Description : Indication of rapid sequence anesthesia include all except A. Patient ASA I undergoing elective cholecytectomy. B. Patient presented with bowel obstruction C) Morbid Obesity Patients D) Pregnancy
Last Answer : Ans: A
Description : According to the American Society of Anesthesiology Physical Status Classification System, a patient with severe systemic disease that is not incapacitating is noted to have physical status ... normal healthy patient d) P2 Classification P2 reflects a patient with mild systemic disease
Last Answer : a) P3 Classification P3 patients are those who have compensated heart failure, cirrhosis, or poorly controlled diabetes, for example.
Description : Life threatening risks of anesthesia include all except A. Hypoxic brain injury B. Myocardial infarction C. Postoperative nausea and vomiting D. Cerebrovascular accident
Last Answer : Ans: C
Description : ASA standard monitors include all except A. Pulse oximeter B. CVP C. NIBP cuff D. ECG
Last Answer : Ans: B
Description : Symptoms of circulatory systemic overload during excessive IV fluids include all except A) Oliguria B) Increased BP C) Anxiety D) Pulmonary edema
Description : In 70 kg patient one unit of platelet concentrate should increase platelet count A. 2000 - 5000 mm3 B. 5000 - 10000 mm3 C. 10000 - 20000 mm3 D. More than 20000 mm3
Description : Chance of a dog dying from anesthesia?
Last Answer : Did you vet this question? 1 in 233.
Description : Thiopental (sodium thiopental, Thiopentone, STP) characterized by the following except A. Prepares as a pale yellow 10.5 (alkaline) B. After iv bolus, rapidly ... C) Effects include decrease cerebral blood flow and O2 requirements D) Has good analgesic ...
Last Answer : Ans: D
Description : The mean arterial pressure of a blood pressure of 160 80 is A. 90 mmHg B. 100 mmHg C. 110 mmHg D. 120 mmHg
Description : The following are the classical hemolytic transfusion reaction in general anesthesia except A. Hypotension B. Wheezing C. Hemoglobinuria D. bradycardia
Description : Factor at increase risk of aspiration includes A. drinking clear fluids 8 hours before operation B. gastro esophageal reflux C. chewing gum D. Two hours preoperative oral clear fluid administration
Description : Mallampati grade suggests difficult intubation A. grade I B. grade II C. grade IV D. All of the above
Description : Premedication that can be given A. Anxiolysis B. Anti- emetic C. Antacid D. all of the above
Description : Body Mass Index= A. Height in centimeters Weight (kg) B. Weight (kg) Height (M2) C. Height (M2) Weight (kg) D. Weight (kg) Height in centimeters
Description : Regarding morphine, all are true Except A. Respiratory depression ... effect B. Can be IV subcutaneously, rectally and epidurally C. Can cause nausea and vomiting D. Less effective against pain of myocardial ischemia
Description : Intravenous regional anesthesia is more commonly used for operations of A. Neck surgeries B. Lower abdomen C. Upper limbs D. Lower limbs
Description : Depolarizing block may be done by A. Atracurium B. Neostegmin C. Succinylcholine D. rocuronuim
Description : Balanced General Anesthesia includes A. Skeletal muscle relaxant B. Loss of consciousness C. Analgesia D. All of the above
Description : Signs of low perfusion include all except A. hypotension B. tachycardia C. High Urine Output D. Poor Capillary refill
Description : Ketamine; all are true except A. Induction of anesthesia by IV route B. Induction of anesthesia … C. Supplementation of sedation... D. Decrease cerebral blood flow
Description : Predictors of difficult intubation include A. Short muscular neck B. Prominent upper incisor C. Protruding mandible D. All of the above
Description : In a lower segment caesarean section, which of the following techniques of anesthesia is desirable A. Spinal anesthesia B. Caudal anesthesia C. Combined Spinal Epidural D. General anesthesia
Description : Succinylcholine can produce all except A) Induce malignant hyperthermia in susceptible patients B) Prolonged paralysis occurs in case of butyrylcholinesterase abnormalities (as succinylcholine is not metabolized) C) Tachycardia, particularly in children D) Increase intraocular pressure
