Which of the following types of incontinence refers to involuntary loss of urine through an intact urethra as a result of a sudden increase in intra-abdominal pressure? a) Stress Stress incontinence may occur with sneezing and coughing.

Which of the following types of incontinence refers to
involuntary loss of urine through an intact urethra as a result of a
sudden increase in intra-abdominal pressure?
a) Stress
Stress incontinence may occur with sneezing and coughing.
b) Overflow
Overflow incontinence refers to the involuntary loss of urine associated
with overdistention of the bladder.
c) Urge
Urge incontinence refers to involuntary loss of urine associated with
urgency.
d) Reflex
Reflex incontinence refers to the involuntary loss of urine due to
involuntary urethral relaxation in the absence of normal sensations.
by

1 Answer

Answer :

a) Stress
Stress incontinence may occur with sneezing and coughing.
by

Related questions

A 40 years old multiparous woman complains of involuntary loss of urine associated with coughing, laughing, lifting or standing. The history is most suggestive of: a) Fistula. b) Stress incontinence. c) Urge incontinence. d) Urethral diverticulum. e) Urinary tract infection.

Description : A 40 years old multiparous woman complains of involuntary loss of urine associated with coughing, laughing, lifting or standing. The history is most suggestive of: a) Fistula. b) Stress incontinence. c) Urge incontinence. d) Urethral diverticulum. e) Urinary tract infection.

Last Answer : b) Stress incontinence.

Through which of the following activities does the patient learn to consciously contract excretory sphincters and control voiding cues? a) Biofeedback Cognitively intact patients who have stress or urge incontinence may gain bladder control through biofeedback. b) Kegel exercises Kegel exercises are pelvic floor exercises that strengthen the pubococcygeus muscle. c) Habit training Habit training is used to try to keep the patient dry by strictly adhering to a toileting schedule and may be successful with stress, urge, or functional incontinence. d) Bladder training Habit training is a type of bladder training.

Description : Through which of the following activities does the patient learn to consciously contract excretory sphincters and control voiding cues? a) Biofeedback Cognitively intact patients who have stress or urge ... functional incontinence. d) Bladder training Habit training is a type of bladder training.

Last Answer : a) Biofeedback Cognitively intact patients who have stress or urge incontinence may gain bladder control through biofeedback.

n assisting the client to do deep breathing, coughing and turning to the sides on the first post-operative day, which nursing action would be most helpful for the client? A. Restate the importance of respiratory exercises B. Give the client reassurance that can he can cough, breathe deeply and turn to sides safely C. Administer the prescribed analgesic round the clock as prescribed D. Apply abdominal splint (pillow) while coughing

Description : n assisting the client to do deep breathing, coughing and turning to the sides on the first post-operative day, which nursing action would be most helpful for the client? A. Restate ... the prescribed analgesic round the clock as prescribed D. Apply abdominal splint (pillow) while coughing

Last Answer : D. Apply abdominal splint (pillow) while coughing

When assessing the older adult, the nurse anticipates increase in which of the follow components of respiratory status? a) Residual lung volume As a result, patient experience fatigue and breathlessness with sustained activity. b) Vital capacity The nurse anticipates decreased vital capacity. c) Gas exchange and diffusing capacity The nurse anticipates decreased gas exchange and diffusing capacity resulting in impaired healing of tissues due to decreased oxygenation. d) Cough efficiency The nurse anticipates difficulty coughing up secretions due to decreased cough efficiency.

Description : When assessing the older adult, the nurse anticipates increase in which of the follow components of respiratory status? a) Residual lung volume As a result, patient experience fatigue ... ) Cough efficiency The nurse anticipates difficulty coughing up secretions due to decreased cough efficiency.

Last Answer : a) Residual lung volume As a result, patient experience fatigue and breathlessness with sustained activity.

Which of the following terms refers to chest pain brought on by physical or emotional stress and relieved by rest or medication? a) angina pectoris Angina pectoris is a symptom of myocardial ischemia. b) atherosclerosis Atherosclerosis is an abnormal accumulation of lipid deposits and fibrous tissue within arterial walls and lumens. c) atheroma Atheromas are fibrous caps composed of smooth muscle cells that form over lipid deposits within arterial vessels. d) ischemia Ischemia is insufficient tissue oxygenation and may occur in any part of the body.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to chest pain brought on by physical or emotional stress and relieved by rest or medication? a) angina pectoris Angina pectoris is a symptom of myocardial ischemia. ... d) ischemia Ischemia is insufficient tissue oxygenation and may occur in any part of the body.

