The Constitution allows preventive detention but stipulates: (1) that no one should be detained beyond three months unless an Advisory Board authorizes detention beyond that period (2) that the grounds for detention should be conveyed to the detenu before arresting him (3) that the detenu must be produced before the nearest magistrate within a period of 24 hours of his arrest (4) All of the above

The Constitution allows preventive detention but stipulates: (1) that no one should be detained beyond three months unless an Advisory Board authorizes detention beyond that period (2) that the grounds for detention should be conveyed to the detenu before arresting him (3) that the detenu must be produced before the nearest magistrate within a period of 24 hours of his arrest (4) All of the above
by

1 Answer

Answer :

(1) that no one should be detained beyond three months unless an Advisory Board authorises detention beyond that period Explanation: Article 22 (4) provides that no law providing for preventive detention shall authorise the detention of a person for a longer period than 3 months unless an Advisory Board consisting of persons who are, or have been, or are qualified to be appointed as Judges of a High Court, has reported before the expiration of the said period of 3 months that there is in it's opinion sufficient cause for such detention.
by
selected by

Related questions

Members of Parliament enjoy the Privilege of freedom from arrest in — (1) Criminal Cases (2) Civil Cases (3) Preventive detention (4) All types of cases

Description : Members of Parliament enjoy the Privilege of freedom from arrest in — (1) Criminal Cases (2) Civil Cases (3) Preventive detention (4) All types of cases

Last Answer : (2) Civil Cases Explanation: Members of Parliament enjoy the Privilege of freedom from arrest in Civil Cases.

Which among the following is not a preventive detention act? (1) Terrorist and Disruptive Activities (Prevention) Act (TADA) (2) Prevention of Terrorism Act (POTA) (3) Conservation of Foreign Exchange and Prevention of Smuggling Activities Act (COFEPOSA) (4) Foreign Exchange Regulation Act (FERA)

Description : Which among the following is not a preventive detention act? (1) Terrorist and Disruptive Activities (Prevention) Act (TADA) (2) Prevention of Terrorism Act (POTA) (3) Conservation of Foreign Exchange and Prevention of Smuggling Activities Act (COFEPOSA) (4) Foreign Exchange Regulation Act (FERA)

Last Answer : (4) Foreign Exchange Regulation Act (FERA) Explanation: The Foreign Exchange Regulation Act (FERA) which was passed by the Indian Parliament in 1973 imposed stringent regulations on dealings in foreign ... exchange and the import and export of currency. Ti was not a preventive detention act.

Preventive detention means - (1) detention for interrogation (2) detention after interrogation (3) detention without interrogation (4) detention for cognisable offence

Description : Preventive detention means - (1) detention for interrogation (2) detention after interrogation (3) detention without interrogation (4) detention for cognisable offence

Last Answer : (3) detention without interrogation Explanatin : Preventive detention is an imprisonment that is putatively justified for nonpunitive purposes. In contrast to this, under preventive detention the government can ... it can detain or arrest that person to prevent him from doing this possible harm.

The Preventive Detention Act curtailed (1) Right to Freedom (2) Right to Equality (3) Right to Property (4) Education Right

Description : The Preventive Detention Act curtailed (1) Right to Freedom (2) Right to Equality (3) Right to Property (4) Education Right

Last Answer : (1) Right to Freedom Explanation: The Preventive Detention Act was enacted in 1950 to provide for preventive detention in certain cases and matter connected therewith. It empowered the government to ... Clauses (4) to (7) of Article 22 contain safeguards relating to preventive detention matter.

Following is an example of residuary powers in India – (1) Preventive detention (2) Service taxation (3) Labour Laws (4) None of these

Description : Following is an example of residuary powers in India – (1) Preventive detention (2) Service taxation (3) Labour Laws (4) None of these

Last Answer : (2) Service taxation Explanation: Service taxation is an example of residuary powers in India.

Which one of the following is not correct about the Panchayats as laid down in Part IX of the Constitution of India? (1) The Chairperson of a Panchayat needs to be directly elected by people in order to exercise the right to vote in the Panchayat meetings. (2) The State Legislature has the right to decide whether or not offices of the Chairpersons in the Panchayats are reserved for SCs, STs or women. (3) Unless dissolved earlier, every Panchayat continues for a period of five years. (4) The State Legislature may by law make provisions for audit of accounts of the Panchayats.

