During which stage or phase of bone healing after fracture is devitalized tissue removed and new bone reorganized into its former structural arrangement? a) Remodeling Remodeling is the final stage of fracture repair. b) Inflammation During inflammation, macrophages invade and debride the fracture area. c) Revascularization Revascularization occurs within about 5 days after the fracture. d) Reparative Callus formation occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion at the fracture site.

During which stage or phase of bone healing after fracture is
devitalized tissue removed and new bone reorganized into its former
structural arrangement?
a) Remodeling
Remodeling is the final stage of fracture repair.
b) Inflammation
During inflammation, macrophages invade and debride the fracture
area.
c) Revascularization
Revascularization occurs within about 5 days after the fracture.
d) Reparative
Callus formation occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by
excessive motion at the fracture site.
by

1 Answer

Answer :

a) Remodeling
Remodeling is the final stage of fracture repair.
by

Related questions

During which stage or phase of bone healing after fracture does callus formation occur? a) Reparative Callus formation occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion at the fracture site b) Remodeling Remodeling is the final stage of fracture repair during which the new bone is reorganized into the bone’s former structural arrangement. c) Inflammation During inflammation, macrophages invade and debride the fracture area. d) Revascularization Revascularization occurs within about 5 days after the fracture.

Description : During which stage or phase of bone healing after fracture does callus formation occur? a) Reparative Callus formation occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion ... the fracture area. d) Revascularization Revascularization occurs within about 5 days after the fracture.

Last Answer : a) Reparative Callus formation occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion at the fracture site

Fracture healing occurs in four areas, including the a) external soft tissue. Fracture healing occurs in four areas, including the bone marrow, bone cortex, periosteum, and the external soft tissue, where a bridging callus (fibrous tissue) stabilizes the fracture.

Description : Fracture healing occurs in four areas, including the a) external soft tissue. Fracture healing occurs in four areas, including the bone marrow, bone cortex, periosteum, and the external soft ... and the external soft tissue. Fascia is fibrous tissue that covers, supports, and separates muscles.

Last Answer : a) external soft tissue. Fracture healing occurs in four areas, including the bone marrow, bone cortex, periosteum, and the external soft tissue, where a bridging callus (fibrous tissue) stabilizes the fracture.

A long-term effect of which of the following procedures post acute MI induces angioneogenesis? a) Transmyocardial laser revascularization TNR procedures usually involves making 20 to 40 channels in ventricular muscle. It is thought that some blood flows into the channels, decreasing the ischemia directly. Within the next few days to months, the channels close as a result of the body’s inflammatory process of healing a wound and new blood vessels form as a result of the inflammatory process.

Description : A long-term effect of which of the following procedures post acute MI induces angioneogenesis? a) Transmyocardial laser revascularization TNR procedures usually involves making 20 to 40 channels in ventricular muscle. ... e.g., clopidigrel [Plavix]) therapy for 2 weeks and lifetime use of aspirin).

Last Answer : a) Transmyocardial laser revascularization TNR procedures usually involves making 20 to 40 channels in ventricular muscle. It is thought that some blood flows into the channels, decreasing the ischemia directly. ... healing a wound and new blood vessels form as a result of the inflammatory process.

Surgical fusion of a joint is termed a) arthrodesis. Arthrodesis of a joint is created surgically to treat chronic pain. b) open reduction with internal fixation (ORIF). ORIF refers to surgery to repair and stabilize a fracture. c) heterotrophic ossification. Heterotrophic ossification refers to formation of bone in the periprosthetic space. d) arthroplasty. Arthroplasty refers to surgical repair of a joint or joint replacement.

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Last Answer : a) arthrodesis. Arthrodesis of a joint is created surgically to treat chronic pain.

Which of the following terms refers to failure of fragments of a fractured bone to heal together? a) Nonunion When nonunion occurs, the patient complains of persistent discomfort and movement at the fracture site.

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Last Answer : a) Nonunion When nonunion occurs, the patient complains of persistent discomfort and movement at the fracture site.

A fracture is termed pathologic when the fracture a) occurs through an area of diseased bone. Pathologic fractures can occur without the trauma of a fall.