Last Answer : a) angina pectoris Angina pectoris is a symptom of myocardial ischemia.

Which of the following terms related to aphasia refers to the inability to perform previously learned purposeful motor acts on a voluntary basis? a) Apraxia Verbal apraxia refers to difficulty in forming and organizing intelligible words although the musculature is intact.

Description : Which of the following terms related to aphasia refers to the inability to perform previously learned purposeful motor acts on a voluntary basis? a) Apraxia Verbal apraxia refers to difficulty in ... continued and automatic repetition of an activity or word or phrase that is no longer appropriate.

Last Answer : a) Apraxia Verbal apraxia refers to difficulty in forming and organizing intelligible words although the musculature is intact.

Which of the following terms is used to refer to protrusion of abdominal organs through the surgical incision? a) Evisceration Evisceration is a surgical emergency. b) Hernia A hernia is a weakness in the abdominal wall. c) Dehiscence Dehiscence refers to partial or complete separation of wound edges. d) Erythema Erythema refers to redness of tissue.

Description : Which of the following terms is used to refer to protrusion of abdominal organs through the surgical incision? a) Evisceration Evisceration is a surgical emergency. b) Hernia A hernia is a weakness ... partial or complete separation of wound edges. d) Erythema Erythema refers to redness of tissue.

Last Answer : a) Evisceration Evisceration is a surgical emergency.

Of the following terms, which refers to casts in the urine? a) Cylindruria Casts may be identified through microscopic examination of the urine sediment after centrifuging.

Description : Of the following terms, which refers to casts in the urine? a) Cylindruria Casts may be identified through microscopic examination of the urine sediment after centrifuging. b) Crystalluria Crystalluria ... Bacteriuria refers to a bacterial count higher than 100,000 colonies/mL in the urine.

Last Answer : a) Cylindruria Casts may be identified through microscopic examination of the urine sediment after centrifuging.

A physician refers a nine years-old boy to you to confirm diagnosis. The boy has a fever of 40°C and coughing. When you focus your light into his eyes he turns away. Intra-orally there are white spots surrounded by red margins. The disease and lesions are: A. Measles and Koplik’s spots B. AHGS vesicles

Description : A physician refers a nine years-old boy to you to confirm diagnosis. The boy has a fever of 40°C and coughing. When you focus your light into his eyes he turns away. Intra-orally there are white ... by red margins. The disease and lesions are: A. Measles and Koplik's spots B. AHGS vesicles

Last Answer : A. Measles and Koplik’s spots

Which of the following terms refers to muscle tension being unchanged with muscle shortening and joint motion? a) Isotonic contraction Exercises such as swimming and bicycling are isotonic. b) Isometric contraction Isometric contraction is characterized by increased muscle tension, unchanged muscle length, and no joint motion. c) Contracture Contracture refers to abnormal shortening of muscle, joint, or both. d) Fasciculation Fasciculation refers to involuntary twitch of muscle fibers.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to muscle tension being unchanged with muscle shortening and joint motion? a) Isotonic contraction Exercises such as swimming and bicycling are isotonic. b) ... , joint, or both. d) Fasciculation Fasciculation refers to involuntary twitch of muscle fibers.

Last Answer : a) Isotonic contraction Exercises such as swimming and bicycling are isotonic.

An increase in intra-ocular pressure occurs with: a. normal blinking b. coughing c. hypercarbia d. all above

Description : An increase in intra-ocular pressure occurs with: a. normal blinking b. coughing c. hypercarbia d. all above

Last Answer : all above

Oncotic pressure refers to a) the osmotic pressure exerted by proteins. Oncotic pressure is a pulling pressure exerted by proteins, such as albumin. b) the number of dissolved particles contained in a unit of fluid. Osmolality refers to the number of dissolved particles contained in a unit of fluid. c) the excretion of substances such as glucose through increased urine output. Osmotic diuresis occurs when the urine output increases due to excretion of substances such as glucose. d) the amount of pressure needed to stop flow of water by osmosis. Osmotic pressure is the amount of pressure needed to stop the flow of water by osmosis.

