When the nurse reviews the physician’s progress notes for the patient who has sustained a head injury and sees that the physician observed Battle’s sign when the patient was in the Emergency Department, the nurse knows that the physician observed a) an area of bruising over the mastoid bone. Battle’s sign may indicate skull fracture.

When the nurse reviews the physician’s progress notes for the
patient who has sustained a head injury and sees that the physician
observed Battle’s sign when the patient was in the Emergency
Department, the nurse knows that the physician observed
a) an area of bruising over the mastoid bone.
Battle’s sign may indicate skull fracture.
b) a bloodstain surrounded by a yellowish stain on the head dressing.
A bloodstain surrounded by a yellowish stain on the head dressing is
referred to as a halo sign and is highly suggestive of a cerebrospinal
fluid leak.
c) escape of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from the patient’s ear.
Escape of CSF from the patient’s ear is termed otorrhea.
d) escape of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from the patient’s nose.
Escape of CSF from the patient’s nose is termed rhinorrhea.
by

1 Answer

Answer :

a) an area of bruising over the mastoid bone.
Battle’s sign may indicate skull fracture.
by

Related questions

The nurse assesses the dressing of a patient with a basal skull fracture and sees the halo sign - a blood stain surrounded by a yellowish stain. The nurse knows that this sign a) is highly suggestive of a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak. The halo sign - a blood stain surrounded by a yellowish stain is highly suggestive of a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak.

Description : The nurse assesses the dressing of a patient with a basal skull fracture and sees the halo sign - a blood stain surrounded by a yellowish stain. The nurse knows that this sign a) is highly ... following a basal skull fracture. The halo sign is highly suggestive of a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak.

Last Answer : a) is highly suggestive of a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak. The halo sign - a blood stain surrounded by a yellowish stain is highly suggestive of a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak.

Before the patient diagnosed with a concussion is released from the Emergency Department, the nurse teaches the family or friends who will be tending to the patient to contact the physician or return to the ED if the patient a) vomits. Vomiting is a sign of increasing intracranial pressure and should be reported immediately.

Description : Before the patient diagnosed with a concussion is released from the Emergency Department, the nurse teaches the family or friends who will be tending to the patient to contact the physician or ... for short periods of time. Difficulty in waking the patient should be reported or treated immediately.

Last Answer : a) vomits. Vomiting is a sign of increasing intracranial pressure and should be reported immediately.

When interpreting the results of a Mantoux test, the nurse explains to the patient that a reaction occurs when the intradermal injection site shows a) redness and induration. The site is inspected for redness and palpated for hardening. b) drainage. Drainage at the site does not indicate a reaction to the tubercle bacillus. c) tissue sloughing. Sloughing of tissue at the site of injection does not indicate a reaction to the tubercle bacillus. d) bruising. Bruising of tissue at the site may occur from the injection, but does not indicate a reaction to the tubercle bacillus.

Description : When interpreting the results of a Mantoux test, the nurse explains to the patient that a reaction occurs when the intradermal injection site shows a) redness and induration. The site is inspected for ... site may occur from the injection, but does not indicate a reaction to the tubercle bacillus.

Last Answer : a) redness and induration. The site is inspected for redness and palpated for hardening.

Which of the following findings in the patient who has sustained a head injury indicate increasing intracranial pressure (ICP)? a) Widened pulse pressure Additional signs of increasing ICP include increasing systolic blood pressure, bradycardia, rapid respirations, and rapid rise in body temperature.

Description : Which of the following findings in the patient who has sustained a head injury indicate increasing intracranial pressure (ICP)? a) Widened pulse pressure Additional signs of increasing ICP ... regarded as unfavorable because hyperthermia may indicate brain stem damage, a poor prognostic sign.

Last Answer : a) Widened pulse pressure Additional signs of increasing ICP include increasing systolic blood pressure, bradycardia, rapid respirations, and rapid rise in body temperature.

Health education of the patient by the nurse a) Is an independent function of nursing practice. Health education is an independent function of nursing practice and is included in all state nurse practice acts. b) Requires a physician’s order. Teaching, as a function of nursing, is included in all state nurse practice acts. c) Must be approved by the physician. Health education is a primary responsibility of the nursing profession. d) Must focus on wellness issues. Health education by the nurse focuses on promoting, maintaining, and restoring health; preventing illness; and assisting people to adapt to the residual effects of illness.