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Last Answer : a) occurs through an area of diseased bone. Pathologic fractures can occur without the trauma of a fall.

During which stage of pressure ulcer development does the ulcer extend into the underlying structures, including the muscle and possibly the bone? a) Stage IV A stage IV pressure ulcer extends into the underlying structure, including the muscle and possibly the bone. b) Stage III A stage III ulcer extends into the subcutaneous tissue. c) Stage II A stage II ulcer exhibits a break in the skin through the epidermis or dermis. d) Stage I A stage I pressure ulcer is an area of nonblanchable erythema, tissue swelling, and congestion, and the patient complains of discomfort.

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Last Answer : a) Stage IV A stage IV pressure ulcer extends into the underlying structure, including the muscle and possibly the bone.

During which stage of pressure ulcer development does the ulcer extend into the subcutaneous tissue? a) Stage III Clinically, a deep crater with or without undermining of adjacent tissues is noted. b) Stage IV A stage IV pressure ulcer extends into the underlying structure, including the muscle and possibly the bone. c) Stage II A stage II ulcer exhibits a break in the skin through the epidermis or dermis. d) Stage I A stage I pressure ulcer is an area of nonblanchable erythema, tissue swelling, and congestion, and the patient complains of discomfort.

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Last Answer : a) Stage III Clinically, a deep crater with or without undermining of adjacent tissues is noted.

During which step of cellular carcinogenesis do cellular changes exhibit increased malignant behavior? a) Progression During this third step, cells show a propensity to invade adjacent tissues and metastasize. b) Promotion During promotion, repeated exposure to promoting agents causes the expression of abnormal genetic information even after long latency periods. c) Initiation During this first step, initiators such as chemicals, physical factors, and biologic agents escape normal enzymatic mechanisms and alter the genetic structure of cellular DNA. d) Prolongation No stage of cellular carcinogenesis is termed prolongation.

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An increase in the number of new cells in an organ or tissue that is reversible when the stimulus for production of new cells is removed is termed a) Hyperplasia. Hyperplasia occurs as cells multiply and are subjected to increased stimulation resulting in tissue mass enlargement. b) Hypertrophy. Hypertrophy is an increase in size and bulk of tissue that does not result from an increased number of cells. c) Atrophy. Atrophy refers to reduction in size of a structure after having come to full maturity. d) Neoplasia. With neoplasia, the increase in the number of new cells in an organ or tissue continues after the stimulus is removed.

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Last Answer : a) Hyperplasia. Hyperplasia occurs as cells multiply and are subjected to increased stimulation resulting in tissue mass enlargement.

When the nurse reviews the physician’s progress notes for the patient who has sustained a head injury and sees that the physician observed Battle’s sign when the patient was in the Emergency Department, the nurse knows that the physician observed a) an area of bruising over the mastoid bone. Battle’s sign may indicate skull fracture.

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Which of the following terms is used to describe a procedure in which cervical tissue is removed as result of detection of abnormal cells? a) Conization The procedure is also called a cone biopsy. Colporrhaphy Colporrhaphy refers to repair of the vagina.

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When x-ray demonstrates a fracture in which bone has splintered into several pieces, that fracture is described as a) comminuted. A comminuted fracture may require open reduction and internal fixation.

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A continuous passive motion (CPM) device applied after knee surgery a) promotes healing by increasing circulation and movement of the knee joint. A CPM device applied after knee surgery promotes healing by increasing circulation and movement of the knee joint.

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Which of the following terms refers to a fracture in which one side of a bone is broken and the other side is bent? a) Greenstick A greenstick fracture is a fracture in which one side of a bone is broken and the other side is bent.

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When x-ray demonstrates a fracture in which the fragments of bone are driven inward, the fracture is described as a) depressed. Depressed skull fractures occur as a result of blunt trauma.

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Which of the following statements reflect the progress of bone healing? a) Serial x-rays are used to monitor the progress of bone healing. Serial x-rays are used to monitor the progress of bone healing.

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Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the nurse to take when the patient demonstrates subcutaneous emphysema along the suture line or chest dressing 2 hours after chest surgery? a) Record the observation. Subcutaneous emphysema occurs after chest surgery as the air that is located within the pleural cavity is expelled through the tissue opening created by the surgical procedure.