Description : Oncotic pressure refers to a) the osmotic pressure exerted by proteins. Oncotic pressure is a pulling pressure exerted by proteins, such as albumin. b) the number of dissolved particles contained in a ... . Osmotic pressure is the amount of pressure needed to stop the flow of water by osmosis.

Last Answer : a) the osmotic pressure exerted by proteins. Oncotic pressure is a pulling pressure exerted by proteins, such as albumin.

Which type of medication may be used in the treatment of a patient with incontinence to inhibit contraction of the bladder? a) Anticholinergic agent Anticholinergic agents are considered first-line medications for urge incontinence.

Description : Which type of medication may be used in the treatment of a patient with incontinence to inhibit contraction of the bladder? a) Anticholinergic agent Anticholinergic agents are ... be treated using pseudoephedrine and phenylpropanolamine, ingredients found in over-the-counter decongestants.

Last Answer : a) Anticholinergic agent Anticholinergic agents are considered first-line medications for urge incontinence.

Which of the following terms is used to describe the opening of the urethra on the dorsum of the penis? a) Epispadias Epispadias is a congenital anomaly in which the urethral opening is on the dorsum of the penis and is usually repaired through plastic surgery when the boy is very young.

Description : Which of the following terms is used to describe the opening of the urethra on the dorsum of the penis? a) Epispadias Epispadias is a congenital anomaly in which the urethral ... Urethritis Urethritis refers to inflammation of the urethra and is commonly associated with sexually transmitted disease.

Last Answer : a) Epispadias Epispadias is a congenital anomaly in which the urethral opening is on the dorsum of the penis and is usually repaired through plastic surgery when the boy is very young.

An osmotic diuretic, such as Mannitol, is given to the patient with increased intracranial pressure (IICP) in order to a) dehydrate the brain and reduce cerebral edema. Osmotic diuretics draw water across intact membranes, thereby reducing the volume of brain and extracellular fluid.

Description : An osmotic diuretic, such as Mannitol, is given to the patient with increased intracranial pressure (IICP) in order to a) dehydrate the brain and reduce cerebral edema. Osmotic diuretics ... Medications such as barbiturates are given to the patient with IICP to reduce cellular metabolic demands.

Last Answer : a) dehydrate the brain and reduce cerebral edema. Osmotic diuretics draw water across intact membranes, thereby reducing the volume of brain and extracellular fluid.

Of the following terms, which refers to the progressive hearing loss associated with aging? a) Presbycusis Both middle and inner ear age-related changes result in hearing loss.

Description : Of the following terms, which refers to the progressive hearing loss associated with aging? a) Presbycusis Both middle and inner ear age-related changes result in hearing loss. b) Exostoses Exostoses refers ... loss of hearing related to damage of the end organ for hearing and/or cranial nerve VIII.

Last Answer : a) Presbycusis Both middle and inner ear age-related changes result in hearing loss.

Which of the following terms is used to describe rapid, jerky, involuntary, purposeless movements of the extremities? a) Chorea Choreiform movements, such as grimacing, may also be observed in the face.

Description : Which of the following terms is used to describe rapid, jerky, involuntary, purposeless movements of the extremities? a) Chorea Choreiform movements, such as grimacing, may also be ... movements. d) Spondylosis Spondylosis refers to degenerative arthritis of the cervical or lumbar vertebrae.

Last Answer : a) Chorea Choreiform movements, such as grimacing, may also be observed in the face.

An increase in the number of new cells in an organ or tissue that is reversible when the stimulus for production of new cells is removed is termed a) Hyperplasia. Hyperplasia occurs as cells multiply and are subjected to increased stimulation resulting in tissue mass enlargement. b) Hypertrophy. Hypertrophy is an increase in size and bulk of tissue that does not result from an increased number of cells. c) Atrophy. Atrophy refers to reduction in size of a structure after having come to full maturity. d) Neoplasia. With neoplasia, the increase in the number of new cells in an organ or tissue continues after the stimulus is removed.