Description : Health education of the patient by the nurse a) Is an independent function of nursing practice. Health education is an independent function of nursing practice and is included in all state ... restoring health; preventing illness; and assisting people to adapt to the residual effects of illness.

Last Answer : a) Is an independent function of nursing practice. Health education is an independent function of nursing practice and is included in all state nurse practice acts.

The nurse assesses subtle personality changes, restlessness, irritability, and confusion in a patient who has sustained a fracture. The nurse suspects a) fat embolism syndrome. Cerebral disturbances in the patient with fat embolism syndrome include subtle personality changes, restlessness, irritability, and confusion.

Description : The nurse assesses subtle personality changes, restlessness, irritability, and confusion in a patient who has sustained a fracture. The nurse suspects a) fat embolism syndrome. Cerebral disturbances in ... severe, burning pain, local edema, hyperesthesia, muscle spasms, and vasomotor skin changes.

Last Answer : a) fat embolism syndrome. Cerebral disturbances in the patient with fat embolism syndrome include subtle personality changes, restlessness, irritability, and confusion.

The nurse reading the physician’s report of an elderly patient’s physical examination knows a notation that the patient demonstrates xanthelasma refers to a) yellowish waxy deposits on upper eyelids. The change is a common, benign manifestation of aging skin or it can sometimes signal hyperlipidemia.

Description : The nurse reading the physician's report of an elderly patient's physical examination knows a notation that the patient demonstrates xanthelasma refers to a) yellowish waxy deposits on upper eyelids. The change is ... red moles. Cherry angioma is the term that is used to describe a bright red mole.

Last Answer : a) yellowish waxy deposits on upper eyelids. The change is a common, benign manifestation of aging skin or it can sometimes signal hyperlipidemia.

Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury include which of the following? a) Age over 65 years Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury include brain contusion with subdural hematoma, skull fracture, loss of consciousness or amnesia of 1 day or more, and age over 65 years.

Description : Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury include which of the following? a) Age over 65 years Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post ... is a risk factor that increases the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury

Last Answer : a) Age over 65 years Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury include brain contusion with subdural hematoma, skull fracture, loss of consciousness or amnesia of 1 day or more, and age over 65 years.

When the nurse notes that the post cardiac surgery patient demonstrates low urine output (< 25 ml/hr) with high specific gravity (> 1.025), the nurse suspects: a) Inadequate fluid volume Urine output of less than 25 ml/hr may indicate a decrease in cardiac output. A high specific gravity indicates increased concentration of solutes in the urine which occurs with inadequate fluid volume. b) Normal glomerular filtration Indices of normal glomerular filtration are output of 25 ml or greater per hour and specific gravity between 1.010 and 1.025. c) Overhydration Overhydration is manifested by high urine output with low specific gravity. d) Anuria The anuric patient does not produce urine.

Description : When the nurse notes that the post cardiac surgery patient demonstrates low urine output (< 25 ml/hr) with high specific gravity (> 1.025), the nurse suspects: a) Inadequate fluid volume Urine ... by high urine output with low specific gravity. d) Anuria The anuric patient does not produce urine.

Last Answer : a) Inadequate fluid volume Urine output of less than 25 ml/hr may indicate a decrease in cardiac output. A high specific gravity indicates increased concentration of solutes in the urine which occurs with inadequate fluid volume.

Which of the following patient behaviors, if observed by the nurse, would indicate that the cardiac patient’s level of anxiety has decreased? a) Answers questions regarding status with no problem. Generally, when anxiety begins to increase, the patient will be less likely to want to discuss prognosis.

Description : Which of the following patient behaviors, if observed by the nurse, would indicate that the cardiac patient's level of anxiety has decreased? a) Answers questions regarding status with ... in support groups. Participation in support groups indicates some degree of comfort with prognosis.

Last Answer : a) Answers questions regarding status with no problem. Generally, when anxiety begins to increase, the patient will be less likely to want to discuss prognosis.

When the emergency nurse learns that the patient suffered injury from a flash flame, the nurse anticipates which depth of burn? a) Deep partial thickness A deep partial thickness burn is similar to a second-degree burn and is associated with scalds and flash flames.

Description : When the emergency nurse learns that the patient suffered injury from a flash flame, the nurse anticipates which depth of burn? a) Deep partial thickness A deep partial thickness burn is similar to a ... Injury from a flash flame is not associated with a burn that is limited to the epidermis.

Last Answer : a) Deep partial thickness A deep partial thickness burn is similar to a second-degree burn and is associated with scalds and flash flames.