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Last Answer : a) Record the observation. Subcutaneous emphysema occurs after chest surgery as the air that is located within the pleural cavity is expelled through the tissue opening created by the surgical procedure.

Stage 3 of breast development, according to Tanner, occurs when a) the areola (a darker tissue ring around the nipple) develops. Stage 3 also involves further enlargement of breast tissue.

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What is the most common cause of small bowel obstruction? a) Adhesions Adhesions are scar tissue that forms as a result of inflammation and infection.

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Last Answer : a) Adhesions Adhesions are scar tissue that forms as a result of inflammation and infection.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about the role of macrophages in the wound healing process? a. Macrophages are the dominant cell type during the inflammatory phase of wound healing b. Macrophages are not essential for wound healing c. The macrophage role in wound healing is limited to phagocytosis d. Macrophages are a source of a number of humoral factors essential for wound healing

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Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct concerning the management of an open wound? a. Frequent surgical debridement is usually necessary b. Water irrigation can effectively debride most wounds c. Hydrogen peroxide is particularly useful in the management of open wounds d. A number of the newer dressing products have clearly been shown to promote wound healing compared to simple moist occlusive dressing

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Which of the following terms is used to describe stone formation in a salivary gland, usually the submandibular gland? a) Sialolithiasis Salivary stones are formed mainly from calcium phosphate. b) Parotitis Parotitis refers to inflammation of the parotid gland. c) Sialadenitis Sialadenitis refers to inflammation of the salivary glands. d) Stomatitis Stomatitis refers to inflammation of the oral mucosa.

Description : Which of the following terms is used to describe stone formation in a salivary gland, usually the submandibular gland? a) Sialolithiasis Salivary stones are formed mainly from calcium phosphate. b ... of the salivary glands. d) Stomatitis Stomatitis refers to inflammation of the oral mucosa.

Last Answer : a) Sialolithiasis Salivary stones are formed mainly from calcium phosphate.

When interpreting the results of a Mantoux test, the nurse explains to the patient that a reaction occurs when the intradermal injection site shows a) redness and induration. The site is inspected for redness and palpated for hardening. b) drainage. Drainage at the site does not indicate a reaction to the tubercle bacillus. c) tissue sloughing. Sloughing of tissue at the site of injection does not indicate a reaction to the tubercle bacillus. d) bruising. Bruising of tissue at the site may occur from the injection, but does not indicate a reaction to the tubercle bacillus.

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Last Answer : a) redness and induration. The site is inspected for redness and palpated for hardening.

If a person has been exposed to radiation, presenting symptoms, such as nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, diarrhea, or fatigue can be expected to occur within _______ hours after exposure? a) 48 to 72 The prodromal phase (presenting symptoms) of radiation exposure occurs within 48 to 72 hours after exposure. Signs and symptoms include nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, diarrhea, and fatigue. With high-dose radiation exposure, the signs and symptoms may include fever, respiratory distress, and increased excitability.

Description : If a person has been exposed to radiation, presenting symptoms, such as nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, diarrhea, or fatigue can be expected to occur within _______ hours after exposure? ... prodromal phase (presenting symptoms) of radiation exposure occurs within 48 to 72 hours after exposure.

Last Answer : a) 48 to 72 The prodromal phase (presenting symptoms) of radiation exposure occurs within 48 to 72 hours after exposure. Signs and symptoms include nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, ... radiation exposure, the signs and symptoms may include fever, respiratory distress, and increased excitability.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the remodeling phase of wound healing? a. Total collagen content increases steadily through this phase b. The normal adult ratio of collagen is approximately 4:1 of type I to type III collagen. c. Eventually a scar will achieve the strength of unwounded skin d. The proteoglycans are responsible for the ground substance of the extracellular matrix

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the remodeling phase of wound healing? a. Total collagen content increases steadily through this phase b. The normal adult ratio ... unwounded skin d. The proteoglycans are responsible for the ground substance of the extracellular matrix

Last Answer : Answer: b, d The transition from the proliferative phase to the remodeling phase of wound healing is defined by reaching collagen equilibrium. Collagen accumulation within the wound becomes maximal by ... in strength for six months or more, eventually reaching 70% of the strength of unwounded skin

