended vessels in the mucous membrane of any area of the nose. b ... of a large amount of fluid from the nose. d) Dysphagia Dysphagia refers to difficulties in swallowing.

Last Answer : a) Epistaxis Epistaxis is due to rupture of tiny, distended vessels in the mucous membrane of any area of the nose.

Oncotic pressure refers to a) the osmotic pressure exerted by proteins. Oncotic pressure is a pulling pressure exerted by proteins, such as albumin. b) the number of dissolved particles contained in a unit of fluid. Osmolality refers to the number of dissolved particles contained in a unit of fluid. c) the excretion of substances such as glucose through increased urine output. Osmotic diuresis occurs when the urine output increases due to excretion of substances such as glucose. d) the amount of pressure needed to stop flow of water by osmosis. Osmotic pressure is the amount of pressure needed to stop the flow of water by osmosis.

Description : Oncotic pressure refers to a) the osmotic pressure exerted by proteins. Oncotic pressure is a pulling pressure exerted by proteins, such as albumin. b) the number of dissolved particles contained in a ... . Osmotic pressure is the amount of pressure needed to stop the flow of water by osmosis.

Last Answer : a) the osmotic pressure exerted by proteins. Oncotic pressure is a pulling pressure exerted by proteins, such as albumin.

Which of the following colloids is expensive but rapidly expands plasma volume? a) Albumin Albumin is a colloid that requires human donors, is limited in supply, and can cause congestive heart failure. b) Dextran Dextran is a colloid, synthetic plasma expander that interferes with platelet aggregation and is not recommended for hemorrhagic shock. c) Lactated Ringers Lactated ringers is a crystalloid, not a colloid. d) Hypertonic Saline Hypertonic saline is a crystalloid, not a colloid.

Description : Which of the following colloids is expensive but rapidly expands plasma volume? a) Albumin Albumin is a colloid that requires human donors, is limited in supply, and can cause congestive heart failure ... , not a colloid. d) Hypertonic Saline Hypertonic saline is a crystalloid, not a colloid.

Last Answer : a) Albumin Albumin is a colloid that requires human donors, is limited in supply, and can cause congestive heart failure.

Which of the following is a reversible cause of urinary incontinence in the older adult? a) Constipation. Constipation is a reversible cause of urinary incontinence in the older adult. Other reversible causes include acute urinary tract infection, infection elsewhere in the body, decreased fluid intake, a change in a chronic disease pattern, and decreased estrogen levels in the menopausal women.

Description : Which of the following is a reversible cause of urinary incontinence in the older adult? a) Constipation. Constipation is a reversible cause of urinary incontinence in the older adult. Other ... level in the menopausal woman is a reversible cause of urinary incontinence in the older woman.

Last Answer : a) Constipation. Constipation is a reversible cause of urinary incontinence in the older adult. Other reversible causes include acute urinary tract infection, infection elsewhere in the body, decreased ... a change in a chronic disease pattern, and decreased estrogen levels in the menopausal women.

Which of the following terms is used to describe the fibrous connective tissue that covers the brain and spinal cord? a) Meninges The meninges have three layers, the dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater.

Description : Which of the following terms is used to describe the fibrous connective tissue that covers the brain and spinal cord? a) Meninges The meninges have three layers, the dura mater, arachnoid mater, and ... The pia mater is the innermost membrane of the protective covering of the brain and spinal cord.

Last Answer : a) Meninges The meninges have three layers, the dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater.

When x-ray demonstrates a fracture in which the fragments of bone are driven inward, the fracture is described as a) depressed. Depressed skull fractures occur as a result of blunt trauma.

Description : When x-ray demonstrates a fracture in which the fragments of bone are driven inward, the fracture is described as a) depressed. Depressed skull fractures occur as a result of blunt trauma. b) ... impacted. An impacted fracture is one in which a bone fragment is driven into another bone fragment.

Last Answer : a) depressed. Depressed skull fractures occur as a result of blunt trauma.

Localized rapid bone turnover, most commonly affecting the skull, femur, tibia, pelvic bones, and vertebrae, characterizes which of the following bone disorders? a) Osteitis deformans Osteitis deformans (Paget’s disease) results in bone that is highly vascularized and structurally weak, predisposing to pathologic fractures.