When x-ray demonstrates a fracture in which the fragments of bone are driven inward, the fracture is described as a) depressed. Depressed skull fractures occur as a result of blunt trauma.

Description : When x-ray demonstrates a fracture in which the fragments of bone are driven inward, the fracture is described as a) depressed. Depressed skull fractures occur as a result of blunt trauma. b) ... impacted. An impacted fracture is one in which a bone fragment is driven into another bone fragment.

Last Answer : a) depressed. Depressed skull fractures occur as a result of blunt trauma.

During a disaster, the nurse sees a victim with a green triage tag. The nurse knows that the person has a) injuries that are minor and treatment can be delayed hours to days. A green triage tag (priority 3 or minimal) indicates injuries that are minor and treatment can be delayed hours to days.

Description : During a disaster, the nurse sees a victim with a green triage tag. The nurse knows that the person has a) injuries that are minor and treatment can be delayed hours to days. A ... or expectant) indicates injuries that are extensive and chances of survival are unlikely even with definitive care.

Last Answer : a) injuries that are minor and treatment can be delayed hours to days. A green triage tag (priority 3 or minimal) indicates injuries that are minor and treatment can be delayed hours to days.

Which of the following observations in the patient who has undergone allograft for treatment of burn site must be reported to the physician immediately? a) Crackles in the lungs Crackles in the lungs may indicate a fluid buildup indicative of congestive heart failure and pulmonary edema.

Description : Which of the following observations in the patient who has undergone allograft for treatment of burn site must be reported to the physician immediately? a) Crackles in the lungs Crackles in the lungs ... pain at the recipient site is anticipated since the wound has been protected by the graft.

Last Answer : a) Crackles in the lungs Crackles in the lungs may indicate a fluid buildup indicative of congestive heart failure and pulmonary edema.

The patient with cardiac failure is taught to report which of the following symptoms to the physician or clinic immediately? a) Persistent cough Persistent cough may indicate an onset of left-heart failure. b) Increased appetite Loss of appetite should be reported immediately. c) Weight loss Weight gain should be reported immediately. d) Ability to sleep through the night Frequent urination, causing interruption of sleep, should be reported immediately.

Description : The patient with cardiac failure is taught to report which of the following symptoms to the physician or clinic immediately? a) Persistent cough Persistent cough may indicate an onset of ... sleep through the night Frequent urination, causing interruption of sleep, should be reported immediately.

Last Answer : a) Persistent cough Persistent cough may indicate an onset of left-heart failure.

When assessing the older adult, the nurse anticipates increase in which of the follow components of respiratory status? a) Residual lung volume As a result, patient experience fatigue and breathlessness with sustained activity. b) Vital capacity The nurse anticipates decreased vital capacity. c) Gas exchange and diffusing capacity The nurse anticipates decreased gas exchange and diffusing capacity resulting in impaired healing of tissues due to decreased oxygenation. d) Cough efficiency The nurse anticipates difficulty coughing up secretions due to decreased cough efficiency.

Description : When assessing the older adult, the nurse anticipates increase in which of the follow components of respiratory status? a) Residual lung volume As a result, patient experience fatigue ... ) Cough efficiency The nurse anticipates difficulty coughing up secretions due to decreased cough efficiency.

Last Answer : a) Residual lung volume As a result, patient experience fatigue and breathlessness with sustained activity.

A patient with fungal encephalitis receiving amphotericin B complaints of fever, chills, and body aches. The nurse knows that these symptoms a) may be controlled by the administration of diphenhydramine (Benedryl) and acetaminophen (Tylenol) approximately 30 minutes prior to administration of the amphotericin. Administration of amphotericin B may cause fever, chills and body aches. The administration of diphenhydramine (Benedryl) and acetaminophen (Tylenol) approximately 30 minutes prior to the administration of amphotericin B may prevent these side effects.

Description : A patient with fungal encephalitis receiving amphotericin B complaints of fever, chills, and body aches. The nurse knows that these symptoms a) may be controlled by the administration of ... and cerebral spinal fluid (CSF) cultures. Blood and CSF cultures help diagnosis fungal encephalitis.

Last Answer : a) may be controlled by the administration of diphenhydramine (Benedryl) and acetaminophen (Tylenol) approximately 30 minutes prior to administration of the amphotericin. Administration of amphotericin B ... 30 minutes prior to the administration of amphotericin B may prevent these side effects.