Increasing evidence has implicated gram-negative bacterial lipopolysaccharide (LPS endotoxin) as the portion of the gram-negative bacterial cell membrane responsible for many, if not all the toxic effects that occur during gram-negative bacterial sepsis. The following statement(s) is/are true concerning LPS and the host response. a. The LPS molecule can in itself cause physiologic responses similar to that seen during gram-negative bacterial sepsis b. LPS triggers host macrophages to release a variety of cytokines including TNF-a, IL-1a, and IL-1b, IL-6, and IFN-a c. Excessive cytokine production is not associated with detrimental consequences d. TNFa and IL-1b appear to be the primary mediators within the host, exerting deleterious effects on the host when excessive amounts reach the syst

Description : Increasing evidence has implicated gram-negative bacterial lipopolysaccharide (LPS endotoxin) as the portion of the gram-negative bacterial cell membrane responsible for many, if not all the ... host, exerting deleterious effects on the host when excessive amounts reach the systemic circulation

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, d The LPS molecule exerts diverse effects on the mammalian host. Immunologic responses to LPS include nonspecific polyclonal B-cell proliferation, macrophage activation and ... deleterious effects on the host only after large amounts are secreted and reach the systemic circulation

A post-traumatic seizure classified as early occurs a) within 1-7 days of injury. Posttraumatic seizures are classified as immediate (occurring within 24 hours of injury), early, (occurring within 1-7 days of injury) or late, occurring more than 7 days following injury.

Description : A post-traumatic seizure classified as early occurs a) within 1-7 days of injury. Posttraumatic seizures are classified as immediate (occurring within 24 hours of injury), early, ( ... surgery. Posttraumatic seizures occurring more than 7 days following surgery are classified as late seizures.

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The following statement(s) is/are true concerning cellular defense mechanisms. a. Macrophages function solely as antigen processing cells in the initial reaction to exposure to an antigen b. Macrophages may become activated and secrete cytokines c. Macrophages serve as phagocytic cells in the tissues but not within the bloodstream d. Polymorphonucleocytes (PMNS) are normally present in only small numbers within the tissue and enter an area of infection through diapedesis

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Last Answer : Answer: b, d A wide variety of cell types serve to provide host defense at several levels. Macrophages act as the initial antigen processing cell that serves to ... through diapedesis after chemotactic stimuli are excluded by macrophages, bacterial breakdown products, and complement activation

Passive range-of-motion exercises are indicated during which stage of rheumatic disease? a) Acute Passive range of motion is indicated because the patient is unable to perform exercises alone during an acute stage of rheumatic disease.

Description : Passive range-of-motion exercises are indicated during which stage of rheumatic disease? a) Acute Passive range of motion is indicated because the patient is unable to perform exercises alone ... Active range of motion and isometrics are recommended during the remission stage of rheumatic diseases.

Last Answer : a) Acute Passive range of motion is indicated because the patient is unable to perform exercises alone during an acute stage of rheumatic disease.

Callus is a term usually referring to: a. The tissue on the collar of a limb b. The first tissue develops on a cut surface just before the root formation iniates. c. Deformed growth on plant limbs d. A disease of plant leaves and limbs

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Last Answer : The first tissue develops on a cut surface just before the root formation iniates

After the initial development stage and in the absence of pathology, the size of the pulp chamber has been reduced by, A. Deposition of primary dentine B. Deposition of secondary dentine C. Reparative dentine D. Pulp fibrosis E. Deposition of reparative dentine

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Last Answer : B. Deposition of secondary dentine

Tough question. What happens to the body during the final days of life?

Description : Tough question. What happens to the body during the final days of life?

Last Answer : You have them right except we looked for mottling in their legs. The person loses consciousness as well. All families become so exhausted.

When the nurse auscultates chest sounds that are harsh and cracking, sounding like two pieces of leather being rubbed together, she records her finding as a) pleural friction rub. A pleural friction rub is heard secondary to inflammation and loss of lubricating pleural fluid. b) crackles. Crackles are soft, high-pitched, discontinuous popping sounds that occur during inspiration. c) sonorous wheezes. Sonorous wheezes are deep, low-pitched rumbling sounds heard primarily during expiration. d) sibilant wheezes. Sibilant wheezes are continuous, musical, high-pitched, whistle-like sounds heard during inspiration and expiration.