Description : Which one of the following is not correct about the Panchayats as laid down in Part IX of the Constitution of India? (1) The Chairperson of a Panchayat needs to be directly elected by people in ... years. (4) The State Legislature may by law make provisions for audit of accounts of the Panchayats.

Last Answer : (3) Unless dissolved earlier, every Panchayat continues for a period of five years. Explanation: Inflation in the country continued to moderate during 2017-I8. Consumer Price Index (CPI) based ... stated in the Economic Survey 2017-18. There was a significant reduction in food inflation too.

The vacancy of the office of the President of India must be filled up within- (1) 90 days (2) 6 months (3) One year (4) within the period decided by the Parliament

Description : The vacancy of the office of the President of India must be filled up within- (1) 90 days (2) 6 months (3) One year (4) within the period decided by the Parliament

Last Answer : (2) 6 months Explanation: The vacancy of the office of the President of India must be filled up within 6 months.

According to the Constitution of India the term 'district judge' shall not include - (1) Chief Presidency Magistrate (2) Sessions Judge (3) Tribunal Judge (4) Chief Justice of a Small Cause Court

Description : According to the Constitution of India the term 'district judge' shall not include - (1) Chief Presidency Magistrate (2) Sessions Judge (3) Tribunal Judge (4) Chief Justice of a Small Cause Court

Last Answer : (3) Tribunal Judge Explanation: According to Article 236, the expression district judge includes judge of a city Civil Court, additional district judge, joint district judge, ... additional chief presidency magistrate, sessions judge, additional sessions judge and assistant sessions judge.

The detention period for plain sedimentation water tanks, is usually A. 4 to 8 hours B. 8 to 16 hours C. 16 to 24 hours D. 24 to 36 hours

Description : The detention period for plain sedimentation water tanks, is usually A. 4 to 8 hours B. 8 to 16 hours C. 16 to 24 hours D. 24 to 36 hours

Last Answer : ANS: A

In a sedimentation tank, the detention period for water ranges from __________ hours. (A) 2 to 4 (B) 8 to 12 (C) 16 to 20 (D) 24 to 32

Description : In a sedimentation tank, the detention period for water ranges from __________ hours. (A) 2 to 4 (B) 8 to 12 (C) 16 to 20 (D) 24 to 32

Last Answer : (A) 2 to 4

The detention period for plain sedimentation water tanks, is usually (A) 4 to 8 hours (B) 8 to 16 hours (C) 16 to 24 hours (D) 24 to 36 hours

Description : The detention period for plain sedimentation water tanks, is usually  (A) 4 to 8 hours  (B) 8 to 16 hours  (C) 16 to 24 hours  (D) 24 to 36 hours

Last Answer : (D) 24 to 36 hours

The minimum number of judges to sit on the Constitutional Bench or on Bench which gives its advisory opinion on the reference by the President must be: (1) One half of the total strength of the Supreme Court (2) Seven (3) Three (4) One-third of the total strength of the court

Description : The minimum number of judges to sit on the Constitutional Bench or on Bench which gives its advisory opinion on the reference by the President must be: (1) One half of the total strength of the Supreme Court (2) Seven (3) Three (4) One-third of the total strength of the court

Last Answer : (1) One half of the total strength of the Supreme Court Explanation: Court's advisory jurisdiction may be sought by the President under Article 143 of the Constitution. This procedure is termed as " ... on the reference by the President must be one half of the total strength of the Supreme Court.