The nurse notes that the patient demonstrates generalized pallor and recognizes that this finding may be indicative of a) anemia. In the light-skinned individual, generalized pallor is a manifestation of anemia. In brown- and black-skinned individuals, anemia is demonstrated as a dull skin appearance.

Description : The nurse notes that the patient demonstrates generalized pallor and recognizes that this finding may be indicative of a) anemia. In the light-skinned individual, generalized pallor is a ... . d) local arterial insufficiency. Local arterial insufficiency is characterized by marked localized pallor.

Last Answer : a) anemia. In the light-skinned individual, generalized pallor is a manifestation of anemia. In brown- and black-skinned individuals, anemia is demonstrated as a dull skin appearance.

When the patient tells the nurse that his vision is 20/200, and asks what that means, the nurse informs the patient that a person with 20/200 vision a) sees an object from 20 feet away that a person with normal vision sees from 200 feet away. The fraction 20/20 is considered the standard of normal vision.

Description : When the patient tells the nurse that his vision is 20/200, and asks what that means, the nurse informs the patient that a person with 20/200 vision a) sees an object from 20 feet away that a person ... 20/20 line, the person of normal vision will be standing at a distance of 20 feet from the chart.

Last Answer : a) sees an object from 20 feet away that a person with normal vision sees from 200 feet away. The fraction 20/20 is considered the standard of normal vision.

When the nurse prepares to give a bolus tube feeding to the patient and determines that the residual gastric content is 150 cc, her best action is to a) reassess the residual gastric content in 1 hour. If the gastric residual exceeds 100 cc 2 hours in a row, the physician should be notified.

Description : When the nurse prepares to give a bolus tube feeding to the patient and determines that the residual gastric content is 150 cc, her best action is to a) reassess the residual gastric content in ... residual exceeds 100 cc, the tube feeding should be withheld at that time, but not indefinitely.

Last Answer : a) reassess the residual gastric content in 1 hour. If the gastric residual exceeds 100 cc 2 hours in a row, the physician should be notified.

When the nurse administers intravenous gamma-globulin infusion, she recognizes that which of the following complaints, if reported by the patient, may indicate an adverse effect of the infusion? a) Tightness in the chest Flank pain, tightness in the chest, or hypotension indicates adverse effects of gamma-globulin infusion.

Description : When the nurse administers intravenous gamma-globulin infusion, she recognizes that which of the following complaints, if reported by the patient, may indicate an adverse effect of the infusion? a) ... urination is a sign of urinary tract infection, not an adverse effect of gamma-globulin infusion.

Last Answer : a) Tightness in the chest Flank pain, tightness in the chest, or hypotension indicates adverse effects of gamma-globulin infusion.

When the nurse observes the patient’s urine to be orange, she further assesses the patient for a) intake of medication such as phenytoin (Dilantin). Urine that is orange may be caused by intake of Dilantin or other medications. Orange to amber colored urine may also indicate concentrated urine due to dehydration or fever.

Description : When the nurse observes the patient's urine to be orange, she further assesses the patient for a) intake of medication such as phenytoin (Dilantin). Urine that is orange may be caused by intake ... white urine may indicate infection, pyruria, or in the female patient, the use of vaginal creams.

Last Answer : a) intake of medication such as phenytoin (Dilantin). Urine that is orange may be caused by intake of Dilantin or other medications. Orange to amber colored urine may also indicate concentrated urine due to dehydration or fever.

An opening between the bladder and the vagina is called a a) vesicovaginal fistula. A vesicovaginal fistula may occur because of tissue injury sustained during surgery, vaginal delivery, or a disease process.

Description : An opening between the bladder and the vagina is called a a) vesicovaginal fistula. A vesicovaginal fistula may occur because of tissue injury sustained during surgery, vaginal delivery, or a disease ... d) rectovaginal fistula. A rectovaginal fistula is an opening between the rectum and the vagina.

Last Answer : a) vesicovaginal fistula. A vesicovaginal fistula may occur because of tissue injury sustained during surgery, vaginal delivery, or a disease process.

When the indication for surgery is without delay, the nurse recognizes that the surgery will be classified as a) emergency. Emergency surgery means that the patient requires immediate attention and the disorder may be life-threatening. b) urgent. Urgent surgery means that the patient requires prompt attention within 24-30 hours. c) required. Required surgery means that the patient needs to have surgery, and it should be planned within a few weeks or months. d) elective. Elective surgery means that there is an indication for surgery, but failure to have surgery will not be catastrophic.