Description : Localized rapid bone turnover, most commonly affecting the skull, femur, tibia, pelvic bones, and vertebrae, characterizes which of the following bone disorders? a) Osteitis deformans Osteitis ... that comes from extension of soft tissue infection, direct bone contamination, or hematogenous spread.

Last Answer : a) Osteitis deformans Osteitis deformans (Paget’s disease) results in bone that is highly vascularized and structurally weak, predisposing to pathologic fractures.

When the nurse reviews the physician’s progress notes for the patient who has sustained a head injury and sees that the physician observed Battle’s sign when the patient was in the Emergency Department, the nurse knows that the physician observed a) an area of bruising over the mastoid bone. Battle’s sign may indicate skull fracture.

Description : When the nurse reviews the physician's progress notes for the patient who has sustained a head injury and sees that the physician observed Battle's sign when the patient was in the Emergency Department, the ... CSF) from the patient's nose. Escape of CSF from the patient's nose is termed rhinorrhea.

Last Answer : a) an area of bruising over the mastoid bone. Battle’s sign may indicate skull fracture.

The characteristic and an example of a synovial joint in humans is Characteristics Examples (a) Fluid filled synovial Joint between cavity between atlas and axis two bones (b) Lymph filled between Gliding joint two bones, limited between carpals movement (c) Fluid cartilage Knee joint between two bones, limited movements (d) Fluid filled between Skull bones two joints, provides cushion

Description : The characteristic and an example of a synovial joint in humans is Characteristics Examples (a) Fluid filled synovial Joint between cavity between atlas and axis two bones (b) Lymph filled ... between two bones, limited movements (d) Fluid filled between Skull bones two joints, provides cushion

Last Answer : (a) Fluid filled synovial Joint between cavity between atlas and axis two bones

Which of the following terms refers to a state of microorganisms being present within a host without causing host interference or interaction? a) Colonization Understanding the principle of colonization facilitates interpretation of microbiologic reports.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to a state of microorganisms being present within a host without causing host interference or interaction? a) Colonization Understanding the principle of colonization ... to a particular pathogen. d) Infection Infection refers to host interaction with an organism.

Last Answer : a) Colonization Understanding the principle of colonization facilitates interpretation of microbiologic reports.

In general, chest drainage tubes are not used for the patient undergoing a) Pneumonectomy Usually, no drains are used for the pneumonectomy patient because the accumulation of fluid in the empty hemithorax prevents mediastinal shift. b) Lobectomy With lobectomy, two chest tubes are usually inserted for drainage, the upper for air and the lower for fluid c) Wedge resection With wedge resection, the pleural cavity usually is drained because of the possibility of an air or blood leak d) Segmentectomy With segmentectomy, drains are usually used because of the possibility of an air or blood leak.

Description : In general, chest drainage tubes are not used for the patient undergoing a) Pneumonectomy Usually, no drains are used for the pneumonectomy patient because the accumulation of fluid in the empty ... With segmentectomy, drains are usually used because of the possibility of an air or blood leak.

Last Answer : a) Pneumonectomy Usually, no drains are used for the pneumonectomy patient because the accumulation of fluid in the empty hemithorax prevents mediastinal shift.

During which stage or phase of bone healing after fracture is devitalized tissue removed and new bone reorganized into its former structural arrangement? a) Remodeling Remodeling is the final stage of fracture repair. b) Inflammation During inflammation, macrophages invade and debride the fracture area. c) Revascularization Revascularization occurs within about 5 days after the fracture. d) Reparative Callus formation occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion at the fracture site.

Description : During which stage or phase of bone healing after fracture is devitalized tissue removed and new bone reorganized into its former structural arrangement? a) Remodeling Remodeling is the final stage of ... occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion at the fracture site.

Last Answer : a) Remodeling Remodeling is the final stage of fracture repair.

Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the nurse to take when the patient demonstrates subcutaneous emphysema along the suture line or chest dressing 2 hours after chest surgery? a) Record the observation. Subcutaneous emphysema occurs after chest surgery as the air that is located within the pleural cavity is expelled through the tissue opening created by the surgical procedure.