Description : An increase in the number of new cells in an organ or tissue that is reversible when the stimulus for production of new cells is removed is termed a) Hyperplasia. Hyperplasia occurs as cells multiply ... in the number of new cells in an organ or tissue continues after the stimulus is removed.

Last Answer : a) Hyperplasia. Hyperplasia occurs as cells multiply and are subjected to increased stimulation resulting in tissue mass enlargement.

Which of the following terms refers to a grating or crackling sound or sensation? a) Crepitus Crepitus may occur with movement of ends of a broken bone or irregular joint surface.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to a grating or crackling sound or sensation? a) Crepitus Crepitus may occur with movement of ends of a broken bone or irregular joint surface. b) ... to rhythmic contraction of muscle. d) Fasciculation Fasciculation refers to involuntary twitch of muscle fibers.

Last Answer : a) Crepitus Crepitus may occur with movement of ends of a broken bone or irregular joint surface.

Which of the following terms related to aphasia refers to difficulty reading? a) Alexia Alexia or dyslexia may occur in the absence of aphasia.

Description : Which of the following terms related to aphasia refers to difficulty reading? a) Alexia Alexia or dyslexia may occur in the absence of aphasia. b) Agnosia Agnosia is failure to recognize familiar ... continued and automatic repetition of an activity, word, or phrase that is no longer appropriate.

Last Answer : a) Alexia Alexia or dyslexia may occur in the absence of aphasia.

In which phase of the trajectory model of chronic illness are the symptoms under control and managed? a) Stable The stable phase indicates that the symptoms and disability are under control or managed. b) Acute The acute phase is characterized by sudden onset of severe or unrelieved symptoms or complications that may necessitate hospitalization for their management. c) Comeback The comeback phase is the period in the trajectory marked by recovery after an acute period. d) Downward The downward phase occurs when symptoms worsen or the disability progresses despite attempts to control the course through proper management.

Description : In which phase of the trajectory model of chronic illness are the symptoms under control and managed? a) Stable The stable phase indicates that the symptoms and disability are under ... symptoms worsen or the disability progresses despite attempts to control the course through proper management.

Last Answer : a) Stable The stable phase indicates that the symptoms and disability are under control or managed.

Which of the following terms refers to fixation or immobility of a joint? a) Ankylosis Ankylosis may result from disease or scarring due to trauma.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to fixation or immobility of a joint? a) Ankylosis Ankylosis may result from disease or scarring due to trauma. b) Hemarthrosis Hemarthrosis refers to bleeding ... joint with two freely moveable parts. d) Arthroplasty Arthroplasty refers to replacement of a joint.

Last Answer : a) Ankylosis Ankylosis may result from disease or scarring due to trauma.

Which of the following is a reversible cause of urinary incontinence in the older adult? a) Constipation. Constipation is a reversible cause of urinary incontinence in the older adult. Other reversible causes include acute urinary tract infection, infection elsewhere in the body, decreased fluid intake, a change in a chronic disease pattern, and decreased estrogen levels in the menopausal women.

Description : Which of the following is a reversible cause of urinary incontinence in the older adult? a) Constipation. Constipation is a reversible cause of urinary incontinence in the older adult. Other ... level in the menopausal woman is a reversible cause of urinary incontinence in the older woman.

Last Answer : a) Constipation. Constipation is a reversible cause of urinary incontinence in the older adult. Other reversible causes include acute urinary tract infection, infection elsewhere in the body, decreased ... a change in a chronic disease pattern, and decreased estrogen levels in the menopausal women.

Which of the following terms refers most precisely to a localized skin infection of a single hair follicle? a) Furuncle Furuncles occur anywhere on the body, but are most prevalent in areas subjected to irritation, pressure friction, and excessive perspiration, such as the back of the neck, the axillae, or the buttocks.

Description : Which of the following terms refers most precisely to a localized skin infection of a single hair follicle? a) Furuncle Furuncles occur anywhere on the body, but are most prevalent in areas ... Comedone. Comedones are the primary lesions of acne, caused by sebum blockage in the hair follicle.

Last Answer : a) Furuncle Furuncles occur anywhere on the body, but are most prevalent in areas subjected to irritation, pressure friction, and excessive perspiration, such as the back of the neck, the axillae, or the buttocks.