Description : When the indication for surgery is without delay, the nurse recognizes that the surgery will be classified as a) emergency. Emergency surgery means that the patient requires immediate attention and the ... there is an indication for surgery, but failure to have surgery will not be catastrophic.

Last Answer : a) emergency. Emergency surgery means that the patient requires immediate attention and the disorder may be life-threatening.

Which of the following terms refers to failure of fragments of a fractured bone to heal together? a) Nonunion When nonunion occurs, the patient complains of persistent discomfort and movement at the fracture site.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to failure of fragments of a fractured bone to heal together? a) Nonunion When nonunion occurs, the patient complains of persistent discomfort and movement at the ... growth of the fragments of a fractured bone in a faulty position, forming an imperfect union.

Last Answer : a) Nonunion When nonunion occurs, the patient complains of persistent discomfort and movement at the fracture site.

A patient who has had a previous stroke and is taking warfarin tells the nurse that he started taking garlic to help reduce his blood pressure. The nurse knows that garlic when taken together with warfarin a) can greatly increase the international normalization ratio (INR) and therefore increase the risk of bleeding. Garlic and warfarin taken together can greatly increase the INR, increasing the risk of bleeding.

Description : A patient who has had a previous stroke and is taking warfarin tells the nurse that he started taking garlic to help reduce his blood pressure. The nurse knows that garlic when taken ... headaches. Garlic and warfarin taken together can greatly increase the INR, increasing the risk of bleeding.

Last Answer : a) can greatly increase the international normalization ratio (INR) and therefore increase the risk of bleeding. Garlic and warfarin taken together can greatly increase the INR, increasing the risk of bleeding.

When caring for a patient with an uncomplicated, mild urinary tract infection (UTI), the nurse knows that recent studies have shown which of the following drugs to be a good choice for shortcourse (e.g. 3-day) therapy? a) Levofloxacin (Levaquin) Levofloxacin, a floroquinolone, is a good choice for short-course therapy of uncomplicated, mild to moderate UTI. Clinical trial data show high patient compliance with the 3-day regimen (95.6%) and a high eradication rate for all pathogens (96.4%).

Description : When caring for a patient with an uncomplicated, mild urinary tract infection (UTI), the nurse knows that recent studies have shown which of the following drugs to be a good choice for ... to be significantly more effective than TMP-SMX in community-based patients and in nursing home residents.

Last Answer : a) Levofloxacin (Levaquin) Levofloxacin, a floroquinolone, is a good choice for short-course therapy of uncomplicated, mild to moderate UTI. Clinical trial data show high patient compliance with the 3-day regimen (95.6%) and a high eradication rate for all pathogens (96.4%).

The Emergency Department nurse teaches patients with sports injuries to remember the acronym RICE, which stands for which of the following combinations of treatment? a) Rest, ice, compression, elevation RICE is used for the treatment of contusions, sprains, and strains.

Description : The Emergency Department nurse teaches patients with sports injuries to remember the acronym RICE, which stands for which of the following combinations of treatment? a) Rest, ice, compression ... contraindicated when injury is suspected, and examination, while indicated, does not provide treatment.

Last Answer : a) Rest, ice, compression, elevation RICE is used for the treatment of contusions, sprains, and strains.

When the nurse notes that the patient’s left great toe deviates laterally, she recognizes that the patient has a a) hallux valgus. Hallux valgus is commonly referred to as a bunion. b) hammertoe. Hammertoes are usually pulled upward. c) pes cavus. Pes cavus refers to a foot with an abnormally high arch and a fixed equinus deformity of the forefoot. d) flatfoot. In flatfoot, the patient demonstrates a diminished longitudinal arch of the foot.

Description : When the nurse notes that the patient's left great toe deviates laterally, she recognizes that the patient has a a) hallux valgus. Hallux valgus is commonly referred to as a bunion. b) ... the forefoot. d) flatfoot. In flatfoot, the patient demonstrates a diminished longitudinal arch of the foot.

Last Answer : a) hallux valgus. Hallux valgus is commonly referred to as a bunion.

The nurse anticipates that the immunosuppressed patient is at greatest risk for which type of shock? a) Septic Septic shock is associated with immunosuppression, extremes of age, malnourishment, chronic illness, and invasive procedures. b) Neurogenic Neurogenic shock is associated with spinal cord injury and anesthesia. c) Cardiogenic Cardiogenic shock is associated with disease of the heart. d) Anaphylactic Anaphylactic shock is associated with hypersensitivity reactions.