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Last Answer : a) pleural friction rub. A pleural friction rub is heard secondary to inflammation and loss of lubricating pleural fluid.

The nurse advises the patient undergoing photodynamic therapy (PDT) for macular degeneration to avoid exposure to direct sunlight or bright lights for a) the first five days after the procedure. Photodynamic therapy includes the use of verteporfin, a light-activated dye. The dye within the blood vessels near the surface of the skin could become activated with exposure to strong light, such as sunlight or bright lights. Ordinary indoor light is not a problem. The patient should be counseled to wear protective clothing, such as long-sleeved shirts, sunglasses, and wide-brimmed hats, if the patient has to go outdoors during daylight hours in the first five days post-treatment. Inadvertent sunlight exposure can lead to severe blistering of the skin and sunburn.

Description : The nurse advises the patient undergoing photodynamic therapy (PDT) for macular degeneration to avoid exposure to direct sunlight or bright lights for a) the first five days after the procedure. ... should avoid exposure to direct sunlight or bright lights for the first five days post-treatment.

Last Answer : a) the first five days after the procedure. Photodynamic therapy includes the use of verteporfin, a light-activated dye. The dye within the blood vessels near the surface of the skin could ... days post-treatment. Inadvertent sunlight exposure can lead to severe blistering of the skin and sunburn.

Of the following terms, which describes a condition characterized by abnormal spongy bone formation around the stapes? a) Otosclerosis Otosclerosis is more common in females than males and is frequently hereditary.

Description : Of the following terms, which describes a condition characterized by abnormal spongy bone formation around the stapes? a) Otosclerosis Otosclerosis is more common in females than males and is ... perforation. d) Otitis externa Otitis externa refers to inflammation of the external auditory canal.

Last Answer : a) Otosclerosis Otosclerosis is more common in females than males and is frequently hereditary.

Which of the following methods of physical examination refers to the translation of physical force into sound? a) Percussion Percussion translates the application of physical force into sound. b) Palpation Palpation refers to examination by non-forceful touching. c) Auscultation Auscultation refers to the skill of listening to sounds produced within the body created by movement of air or fluid. d) Manipulation Manipulation refers to the use of the hands to determine motion of a body part.

Description : Which of the following methods of physical examination refers to the translation of physical force into sound? a) Percussion Percussion translates the application of physical force into sound. b) Palpation ... Manipulation refers to the use of the hands to determine motion of a body part.

Last Answer : a) Percussion Percussion translates the application of physical force into sound.

Which of the following connective tissue disorders is characterized by insoluble collagen being formed and accumulating excessively in the tissues? a) Scleroderma Scleroderma occurs initially in the skin but also occurs in blood vessels, major organs, and body systems, potentially resulting in death.

Description : Which of the following connective tissue disorders is characterized by insoluble collagen being formed and accumulating excessively in the tissues? a) Scleroderma Scleroderma occurs initially in the ... In polymyalgia rheumatic, immunoglobulin is deposited in the walls of inflamed temporal arteries.

Last Answer : a) Scleroderma Scleroderma occurs initially in the skin but also occurs in blood vessels, major organs, and body systems, potentially resulting in death.

Crohn’s disease is a condition of malabsorption caused by a) inflammation of all layers of intestinal mucosa. Crohn’s disease is also known as regional enteritis and can occur anywhere along the GI tract, but most commonly at the distal ileum and in the colon.

Description : Crohn's disease is a condition of malabsorption caused by a) inflammation of all layers of intestinal mucosa. Crohn's disease is also known as regional enteritis and can occur ... to lactose intolerance. d) gastric resection. Postoperative malabsorption occurs after gastric or intestinal resection.

Last Answer : a) inflammation of all layers of intestinal mucosa. Crohn’s disease is also known as regional enteritis and can occur anywhere along the GI tract, but most commonly at the distal ileum and in the colon.