The nurse who provides teaching to the female patient regarding prevention of recurrent urinary tract infections includes which of the following statements? a) Void immediately after sexual intercourse. Voiding will serve to flush the urethra, expelling contaminants.

Description : The nurse who provides teaching to the female patient regarding prevention of recurrent urinary tract infections includes which of the following statements? a) Void immediately after sexual intercourse. Voiding ... encouraged to void every 2-3 hours during the day and completely empty the bladder.

Last Answer : a) Void immediately after sexual intercourse. Voiding will serve to flush the urethra, expelling contaminants.

To facilitate entry of a catheter into the male urethra, the penis should be positioned at which of the following degree angles (in relation to the body)? a) 90 degrees A right angle straightens the urethra and makes it easier to insert the catheter.

Description : To facilitate entry of a catheter into the male urethra, the penis should be positioned at which of the following degree angles (in relation to the body)? a) 90 degrees A right ... and inappropriately positioned for catheterization. d) 270 degrees A 270-degree angle is a physical impossibility.

Last Answer : a) 90 degrees A right angle straightens the urethra and makes it easier to insert the catheter.

The individual who demonstrates displacement of the sternum is described as having a a) pigeon chest. Pigeon chest may occur with rickets, Marfan’s syndrome, or severe kyphoscoliosis. b) barrel chest. A barrel chest is seen in patients with emphysema as a result of overinflation of the lungs. c) funnel chest. A funnel chest occurs when there is a depression in the lower portion of the sternum. d) kyphoscoliosis. Kyphoscoliosis is characterized by elevation of the scapula and a corresponding S-shaped spine.

Description : The individual who demonstrates displacement of the sternum is described as having a a) pigeon chest. Pigeon chest may occur with rickets, Marfan's syndrome, or severe kyphoscoliosis. ... kyphoscoliosis. Kyphoscoliosis is characterized by elevation of the scapula and a corresponding S-shaped spine.

Last Answer : a) pigeon chest. Pigeon chest may occur with rickets, Marfan’s syndrome, or severe kyphoscoliosis.

Nondisjunction of a chromosome results in which of the following diagnoses? a) Down Syndrome When a pair of chromosomes fails to separate completely and creates a sperm or oocyte that contains two copies of a particular chromosome (nondisjunction) Down syndrome results from three number 21 chromosomes. b) Huntingon Disease Huntington disease is one example of a germ-line mutation. c) Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy Duchenne muscular dystrophy, an inherited form of muscular dystrophy, is an example of a genetic caused by structural gene mutations. d) Marphan Syndrome Marphan Syndrome is a genetic condition that may occur in a single family member as a result of spontaneous mutation.

Description : Nondisjunction of a chromosome results in which of the following diagnoses? a) Down Syndrome When a pair of chromosomes fails to separate completely and creates a sperm or oocyte that contains two ... genetic condition that may occur in a single family member as a result of spontaneous mutation.

Last Answer : a) Down Syndrome When a pair of chromosomes fails to separate completely and creates a sperm or oocyte that contains two copies of a particular chromosome (nondisjunction) Down syndrome results from three number 21 chromosomes.

Which of the following terms, according to Lazarus, refers to the process through which an event is evaluated with respect to what is at stake and what might and can be done? a) Cognitive appraisal The outcome of cognitive appraisal is identification of the situation as either stressful or non-stressful. b) Coping Coping consists of both cognitive and behavioral efforts made to manage the specific external or internal demand that taxes a person’s resources. c) Hardiness Hardiness is a personality characteristic that is composed of control, commitment, and challenge. d) Adaptation Lazarus believed adaptation was affected by emotion that subsumed stress and coping.

Description : Which of the following terms, according to Lazarus, refers to the process through which an event is evaluated with respect to what is at stake and what might and can be done? a) ... and challenge. d) Adaptation Lazarus believed adaptation was affected by emotion that subsumed stress and coping.

Last Answer : a) Cognitive appraisal The outcome of cognitive appraisal is identification of the situation as either stressful or non-stressful.

Which of the following guidelines is appropriate to helping family members cope with sudden death? a) Show acceptance of the body by touching it, giving the family permission to touch. The nurse should encourage the family to view and touch the body if they wish, since this action helps the family to integrate the loss.