Description : The nurse anticipates that the immunosuppressed patient is at greatest risk for which type of shock? a) Septic Septic shock is associated with immunosuppression, extremes of age, ... disease of the heart. d) Anaphylactic Anaphylactic shock is associated with hypersensitivity reactions.

Last Answer : a) Septic Septic shock is associated with immunosuppression, extremes of age, malnourishment, chronic illness, and invasive procedures.

When the post-cardiac surgery patient demonstrates restlessness, nausea, weakness, and peaked T waves, the nurse reviews the patient’s serum electrolytes anticipating which abnormality? a) Hyperkalemia Hyperkalemia is indicated by mental confusion, restlessness, nausea, weakness, and dysrhythmias (tall, peaked T waves). b) Hypercalcemia Hypercalcemia would likely be demonstrated by asystole. c) Hypomagnesemia Hypomagenesemia would likely be demonstrated by hypotension, lethargy, and vasodilation. d) Hyponatremia Hyponatremia would likely be indicated by weakness, fatigue, and confusion without change in T wave formation

Description : When the post-cardiac surgery patient demonstrates restlessness, nausea, weakness, and peaked T waves, the nurse reviews the patient's serum electrolytes anticipating which abnormality? a) Hyperkalemia ... likely be indicated by weakness, fatigue, and confusion without change in T wave formation

Last Answer : a) Hyperkalemia Hyperkalemia is indicated by mental confusion, restlessness, nausea, weakness, and dysrhythmias (tall, peaked T waves).

When caring for a patient receiving autolytic debridement therapy, the nurse a) advises the patient about the foul odor that will occur during therapy. During autolytic debridement therapy a foul odor will be produced by the breakdown of cellular debris. This odor does not indicate that the wound is infected.

Description : When caring for a patient receiving autolytic debridement therapy, the nurse a) advises the patient about the foul odor that will occur during therapy. During autolytic debridement ... Pancrease. Commercially available enzymatic debriding agents include Accuzyme, Clooagenase, Granulex, and Zymase.

Last Answer : a) advises the patient about the foul odor that will occur during therapy. During autolytic debridement therapy a foul odor will be produced by the breakdown of cellular debris. This odor does not indicate that the wound is infected.

Which of the following observations regarding ulcer formation on the patient’s lower extremity indicate to the nurse that the ulcer is a result of venous insufficiency? a) The border of the ulcer is irregular. The border of an ulcer caused by arterial insufficiency is circular. b) The ulcer is very painful to the patient, even though superficial. Superficial venous insufficiency ulcers cause minimal pain. c) The ulcer base is pale to black. The base of a venous insufficiency ulcer shows beefy red to yellow fibrinous color. d) The ulcer is deep, involving the joint space. Venous insufficiency ulcers are usually superficial.

Description : Which of the following observations regarding ulcer formation on the patient's lower extremity indicate to the nurse that the ulcer is a result of venous insufficiency? a) The border of the ... d) The ulcer is deep, involving the joint space. Venous insufficiency ulcers are usually superficial.

Last Answer : a) The border of the ulcer is irregular. The border of an ulcer caused by arterial insufficiency is circular.

The nurse recognizes which of the following signs as typical of the patient in shock? a) Rapid, weak, thready pulse Pulse increases as the body tries to compensate. b) Flushed face Pallor is an indicator of shock. c) Warm, dry skin Skin is generally cool and moist in shock. d) Increased urine output Usually, a low blood pressure and concentrated urine are observed in the patient in shock.

Description : The nurse recognizes which of the following signs as typical of the patient in shock? a) Rapid, weak, thready pulse Pulse increases as the body tries to compensate. b) Flushed face Pallor is ... urine output Usually, a low blood pressure and concentrated urine are observed in the patient in shock.

Last Answer : a) Rapid, weak, thready pulse Pulse increases as the body tries to compensate.

Who makes more? A nurse practicioner or a physicians asistant?

Description : Who makes more? A nurse practicioner or a physicians asistant?