After a Bill has been passed by the Houses of the Parliament, it is presented to the President who may either give assent to the Bill or with hold his assent. The President may - (1) assent within six months (2) assent or reject the Bill as soon as possible (3) return the Bill as soon as possible after the Bill is presented to him with a message requesting the House to reconsider the Bill (4) with hold his assent even if the Bill is passed again by the Houses

Description : After a Bill has been passed by the Houses of the Parliament, it is presented to the President who may either give assent to the Bill or with hold his assent. The President may - (1) assent within six ... to reconsider the Bill (4) with hold his assent even if the Bill is passed again by the Houses

Last Answer : (3) return the Bill as soon as possible after the Bill is presented to him with a message requesting the House to reconsider the Bill Explanation: Article 111 of the Indian constitution ... houses of the parliament or return the bill as soon as possible for reconsideration with his recommendation

What is the period within which a proclamation of national emergency made by the President is to be placed before each house of the Parliament for approval? (1) within one month (2) within two months (3) within four months (4) within six months

Description : What is the period within which a proclamation of national emergency made by the President is to be placed before each house of the Parliament for approval? (1) within one month (2) within two months (3) within four months (4) within six months

Last Answer : (1) within one month Explanation: The President of India has the power to declare three types of emergency. They are National Emergency, State Emergency and Financial Emergency. A proclamation ... passed within one month of Lok Sabha being reconstituted; otherwise the proclamation will be invalid.

Which of the following statements is not correct? (1) In Lok Sabha, a no-confidence motion has to set out the grounds on which it is based. (2) In the case of a no-confidence motion in Lok Sabha, no conditions of admissibility have been laid down in the rules. (3) A motion of no-confidence once admitted has to be taken up within ten days of leave being granted. (4) Rayya Sabha is not empowered to entertain a motion of no-confidence.

Description : Which of the following statements is not correct? (1) In Lok Sabha, a no-confidence motion has to set out the grounds on which it is based. (2) In the case of a no-confidence motion in Lok ... ten days of leave being granted. (4) Rayya Sabha is not empowered to entertain a motion of no-confidence.

Last Answer : (1) In Lok Sabha, a noconfidence motion has to set out the grounds on which it is based Explanation: ‘No-confidence motion’ need not state the reason for it being adopted in the Lok Sabha.

A proclamation of emergency must be placed before the Parliament for its approval (1) Within 1 month (2) Within 2 months (3) Within 6 months (4) Within 1 year

Description : A proclamation of emergency must be placed before the Parliament for its approval (1) Within 1 month (2) Within 2 months (3) Within 6 months (4) Within 1 year

Last Answer : (1) Within 1 month Explanation: Proclamation of emergency must be replaced withing 1 month before the parliament for its approval.

The writ of Prohibition is issued by a superior court - (1) to prevent an inferior court or tribunal from exceeding its jurisdiction or acting contrary to the rules of natural justice (2) to an inferior court or body exercising judicial or quasijudicial functions to transfer the record to proceedings in a case for its review (3) where it can call upon a person to show under what authority he/she is holding the office (4) to an authority to produce an illegally detained person before the court for trial.

Description : The writ of Prohibition is issued by a superior court - (1) to prevent an inferior court or tribunal from exceeding its jurisdiction or acting contrary to the rules of natural justice (2) to an ... the office (4) to an authority to produce an illegally detained person before the court for trial.

Last Answer : (1) to prevent an inferior court or tribunal from exceeding its jurisdiction or acting contrary to the rules of natural justice Explanation: The writ of Prohibition is an order from a superior ... because the lower court does not have proper jurisdiction to hear or determine the matters before it.

Which article of Indian Constitution provides an advisory jurisdiction to the Supreme Court? (1) Article 129 (2) Article 132 (3) Article 143 (4) Article 32

Description : Which article of Indian Constitution provides an advisory jurisdiction to the Supreme Court? (1) Article 129 (2) Article 132 (3) Article 143 (4) Article 32

Last Answer : (3) Article 143 Explanation: Article 143 of Indian Constitution provides an advisory jurisdiction to the Supreme Court.

If tube feeding is continuous, the placement of the feeding tube should be checked a) every shift. Each nurse caring for the patient is responsible for verifying that the tube is located in the proper area for continuous feeding. b) every hour. Checking for placement each hour is unnecessary unless the patient is extremely restless or there is basis for rechecking the tube based on other patient activities. c) every 24 hours. Checking for placement every 24 hours does not meet the standard of care due the patient receiving continuous tube feedings. d) when a tube feeding is continuous, it is unnecessary to check placement. Even though the feedings are continuous, the placement must be assessed.