Description : Which of the following guidelines is appropriate to helping family members cope with sudden death? a) Show acceptance of the body by touching it, giving the family permission to touch. The nurse ... avoid volunteering unnecessary information (e.g., patient was drinking at the time of the accident).

Last Answer : a) Show acceptance of the body by touching it, giving the family permission to touch. The nurse should encourage the family to view and touch the body if they wish, since this action helps the family to integrate the loss.

The nurse teaches the patient with peripheral vascular disease to refrain from smoking because nicotine causes a) vasospasm. Nicotine causes vasospasm and can thereby dramatically reduce circulation to the extremities. b) slowed heart rate. Nicotine has stimulant effects. c) depression of the cough reflex. Nicotine does not suppress cough. Smoking irritates the bronchial tree, causing coughing. d) diuresis. Nicotine does not cause diuresis.

Description : The nurse teaches the patient with peripheral vascular disease to refrain from smoking because nicotine causes a) vasospasm. Nicotine causes vasospasm and can thereby dramatically reduce circulation to the ... the bronchial tree, causing coughing. d) diuresis. Nicotine does not cause diuresis.

Last Answer : a) vasospasm. Nicotine causes vasospasm and can thereby dramatically reduce circulation to the extremities.

To prevent footdrop, the patient is positioned in: a) Order to keep the feet at right angles to the leg When the patient is supine in bed, padded splints or protective boots are used. b) A semi-sitting position in bed Semi-fowlers positioning is used to decrease the pressure of abdominal contents on the diaphragm. c) A sitting position with legs hanging off the side of the bed In order to prevent footdrop, the feet must be supported. d) A side-lying position Side-lying positions do not provide support to prevent footdrop.

Description : To prevent footdrop, the patient is positioned in: a) Order to keep the feet at right angles to the leg When the patient is supine in bed, padded splints or protective boots are used. b) ... must be supported. d) A side-lying position Side-lying positions do not provide support to prevent footdrop.

Last Answer : a) Order to keep the feet at right angles to the leg When the patient is supine in bed, padded splints or protective boots are used.

When a person's sick, is your risk to their germs greater by exposure to their sweat/touching things or by their saliva/sneezing & coughing?

Description : When a person's sick, is your risk to their germs greater by exposure to their sweat/touching things or by their saliva/sneezing & coughing?

Last Answer : Saliva, mucous, all of that poses the greatest danger. Wet stuff. It can get on anything. They are still contagious usually when they start showing symptoms.

We can prevent infectious diseases by covering our face with our hands or using handkerchief during sneezing and coughing. Why is it better to use the back of the hand or the fold of the elbow than the palm of the hand ?

Description : We can prevent infectious diseases by covering our face with our hands or using handkerchief during sneezing and coughing. Why is it better to use the back of the hand or the fold of the elbow than the palm of the hand ?

Last Answer : We can prevent infectious diseases by covering our face with our hands or using handkerchiefs during sneezing and coughing. In this case, it is better to use the back of the hand or the fold of the ... diseases during sneezing and coughing as the back of the hand or elbow is less used during work.

The Particulate Matter (PM-10) exhaled from the polluted atmosphere is often filtered out during the process of (1) Coughing (2) Sneezing (3) A and B (4) Urination

Description : The Particulate Matter (PM-10) exhaled from the polluted atmosphere is often filtered out during the process of (1) Coughing (2) Sneezing (3) A and B (4) Urination

Last Answer : (2) Sneezing Explanation: PM-10 is a particulate matter having an aerodynamic diameter of less than 10 gym. Particles larger than 10 microns tend to be filtered out in the nose and therefore do not enter the respiratory tract. 926.

The Particulate Matter (PM-10) exhaled from the polluted atmosphere is often filtered out during the process of (1) Coughing (2) Sneezing (3) A and B (4) Urination

Description : The Particulate Matter (PM-10) exhaled from the polluted atmosphere is often filtered out during the process of (1) Coughing (2) Sneezing (3) A and B (4) Urination

Last Answer : Sneezing

Ageism refers to a) Bias against older people based solely on chronological age Individuals demonstrating ageism base their beliefs and attitudes about older people based upon chronological age without consideration of functional capacity. b) fear of old age. Fear of aging and the inability of many to confront their own aging process may trigger ageist beliefs. c) loss of memory. Age-related loss of memory occurs more with short-term and recent memory. d) benign senescent forgetfulness. Benign senescent forgetfulness refers to the age-related loss of memory in the absence of a pathologic process.