Last Answer : The Dept of Labor produces a document called the Occupational Outlook Handbook that compares projections of salaries, the types of training required, anticipated markets for various services etc. Check out: http://www.bls.gov/OCO/

40. The nurse should ensure that all components of medications are documented. Identify all these components. 1. Dosage, route and frequency 2. Name of client and medication 3. Date and time the medication was ordered 4. Dosage, route, frequency and strength 5. Physician’s signature and specialty 6. Physician’s signature and PRC license number

Description : 40. The nurse should ensure that all components of medications are documented. Identify all these components. 1. Dosage, route and frequency 2. Name of client and medication 3. Date and time ... and strength 5. Physician's signature and specialty 6. Physician's signature and PRC license number

Last Answer : C. All except 5 and 6

36. A nurse is obligated to carry out a physician’s order except

Description : 36. A nurse is obligated to carry out a physician’s order except

Last Answer : B. Believes an order to be inappropriate or inaccurate

If a case of smallpox is suspected, the nurse should a) Call the CDC Emergency Preparedness Office. Anyone suspecting a case of smallpox should call the CDC Emergency Preparedness Office at 770-488-7100. The CDC will respond by immmediate provision of diagnostic support and eventual release of vaccine if a case is confirmed. Until instructed otherwise by the CDC, healthcare providers should carefully establish isolation with negative pressure, and maintain thorough lists of all those who have contact with the patient.

Description : If a case of smallpox is suspected, the nurse should a) Call the CDC Emergency Preparedness Office. Anyone suspecting a case of smallpox should call the CDC Emergency Preparedness Office ... very different from that of chickenpox. With chickenpox, lesions appear at different developmental stages.

Last Answer : a) Call the CDC Emergency Preparedness Office. Anyone suspecting a case of smallpox should call the CDC Emergency Preparedness Office at 770-488-7100. The CDC will respond by immmediate provision ... with negative pressure, and maintain thorough lists of all those who have contact with the patient.

When caring for the patient in traction, the nurse is guided by which of the following principles? a) Skeletal traction is never interrupted. Skeletal traction is applied directly to the bone and is never interrupted.

Description : When caring for the patient in traction, the nurse is guided by which of the following principles? a) Skeletal traction is never interrupted. Skeletal traction is applied directly to the ... are removed routinely. Traction must be continuous to be effective in reducing and immobilizing fractures.

Last Answer : a) Skeletal traction is never interrupted. Skeletal traction is applied directly to the bone and is never interrupted.

Officially, hypertension is diagnosed when the patient demonstrates a systolic blood pressure greater than ______ mm Hg and a diastolic blood pressure greater than _____ mm Hg over a sustained period. a) 140, 90 According to the categories of blood pressure levels established by the JNC VI, stage 1 hypertension is demonstrated by a systolic pressure of 140–159 or a diastolic pressure of 90–99.

Description : Officially, hypertension is diagnosed when the patient demonstrates a systolic blood pressure greater than ______ mm Hg and a diastolic blood pressure greater than _____ mm Hg over a sustained period. a) ... , 70 Pressure of 120 systolic and 70 diastolic falls within the normal range for an adult.

Last Answer : a) 140, 90 According to the categories of blood pressure levels established by the JNC VI, stage 1 hypertension is demonstrated by a systolic pressure of 140–159 or a diastolic pressure of 90–99.

When x-ray demonstrates a fracture in which bone has splintered into several pieces, that fracture is described as a) comminuted. A comminuted fracture may require open reduction and internal fixation.

Description : When x-ray demonstrates a fracture in which bone has splintered into several pieces, that fracture is described as a) comminuted. A comminuted fracture may require open reduction and internal fixation. b ... . An impacted fracture is one in which a bone fragment is driven into another bone fragment.

Last Answer : a) comminuted. A comminuted fracture may require open reduction and internal fixation.

A fracture is termed pathologic when the fracture a) occurs through an area of diseased bone. Pathologic fractures can occur without the trauma of a fall.

Description : A fracture is termed pathologic when the fracture a) occurs through an area of diseased bone. Pathologic fractures can occur without the trauma of a fall. b) results in a pulling away of a ... to the skin or mucous membranes. A compound fracture involves damage to the skin or mucous membranes.

Last Answer : a) occurs through an area of diseased bone. Pathologic fractures can occur without the trauma of a fall.

During which stage or phase of bone healing after fracture is devitalized tissue removed and new bone reorganized into its former structural arrangement? a) Remodeling Remodeling is the final stage of fracture repair. b) Inflammation During inflammation, macrophages invade and debride the fracture area. c) Revascularization Revascularization occurs within about 5 days after the fracture. d) Reparative Callus formation occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion at the fracture site.