Description : Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the nurse to take when the patient demonstrates subcutaneous emphysema along the suture line or chest dressing 2 hours after chest ... finding to the physician immediately. Subcutaneous emphysema results from air entering the tissue planes.

Last Answer : a) Record the observation. Subcutaneous emphysema occurs after chest surgery as the air that is located within the pleural cavity is expelled through the tissue opening created by the surgical procedure.

Which of the following vasoactive drugs used in treating shock results in reduced preload and afterload, reducing oxygen demand of the heart? a) Nitroprusside (Nipride) A disadvantage of nitroprusside is that it causes hypotension. b) Dopamine (Intropin) Dopamine improves contractility, increases stroke volume, and increases cardiac output. c) Epinephrine (adrenaline) Epinephrine improves contractility, increases stroke volume, and increases cardiac output. d) Methoxamine (Vasoxyl) Methoxamine increases blood pressure by vasoconstriction.

Description : Which of the following vasoactive drugs used in treating shock results in reduced preload and afterload, reducing oxygen demand of the heart? a) Nitroprusside (Nipride) A disadvantage ... increases cardiac output. d) Methoxamine (Vasoxyl) Methoxamine increases blood pressure by vasoconstriction.

Last Answer : a) Nitroprusside (Nipride) A disadvantage of nitroprusside is that it causes hypotension.

Where does the cerebrospinal fluid drain to return to the blood supply?

Description : Where does the cerebrospinal fluid drain to return to the blood supply?

Last Answer : Need answer

Surgical fusion of a joint is termed a) arthrodesis. Arthrodesis of a joint is created surgically to treat chronic pain. b) open reduction with internal fixation (ORIF). ORIF refers to surgery to repair and stabilize a fracture. c) heterotrophic ossification. Heterotrophic ossification refers to formation of bone in the periprosthetic space. d) arthroplasty. Arthroplasty refers to surgical repair of a joint or joint replacement.

Description : Surgical fusion of a joint is termed a) arthrodesis. Arthrodesis of a joint is created surgically to treat chronic pain. b) open reduction with internal fixation (ORIF). ORIF refers to ... periprosthetic space. d) arthroplasty. Arthroplasty refers to surgical repair of a joint or joint replacement.

Last Answer : a) arthrodesis. Arthrodesis of a joint is created surgically to treat chronic pain.

Which of the following terms refers to altered sensation of orientation in space? a) Dizziness Dizziness may be associated with inner ear disturbances.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to altered sensation of orientation in space? a) Dizziness Dizziness may be associated with inner ear disturbances. b) Vertigo Vertigo is the illusion of ... of sound with internal origin. d) Nystagmus Nystagmus refers to involuntary rhythmic eye movement.

Last Answer : a) Dizziness Dizziness may be associated with inner ear disturbances.

When the nurse notes that the post cardiac surgery patient demonstrates low urine output (< 25 ml/hr) with high specific gravity (> 1.025), the nurse suspects: a) Inadequate fluid volume Urine output of less than 25 ml/hr may indicate a decrease in cardiac output. A high specific gravity indicates increased concentration of solutes in the urine which occurs with inadequate fluid volume. b) Normal glomerular filtration Indices of normal glomerular filtration are output of 25 ml or greater per hour and specific gravity between 1.010 and 1.025. c) Overhydration Overhydration is manifested by high urine output with low specific gravity. d) Anuria The anuric patient does not produce urine.

Description : When the nurse notes that the post cardiac surgery patient demonstrates low urine output (< 25 ml/hr) with high specific gravity (> 1.025), the nurse suspects: a) Inadequate fluid volume Urine ... by high urine output with low specific gravity. d) Anuria The anuric patient does not produce urine.

Last Answer : a) Inadequate fluid volume Urine output of less than 25 ml/hr may indicate a decrease in cardiac output. A high specific gravity indicates increased concentration of solutes in the urine which occurs with inadequate fluid volume.