Description : Ageism refers to a) Bias against older people based solely on chronological age Individuals demonstrating ageism base their beliefs and attitudes about older people based upon chronological age without consideration ... refers to the age-related loss of memory in the absence of a pathologic process.

Last Answer : a) Bias against older people based solely on chronological age Individuals demonstrating ageism base their beliefs and attitudes about older people based upon chronological age without consideration of functional capacity.

Which of the following statements defines laparoscopic myomectomy—an alternative to hysterectomy for the treatment of excessive bleeding due to fibroids? a) Removal of fibroids through a laparoscope inserted through a small abdominal incision. Laparoscopic myomectomy is the removal of fibroids through a laparoscope inserted through a small abdominal incision.

Description : Which of the following statements defines laparoscopic myomectomy-an alternative to hysterectomy for the treatment of excessive bleeding due to fibroids? a) Removal of fibroids through a laparoscope inserted ... through a hyserscope passed through the cervix; no incision or overnight stay is needed.

Last Answer : a) Removal of fibroids through a laparoscope inserted through a small abdominal incision. Laparoscopic myomectomy is the removal of fibroids through a laparoscope inserted through a small abdominal incision.

Which of the following terms refers to the decrease in lens flexibility that occurs with age, resulting in the near point of focus getting farther away? a) Presbyopia Presbyopia usually begins in the fifth decade of life, when reading glasses are required to magnify objects. b) Presbycusis Presbycusis refers to age-related hearing loss. c) Cataract Cataract is the development of opacity of the lens of the eye. d) Glaucoma Glaucoma is a disease characterized by increased intraocular pressure.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to the decrease in lens flexibility that occurs with age, resulting in the near point of focus getting farther away? a) Presbyopia Presbyopia usually begins in ... lens of the eye. d) Glaucoma Glaucoma is a disease characterized by increased intraocular pressure.

Last Answer : a) Presbyopia Presbyopia usually begins in the fifth decade of life, when reading glasses are required to magnify objects.

If a person has been exposed to radiation, presenting symptoms, such as nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, diarrhea, or fatigue can be expected to occur within _______ hours after exposure? a) 48 to 72 The prodromal phase (presenting symptoms) of radiation exposure occurs within 48 to 72 hours after exposure. Signs and symptoms include nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, diarrhea, and fatigue. With high-dose radiation exposure, the signs and symptoms may include fever, respiratory distress, and increased excitability.

Description : If a person has been exposed to radiation, presenting symptoms, such as nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, diarrhea, or fatigue can be expected to occur within _______ hours after exposure? ... prodromal phase (presenting symptoms) of radiation exposure occurs within 48 to 72 hours after exposure.

Last Answer : a) 48 to 72 The prodromal phase (presenting symptoms) of radiation exposure occurs within 48 to 72 hours after exposure. Signs and symptoms include nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, ... radiation exposure, the signs and symptoms may include fever, respiratory distress, and increased excitability.

Which phase of the trajectory model of chronic illness is characterized by reactivation of the illness? a) Unstable The unstable phase is characterized by development of complications or reactivation of the illness. b) Stable The stable phase indicates that the symptoms and disability are under control or managed. c) Acute The acute phase is characterized by sudden onset of severe or unrelieved symptoms or complications that may necessitate hospitalization for their management. d) Comeback The comeback phase is the period in the trajectory marked by recovery after an acute period.

Description : Which phase of the trajectory model of chronic illness is characterized by reactivation of the illness? a) Unstable The unstable phase is characterized by development of complications or reactivation of the ... comeback phase is the period in the trajectory marked by recovery after an acute period.

Last Answer : a) Unstable The unstable phase is characterized by development of complications or reactivation of the illness.