Which one of the following is a case of wrong matching? (a) Somatic – Fusion of two hybridization diverse cells (b) Vector DNA – Site for tRNA synthesis (c) Micropropagation – In vitro production of plants in large numbers (d) Callus – Unorganised mass of cells produced in tissue culture

Description : Which one of the following is a case of wrong matching? (a) Somatic – Fusion of two hybridization diverse cells (b) Vector DNA – Site for tRNA synthesis (c) Micropropagation – In vitro production of plants in large numbers (d) Callus – Unorganised mass of cells produced in tissue culture

Last Answer : (b) Vector DNA – Site for tRNA synthesis

9. Which one of the following is a case of wrong matching ? (1) Callus - Unorganised mass of cells produced in tissue culture (2) Somatic hybridization - Fusion of two diverse cells (3) Vector DNA - Site for t-RNA synthesis (4) Micropropagation - In vitro production of plants in large number

Description : 9. Which one of the following is a case of wrong matching ? (1) Callus - Unorganised mass of cells produced in tissue culture (2) Somatic hybridization - Fusion of two diverse cells (3) Vector DNA - Site for t-RNA synthesis (4) Micropropagation - In vitro production of plants in large number

Last Answer : Vector DNA - Site for t-RNA synthesis

The hormonal alterations that follow operation and injury favor accelerated gluconeogenesis. This new glucose is consumed by which of the following tissues? A. Central nervous system. B. Skeletal muscle. C. Bone. D. Kidney. E. Tissue in the healing wound.

Description : The hormonal alterations that follow operation and injury favor accelerated gluconeogenesis. This new glucose is consumed by which of the following tissues? A. Central nervous system. B. Skeletal muscle. C. Bone. D. Kidney. E. Tissue in the healing wound.

Last Answer : Answer: ADE DISCUSSION: Glucose is produced in increased amounts to satisfy the fuel requirements of the healing wound. In addition, nerve tissue and the renal medulla also utilize this substrate. Skeletal muscle primarily utilizes fatty acids, and bone utilizes mineral substrate

Monro-Kellie hypothesis refers to a) the dynamic equilibrium of cranial contents. The hypothesis states that because of the limited space for expansion within the skull, an increase in any one of the cranial contents (brain tissue, blood, or cerebrospinal fluid) causes a change in the volume of the others.

Description : Monro-Kellie hypothesis refers to a) the dynamic equilibrium of cranial contents. The hypothesis states that because of the limited space for expansion within the skull, an increase in any ... the patient is wakeful but devoid of conscious content, without cognitive or affective mental function.

Last Answer : a) the dynamic equilibrium of cranial contents. The hypothesis states that because of the limited space for expansion within the skull, an increase in any one of the cranial contents (brain tissue, blood, or cerebrospinal fluid) causes a change in the volume of the others.

Ductal lavage is used for a) women at higher risk for benign proliferative breast disease. Performed in the doctor’s office, a microcatheter is inserted through the nipple while instilling saline and retrieving the fluid for analysis. It has been shown to identify atypical cells in this population and has been found to be adept at detecting cellular changes within the breast tissue.

Description : Ductal lavage is used for a) women at higher risk for benign proliferative breast disease. Performed in the doctor's office, a microcatheter is inserted through the nipple while instilling saline ... risk for benign proliferative breast disease; it is not specific for women with breast implants.

Last Answer : a) women at higher risk for benign proliferative breast disease. Performed in the doctor's office, a microcatheter is inserted through the nipple while instilling saline and retrieving the fluid ... population and has been found to be adept at detecting cellular changes within the breast tissue.

Which of the following terms refers to chest pain brought on by physical or emotional stress and relieved by rest or medication? a) angina pectoris Angina pectoris is a symptom of myocardial ischemia. b) atherosclerosis Atherosclerosis is an abnormal accumulation of lipid deposits and fibrous tissue within arterial walls and lumens. c) atheroma Atheromas are fibrous caps composed of smooth muscle cells that form over lipid deposits within arterial vessels. d) ischemia Ischemia is insufficient tissue oxygenation and may occur in any part of the body.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to chest pain brought on by physical or emotional stress and relieved by rest or medication? a) angina pectoris Angina pectoris is a symptom of myocardial ischemia. ... d) ischemia Ischemia is insufficient tissue oxygenation and may occur in any part of the body.

Last Answer : a) angina pectoris Angina pectoris is a symptom of myocardial ischemia.