A malignant tumor a) gains access to the blood and lymphatic channels. By this mechanism, the tumor metastasizes to other areas of the body. b) demonstrates cells that are well-differentiated. Cells of malignant tumors are undifferentiated. c) is usually slow growing. Malignant tumors demonstrate variable rate of growth; however, the more anaplastic the tumor, the faster its growth. d) grows by expansion. A malignant tumor grows at the periphery and sends out processes that infiltrate and destroy surrounding tissues.

Description : A malignant tumor a) gains access to the blood and lymphatic channels. By this mechanism, the tumor metastasizes to other areas of the body. b) demonstrates cells that are well- ... malignant tumor grows at the periphery and sends out processes that infiltrate and destroy surrounding tissues.

Last Answer : a) gains access to the blood and lymphatic channels. By this mechanism, the tumor metastasizes to other areas of the body.

The most common symptom of esophageal disease is a) dysphagia. This symptom may vary from an uncomfortable feeling that a bolus of food is caught in the upper esophagus to acute pain on swallowing. b) nausea. Nausea is the most common symptom of gastrointestinal problems in general. c) vomiting. Vomiting is a nonspecific symptom that may have a variety of causes. d) odynophagia. Odynophagia refers specifically to acute pain on swallowing.

Description : The most common symptom of esophageal disease is a) dysphagia. This symptom may vary from an uncomfortable feeling that a bolus of food is caught in the upper esophagus to acute pain on ... have a variety of causes. d) odynophagia. Odynophagia refers specifically to acute pain on swallowing.

Last Answer : a) dysphagia. This symptom may vary from an uncomfortable feeling that a bolus of food is caught in the upper esophagus to acute pain on swallowing.

To prevent footdrop, the patient is positioned in: a) Order to keep the feet at right angles to the leg When the patient is supine in bed, padded splints or protective boots are used. b) A semi-sitting position in bed Semi-fowlers positioning is used to decrease the pressure of abdominal contents on the diaphragm. c) A sitting position with legs hanging off the side of the bed In order to prevent footdrop, the feet must be supported. d) A side-lying position Side-lying positions do not provide support to prevent footdrop.

Description : To prevent footdrop, the patient is positioned in: a) Order to keep the feet at right angles to the leg When the patient is supine in bed, padded splints or protective boots are used. b) ... must be supported. d) A side-lying position Side-lying positions do not provide support to prevent footdrop.

Last Answer : a) Order to keep the feet at right angles to the leg When the patient is supine in bed, padded splints or protective boots are used.

Which of the following terms refers to the shaft of the long bone? a) Diaphysis The diaphysis is primarily cortical bone. b) Epiphysis An epiphysis is an end of a long bone. c) Lordosis Lordosis refers to an increase in lumbar curvature of spine. d) Scoliosis Scoliosis refers to lateral curving of the spine.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to the shaft of the long bone? a) Diaphysis The diaphysis is primarily cortical bone. b) Epiphysis An epiphysis is an end of a long bone. c) Lordosis ... an increase in lumbar curvature of spine. d) Scoliosis Scoliosis refers to lateral curving of the spine.

Last Answer : a) Diaphysis The diaphysis is primarily cortical bone.

Which of the following types of incontinence refers to involuntary loss of urine through an intact urethra as a result of a sudden increase in intra-abdominal pressure? a) Stress Stress incontinence may occur with sneezing and coughing.

Description : Which of the following types of incontinence refers to involuntary loss of urine through an intact urethra as a result of a sudden increase in intra-abdominal pressure? a) Stress Stress ... the involuntary loss of urine due to involuntary urethral relaxation in the absence of normal sensations.

Last Answer : a) Stress Stress incontinence may occur with sneezing and coughing.

Which of the following diseases is a rare, transmissible, progressive fatal disease of the central nervous system characterized by spongiform degeneration of the gray matter of the brain? a) Creutzfeldt-Jakob’s disease The disease causes severe dementia and myoclonus.

Description : Which of the following diseases is a rare, transmissible, progressive fatal disease of the central nervous system characterized by spongiform degeneration of the gray matter of the brain? a) ... disease of the nervous system that results in progressive involuntary dance-like movement and dementia.

Last Answer : a) Creutzfeldt-Jakob’s disease The disease causes severe dementia and myoclonus.