Description : If tube feeding is continuous, the placement of the feeding tube should be checked a) every shift. Each nurse caring for the patient is responsible for verifying that the tube is located ... is unnecessary to check placement. Even though the feedings are continuous, the placement must be assessed.

Last Answer : a) every shift. Each nurse caring for the patient is responsible for verifying that the tube is located in the proper area for continuous feeding.

No appeal against such alternative will lie to a higher authority unless it is submitted within the usual time limit of _______ from the date of communication a) Three months b) Six month c) One year d) One month

Description : No appeal against such alternative will lie to a higher authority unless it is submitted within the usual time limit of _______ from the date of communication a) Three months b) Six month c) One year d) One month

Last Answer : b) Six month

Which fundamental rights can be controlled by preventive detention act

Description : Which fundamental rights can be controlled by preventive detention act

Last Answer : Right to Freedom

Of the various grounds below, which is the one criterion on which discriminaion by the State is not prohibited in Article 15 of the Constitution? (1) Place of birth (2) Race (3) Language (4) Caste

Description : Of the various grounds below, which is the one criterion on which discriminaion by the State is not prohibited in Article 15 of the Constitution? (1) Place of birth (2) Race (3) Language (4) Caste

Last Answer : (3) Language Explanation: Article 15 is about prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth. It states that no citizen shall, on ground only of religion ... resort maintained whole or partly out of State funds or dedicated to the use of general public.

On which of the following grounds can a judge of the Supreme Court be impeached? (1) Violation of constitution (2) Proved misbehaviors (3) Incapacity to act as a judge (4) (2) & (3) both

Description : On which of the following grounds can a judge of the Supreme Court be impeached? (1) Violation of constitution (2) Proved misbehaviors (3) Incapacity to act as a judge (4) (2) & (3) both

Last Answer : (4) (2) & (3) both Explanation: A judge of the Supreme Court can be removed under the Constitution only on grounds of proven misconduct or incapacity and by an order of the President of India, after ... Sabha (Council of the States) is passed by a two-third majority in each House of the Parliament.

The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India contains - (1) provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas (2) the Union List, the State List and the Concurrent List (3) a list of recognized languages (4) provisions about the disqualification of Members of Legislatures on grounds of defection

Description : The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India contains - (1) provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas (2) the Union List, the State List and the Concurrent List ( ... recognized languages (4) provisions about the disqualification of Members of Legislatures on grounds of defection

Last Answer : (2) the Union List, the State List and the Concurrent List Explanation: The Seventh Schedule is given under Article 246 and includes The union (central government) state, and concurrent lists of responsibilities.

The President can be impeached on the grounds of violating the Constitution by - (1) The Chief Justice of India (2) The Vice-President of India (3) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha (4) The two Houses of Parliament

Description : The President can be impeached on the grounds of violating the Constitution by - (1) The Chief Justice of India (2) The Vice-President of India (3) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha (4) The two Houses of Parliament

Last Answer : (4) The two Houses of Parliament Explanation: Impeachment of President by the two houses of Parliament under article 61 mentioned.

Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India includes the disqualification of a Legislator on grounds of defection? (1) 8th Schedule (2) 7th Schedule (3) 6th Schedule (4) 10th Schedule

Description : Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India includes the disqualification of a Legislator on grounds of defection? (1) 8th Schedule (2) 7th Schedule (3) 6th Schedule (4) 10th Schedule

Last Answer : (4) 10th Schedule Explanation: The 10th Schedule to the Indian Constitution is known as Anti-Defection Law. It was inserted by the 52nd Amendment Act 1985 to the Constitution. It sets the provisions for disqualification of elected members on the grounds of defection to another political party.

Your father has died, and his will stipulates, that you must infect yourself with HIV, in order to get the money. You agree to the terms. How much money did you inherit?

Description : Your father has died, and his will stipulates, that you must infect yourself with HIV, in order to get the money. You agree to the terms. How much money did you inherit?

Last Answer : So, what, we just make up a number here? In that case I inherited $1 trillion USD.