Paresthesia is the term used to refer to a) abnormal sensations. Abnormal sensations, such as burning, tingling, and numbness, are referred to as paresthesias. b) absence of muscle movement suggesting nerve damage. The absence of muscle tone suggesting nerve damage is referred to as paralysis. c) involuntary twitch of muscle fibers. Involuntary twitch of muscle fibers is referred to as fasciculation. d) absence of muscle tone. A muscle which holds no tone is termed flaccid.

Description : Paresthesia is the term used to refer to a) abnormal sensations. Abnormal sensations, such as burning, tingling, and numbness, are referred to as paresthesias. b) absence of muscle movement suggesting ... fasciculation. d) absence of muscle tone. A muscle which holds no tone is termed flaccid.

Last Answer : a) abnormal sensations. Abnormal sensations, such as burning, tingling, and numbness, are referred to as paresthesias.

Degenerative neurologic disorders include which of the following? a) Huntington’s disease Huntington’s disease is a chronic, progressive, degenerative neurologic hereditary disease of the nervous system that results in progressive involuntary choreiform movement and dementia.

Description : Degenerative neurologic disorders include which of the following? a) Huntington's disease Huntington's disease is a chronic, progressive, degenerative neurologic hereditary disease of the nervous system that results in ... the bone. d) Glioma Malignant glioma is the most common type of brain tumor.

Last Answer : a) Huntington’s disease Huntington’s disease is a chronic, progressive, degenerative neurologic hereditary disease of the nervous system that results in progressive involuntary choreiform movement and dementia.

Which of the following diseases is a chronic, progressive, hereditary disease of the nervous system that results in progressive involuntary dance-like movement and dementia? a) Huntington’s disease Because it is transmitted as an autosomal dominant genetic disorder, each child of a parent with HD has a 50% risk of inheriting the illness.

Description : Which of the following diseases is a chronic, progressive, hereditary disease of the nervous system that results in progressive involuntary dance-like movement and dementia? a) Huntington's ... the central nervous system characterized by spongiform degeneration of the gray matter of the brain.

Last Answer : a) Huntington’s disease Because it is transmitted as an autosomal dominant genetic disorder, each child of a parent with HD has a 50% risk of inheriting the illness.

Which of the following categories of medications may result in seizure activity if withdrawn suddenly? a) Tranquilizers Abrupt withdrawal of tranquilizers may result in anxiety, tension, and even seizures if withdrawn suddenly. b) Adrenal corticosteroids Abrupt withdrawal of steroids may precipitate cardiovascular collapse. c) Antidepressants Monoamine oxidase inhibitors increase the hypotensive effects of anesthetics. d) Diuretics Thiazide diuretics may cause excessive respiratory depression during anesthesia due to an associated electrolyte imbalance.

Description : Which of the following categories of medications may result in seizure activity if withdrawn suddenly? a) Tranquilizers Abrupt withdrawal of tranquilizers may result in anxiety, tension, ... may cause excessive respiratory depression during anesthesia due to an associated electrolyte imbalance.

Last Answer : a) Tranquilizers Abrupt withdrawal of tranquilizers may result in anxiety, tension, and even seizures if withdrawn suddenly.

Which of the following terms refers to injuries that occur when a person is caught between objects, run over by a moving vehicle, or compressed by machinery? a) Crush injuries Crush injuries are those that occur when a person is caught between objects, run over by a moving vehicle, or compressed by machinery.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to injuries that occur when a person is caught between objects, run over by a moving vehicle, or compressed by machinery? a) Crush injuries Crush ... wounds. d) Intra-abdominal injuries Intra-abdominal injuries are categorized as penetrating and blunt trauma.

Last Answer : a) Crush injuries Crush injuries are those that occur when a person is caught between objects, run over by a moving vehicle, or compressed by machinery.

Which of the following terms is used to describe a procedure in which cervical tissue is removed as result of detection of abnormal cells? a) Conization The procedure is also called a cone biopsy. Colporrhaphy Colporrhaphy refers to repair of the vagina.

Description : Which of the following terms is used to describe a procedure in which cervical tissue is removed as result of detection of abnormal cells? a) Conization The procedure is also called ... of tissue by freezing. c) Perineorrhaphy Perineorrhaphy refers to sutural repair of perineal lacerations.

Last Answer : a) Conization The procedure is also called a cone biopsy. Colporrhaphy Colporrhaphy refers to repair of the vagina.