Description : During which stage or phase of bone healing after fracture is devitalized tissue removed and new bone reorganized into its former structural arrangement? a) Remodeling Remodeling is the final stage of ... occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion at the fracture site.

Last Answer : a) Remodeling Remodeling is the final stage of fracture repair.

During which stage or phase of bone healing after fracture does callus formation occur? a) Reparative Callus formation occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion at the fracture site b) Remodeling Remodeling is the final stage of fracture repair during which the new bone is reorganized into the bone’s former structural arrangement. c) Inflammation During inflammation, macrophages invade and debride the fracture area. d) Revascularization Revascularization occurs within about 5 days after the fracture.

Description : During which stage or phase of bone healing after fracture does callus formation occur? a) Reparative Callus formation occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion ... the fracture area. d) Revascularization Revascularization occurs within about 5 days after the fracture.

Last Answer : a) Reparative Callus formation occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion at the fracture site

When the nurse observes diffuse swelling involving the deeper skin layers in the patient who has experienced an allergic reaction, the nurse records the finding as a) angioneurotic edema. The area of skin demonstrating angioneurotic edema may appear normal but often has a reddish hue and does not pit.

Description : When the nurse observes diffuse swelling involving the deeper skin layers in the patient who has experienced an allergic reaction, the nurse records the finding as a) angioneurotic edema. ... the result of increased interstitial fluid and associated with disorders such as congestive heart failure.

Last Answer : a) angioneurotic edema. The area of skin demonstrating angioneurotic edema may appear normal but often has a reddish hue and does not pit.

Of the following stimuli, which is known to trigger an episode of autonomic hyperreflexia in the patient who has suffered a spinal cord injury? a) Applying a blanket over the patient An object on the skin or skin pressure may precipitate an autonomic hyperreflexic episode.

Description : Of the following stimuli, which is known to trigger an episode of autonomic hyperreflexia in the patient who has suffered a spinal cord injury? a) Applying a blanket over the patient An ... lower blood pressure. d) Voiding The most common cause of autonomic hyperreflexia is a distended bladder.

Last Answer : a) Applying a blanket over the patient An object on the skin or skin pressure may precipitate an autonomic hyperreflexic episode.

Which of the following nursing interventions is appropriate when caring for the awake and oriented head injury patient? a) Supply oxygen therapy to keep blood gas values within normal range. The goal is to keep blood gas values within normal range to ensure adequate cerebral circulation.

Description : Which of the following nursing interventions is appropriate when caring for the awake and oriented head injury patient? a) Supply oxygen therapy to keep blood gas values within normal range. ... rails and application of mitts are the appropriate interventions in the agitated head-injured patient.

Last Answer : a) Supply oxygen therapy to keep blood gas values within normal range. The goal is to keep blood gas values within normal range to ensure adequate cerebral circulation.

An 8 years-old child who has sustained a fracture of maxillary permanent central incisor in which 2mm of the pulp is exposed presents for treatment three hours after injury. Which of the following should be considered? a- Remove the surface 1. 2 mm of pulp tissue and place calcium hydroxide. b- Place calcium hydroxide directly on the exposed pulp. c- Pulpotomy using formocresol. d- Pulpectomy and immediate root filling. e- Pulpectomy and apexification.

Description : An 8 years-old child who has sustained a fracture of maxillary permanent central incisor in which 2mm of the pulp is exposed presents for treatment three hours after injury. Which of the ... - Pulpotomy using formocresol. d- Pulpectomy and immediate root filling. e- Pulpectomy and apexification.

Last Answer : a- Remove the surface 1. 2 mm of pulp tissue and place calcium hydroxide

8 years old child who has sustained a fracture of maxillary permanent central incisor in which 2mm of the pulp is exposed; presents for treatment three hours after injury. Which of the following should be considered? M07*********** A. Remove the surface 1-2 mm of pulp tissue and place calcium hydroxide (Cvek pulpotomy, apexogenesis) B. Place calcium hydroxide directly on the exposed pulp C. Pulpotomy using formocresol D. Pulpectomy and immediate root filling E. Pulpectomy and apexification

Description : 8 years old child who has sustained a fracture of maxillary permanent central incisor in which 2mm of the pulp is exposed; presents for treatment three hours after injury. Which of the ... C. Pulpotomy using formocresol D. Pulpectomy and immediate root filling E. Pulpectomy and apexification

Last Answer : A. Remove the surface 1-2 mm of pulp tissue and place calcium hydroxide (Cvek pulpotomy, apexogenesis)