If the Election Commission is satisfied that a candidate has failed to lodge an account of election expenses, within the prescribed time and in the manner, for no good reason or justification, what is the period for which the EC can disqualify him to be a member or from continuing to be a member of the elected office from the date of the order? (1) 2 years (2) 3 years (3) 4 years (4) 5 years

Description : If the Election Commission is satisfied that a candidate has failed to lodge an account of election expenses, within the prescribed time and in the manner, for no good reason or justification, what is the period for which the ... date of the order? (1) 2 years (2) 3 years (3) 4 years (4) 5 years

Last Answer : (2) 3 years Explanation: Under section 10A of the RP Act, 1951, if the Election Commission is satisfied that a person has failed to lodge an account of election expenses with the time and ... , a member of either House of Parliament or the Legislative Assembly or Legislative Council of a State.

Article 21 of the Fundamental Rights deals with which subject— (A) Protection of certain rights regarding freedom of speech, (B) Protection in respect of conviction of offence (C) Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases (D) Protection of life and personal liberty

Description : Article 21 of the Fundamental Rights deals with which subject— (A) Protection of certain rights regarding freedom of speech, (B) Protection in respect of conviction of offence (C) Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases (D) Protection of life and personal liberty

Last Answer : (D) Protection of life and personal liberty

Article 21 of the Fundamental Rights deals with which subject— (A) Protection of certain rights regarding freedom of speech, (B) Protection in respect of conviction of offence (C) Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases (D) Protection of life and personal liberty

Description : Article 21 of the Fundamental Rights deals with which subject— (A) Protection of certain rights regarding freedom of speech, (B) Protection in respect of conviction of offence (C) Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases (D) Protection of life and personal liberty

Last Answer : (D) Protection of life and personal liberty

Can a person who is not a Member of Parliament be appointed as a minister'? (1) No (2) Yes (3) Yes, provided the Parliament approves of such an appointment. (4) Yes, But he has to become a Member of Parliament within six months of his appointment.

Description : Can a person who is not a Member of Parliament be appointed as a minister'? (1) No (2) Yes (3) Yes, provided the Parliament approves of such an appointment. (4) Yes, But he has to become a Member of Parliament within six months of his appointment.

Last Answer : (4) Yes, But he has to become a Member of Parliament within six months of his appointment. Explanation: Generally, Ministers are appointed from the legislature. But, an exception to this rule is carved out by ... can be a Minister only up to a period of 6 months before which he has to get elected.

The declaration of Constitutional Emergency in an Indian State has to be approved by the Parliament within a period of – (1) 2 months (2) 4 months (3) 6 months (4) 12 months

Description : The declaration of Constitutional Emergency in an Indian State has to be approved by the Parliament within a period of – (1) 2 months (2) 4 months (3) 6 months (4) 12 months

Last Answer : (1) 2 months Explanation: If the President is satisfied, on the basis of the report of the Governor of the concerned state or from other sources that the governance in a state cannot be carried out ... in the state. Such an emergency must be approved by the Parliament within a period of 2 months.

What is the maximum period upto which a proclamation issued by the President under Article 356 of the Constitution and approved/extended by the Parliament may, normally, remain in force? (1) Six months (2) One year (3) Two years (4) Unit is repealed by the Parliament

Description : What is the maximum period upto which a proclamation issued by the President under Article 356 of the Constitution and approved/extended by the Parliament may, normally, remain in force? (1) Six months (2) One year (3) Two years (4) Unit is repealed by the Parliament

Last Answer : (2) One year Explanation: President's rule is enabled by Article 356 of the Constitution of India, which gives authority to impose central rule if there has been failure of the constitutional machinery ... it can be done by a constitutional amendment, as has happened in Punjab and Jammu and Kashmir.

The vacancy of the office of the President must be filled within : (1) 6 months (2) 12 months (3) 1 month (4) 3 months

Description : The vacancy of the office of the President must be filled within : (1) 6 months (2) 12 months (3) 1 month (4) 3 months

Last Answer : (1) 6 months Explanation: According to Article 56 of the Indian Constitution, the election to fill a vacancy in the office of President occurring by reason of his death, resignation or removal, or otherwise ... after, and in no case later than six months from, the date of occurrence of the vacancy.

A proclamation of emergency caused by war or external aggression must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within – (1) 15 days (2) 1 month (3) 2 months (4) 3 months

Description : A proclamation of emergency caused by war or external aggression must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within – (1) 15 days (2) 1 month (3) 2 months (4) 3 months

Last Answer : (2) 1 month Explanation: National emergency is caused by war, external aggression or armed rebellion in the whole of India. The President can declare such an emergency only on the basis of a ... can be imposed for six months. It can be extended by six months by repeated parliamentary approval.

If the PM belonged to the upper House of Parliament? (1) He will not be able to vote in his favour in the event of a no-confidence motion. (2) He will not be able to speak on the budget in the Lower House. (3) He can make statements only in the Upper House. (4) He has to become a member of the Lower House within six months after swearing in as the PM.

Description : If the PM belonged to the upper House of Parliament? (1) He will not be able to vote in his favour in the event of a no-confidence motion. (2) He will not be able to speak on the budget in the ... House. (4) He has to become a member of the Lower House within six months after swearing in as the PM.

Last Answer : (1) He will not be able to vote in his favour in the event of a noconfidence motion Explanation: He will not be able to vote in his favour in the event of a no-confidence motion.

The Municipal Commissioner is appointed by - (1) Member of Legislative Assembly (2) Zila Parishad (3) State Government (4) District Magistrate

Description : The Municipal Commissioner is appointed by - (1) Member of Legislative Assembly (2) Zila Parishad (3) State Government (4) District Magistrate

Last Answer : (3) State Government Explanation: A municipal commissioner is appointed by the state government from the Indian Administrative Service and mostly from Provincial Civil Service to head the ... the Municipal Corporation, implement the decisions of the Corporation and prepare its annual budget.

Which one of the following criteria is not required to be qualified for appointment as Judge of the Supreme Court? (1) At least five years as a Judge of a High Court (2) At least ten years as an Advocate of a High Court (3) In the opinion of the President, a distinguished Jurist (4) At least twenty years as a Sub Judicial Magistrate

Description : Which one of the following criteria is not required to be qualified for appointment as Judge of the Supreme Court? (1) At least five years as a Judge of a High Court (2) At least ten ... the opinion of the President, a distinguished Jurist (4) At least twenty years as a Sub Judicial Magistrate

Last Answer : (4) At least twenty years as a SubJudicial Magistrate Explanation: Eligibility of a judge of the Supreme Court a judge of one high court or more (continuously), for at least five years, or. an ... opinion of the president, power conferred by clause (2) of article 124 of the Constitution of India.

Normally a performance bond, depending upon the state, only stipulates that the contractor will guarantee the work for a certain period of time. Answer: D (8)Which contract type places the most risk on the seller? 1. Cost plus percentage fee 2. Cost plus incentive fee 3. Cost plus fixed fee 4. Fixed price plus incentive fee 5. Firm fixed price

Description : Normally a performance bond, depending upon the state, only stipulates that the contractor will guarantee the work for a certain period of time.  Answer: D  (8)Which contract type places the most risk on ... fee  3. Cost plus fixed fee  4. Fixed price plus incentive fee  5. Firm fixed price

Last Answer : 5. Firm fixed price

When the indication for surgery is without delay, the nurse recognizes that the surgery will be classified as a) emergency. Emergency surgery means that the patient requires immediate attention and the disorder may be life-threatening. b) urgent. Urgent surgery means that the patient requires prompt attention within 24-30 hours. c) required. Required surgery means that the patient needs to have surgery, and it should be planned within a few weeks or months. d) elective. Elective surgery means that there is an indication for surgery, but failure to have surgery will not be catastrophic.

Description : When the indication for surgery is without delay, the nurse recognizes that the surgery will be classified as a) emergency. Emergency surgery means that the patient requires immediate attention and the ... there is an indication for surgery, but failure to have surgery will not be catastrophic.

Last Answer : a) emergency. Emergency surgery means that the patient requires immediate attention and the disorder may be life-threatening.

Which one of the following fundamental rights is available to Indian citizens only? (1) Equality before law (2) Protection of life and personal liberty against any action without authority of law (3) Protection from discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth (4) (4) fltedom of religion

Description : Which one of the following fundamental rights is available to Indian citizens only? (1) Equality before law (2) Protection of life and personal liberty against any action without authority of law (3) Protection ... grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth (4) (4) fltedom of religion

Last Answer : (3) Protection from discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth Explanation: Some fundamental rights apply for persons of any nationality whereas others are available only to the ... , race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth, place of residence or any of them.

The continuity equation (A) Relates mass flow rate along a stream tube (B) Relates work and energy (C) Stipulates that Newton's second law of motion must be satisfied at every point in the fluid (D) None of these

Description : The continuity equation (A) Relates mass flow rate along a stream tube (B) Relates work and energy (C) Stipulates that Newton's second law of motion must be satisfied at every point in the fluid (D) None of these

Last Answer : (A) Relates mass flow rate along a stream tube

In case of Imhoff tanks, A. The shape is rectangular B. Detention period is 2 hours C. The velocity of flow is restricted to 0.30 m/minute D. All the above

Description : In case of Imhoff tanks, A. The shape is rectangular B. Detention period is 2 hours C. The velocity of flow is restricted to 0.30 m/minute D. All the above

Last Answer : ANS: D

Pick up the incorrect statement from the following: A. Septic tanks are horizontal continuous flow type of sedimentation tanks B. Septic tanks are generally provided a detention period of 12 to 36 hours C. Septic tanks are completely covered and high vent shafts are provided for the escape of foul gases D. None of these

Description : Pick up the incorrect statement from the following: A. Septic tanks are horizontal continuous flow type of sedimentation tanks B. Septic tanks are generally provided a detention period of 12 to 36 hours C ... covered and high vent shafts are provided for the escape of foul gases D. None of these

Last Answer : ANS: D

The settling velocity of the particles larger than 0.06 mm in a settling tank of depth 2.4 is 0.33 m per sec. The detention period recommended for the tank, is A. 30 minutes B. 1 hour C. 1 hour and 30 minutes D. 2 hours

Description : The settling velocity of the particles larger than 0.06 mm in a settling tank of depth 2.4 is 0.33 m per sec. The detention period recommended for the tank, is A. 30 minutes B. 1 hour C. 1 hour and 30 minutes D. 2 hours

Last Answer : ANS: D

Pick up the correct statement from the following: (A) Detention period for plain sedimentation tanks ranges between 4 to 8 hours (B) Detention period for sedimentation tanks, using coagulants usually ranges between 2 to 4 hours(C) The horizontally flow velocity in sedimentation tanks, is generally limited to 0.3 m/minute (D) All the above

Description : Pick up the correct statement from the following:  (A) Detention period for plain sedimentation tanks ranges between 4 to 8 hours  (B) Detention period for sedimentation tanks, using coagulants usually ... in sedimentation tanks, is generally limited to 0.3 m/minute  (D) All the above

Last Answer : (D) All the above

The dimensions of a rectangular settling tank are: length 24 m, width 6 m and depth 3 m. If 2 hour detention period for tanks is recommended, the rate of flow of sewage per hour, is A. 204 cu.m B. 208 cu.m C. 212 cu.m D. 216 cu.m

Description : The dimensions of a rectangular settling tank are: length 24 m, width 6 m and depth 3 m. If 2 hour detention period for tanks is recommended, the rate of flow of sewage per hour, is A. 204 cu.m B. 208 cu.m C. 212 cu.m D. 216 cu.m

Last Answer : ANS: D

For a grit chamber, if the recommended velocity of flow is 0.2 m/sec and detention period is 2 minutes, the length of the tank, is A. 16 m B. 20 m C. 24 m D. 30 m

Description : For a grit chamber, if the recommended velocity of flow is 0.2 m/sec and detention period is 2 minutes, the length of the tank, is A. 16 m B. 20 m C. 24 m D. 30 m

Last Answer : ANS: C

If the proclaimed person appears within the time specified in the proclamation, the court shall make an order a) Arrest him and take on custody b) Releasing the half property from the attachment c) Releasing the property from the attachment d) None of these

Description : If the proclaimed person appears within the time specified in the proclamation, the  court shall make an order  a) Arrest him and take on custody b) Releasing the half property from the attachment c) Releasing the property from the attachment d) None of these

Last Answer : c) Releasing the property from the attachment