Description : A 55-year-old renal transplant patient has been hospitalized in a Surgical Intensive Care Unit, receiving a prolonged course of antibiotics following an attack of acute cholecystitis. The ... suggest a dosage reduction in immunosuppressive agents until the infection can be adequately controlled
Last Answer : Answer: a, d Infections due to fungal pathogens have become increasingly common during the past decade, frequently occurring in patients undergoing prolonged hospitalization in the Surgical ... agents should be discontinued until evidence of infection is absolutely controlled or is eradicated
Description : patient came with MI 2 day after addmission develop. Sever abdominal pain and bloody diarrhea وفياشياتانيهنسيتهاDX Ischemic colitis
Last Answer : Ischemic colitis
Description : A patient has developed a sever chest pain and difficulties in breathing while in the dental chair. Your initial response is: a. Administer glycerine trinitrate and monitor patient in upright ... required until confirmed as MI by ECG d. Patient has myocardial infarction as confirmed by ECG
Last Answer : a. Administer glycerine trinitrate and monitor patient in upright position.
Description : A patient has developed a sever chest pain and difficulties in breathing while in the dental chair. Your initial response is: A. Administer glycerine trinitrate and monitor patient in upright ... required until confirmed as MI by ECG D. Patient has myocardial infarction as confirmed by ECG
Last Answer : A. Administer glycerine trinitrate and monitor patient in upright position
Description : What is the characteristic feature of gingivitis in AIDS patient:** A. Red band on the free gingiva associated with platelet. B. Correlating with other pathogenesic lesions of AIDS and does not resolve to periodontal conventional treatment. C. Sever pain
Last Answer : A. Red band on the free gingiva associated with platelet.
Description : Which of the following statements reflects nursing care of the woman with mild to moderate ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS)? a) Advise the patient to decrease her activity, monitor ... for immediate hospitalization. The patient with severe OHSS is hospitalized for monitoring and treatment.
Last Answer : a) Advise the patient to decrease her activity, monitor her urine output and to return for frequent office visits. Management in mild and moderate cases of OHSS consists of decreased activity, monitoring of urine output and frequent office visits as designated by the reproductive endocrinologist.
Description : All of the following should be considered for systemic antibiotic except: A. Extraction of tooth with acute dento alveolar abscess B. Necrotic ulcerative gingivitis (ANUG) unless it is acute. C. ... of 38 or 48 with acute pericoronitis D. Full mouth extraction for a patient with perio disease
Last Answer : B. Necrotic ulcerative gingivitis (ANUG) unless it is acute.
Description : Bleeding complications are frequently associated with fibrinolytic therapy. Which of the following statement(s) concerning complications of fibrinolytic therapy is/are true? a. Careful monitoring of prothrombin time ... months ago can be treated with fibrinolytic therapy if head CT scan is normal
Last Answer : Answer: b Fibrinolytic therapy induces a hemostatic defect through a combination of factors. Hypofibrinogenemia and fibrin degradation products inhibit fibrin polymerization and, in combination ... is considered a major relative contraindication to either regional or systemic thrombolytic therapy
Description : The term given to the category of triage that refers to lifethreatening or potentially life-threatening injury or illness requiring immediate treatment is a) emergent. The patient triaged as emergent ... . The triage category of immediate refers to non-acute, non-lifethreatening injury or illness.
Last Answer : a) emergent. The patient triaged as emergent must be seen immediately.
Description : When the indication for surgery is without delay, the nurse recognizes that the surgery will be classified as a) emergency. Emergency surgery means that the patient requires immediate attention and the ... there is an indication for surgery, but failure to have surgery will not be catastrophic.
Last Answer : a) emergency. Emergency surgery means that the patient requires immediate attention and the disorder may be life-threatening.
Description : Which of the following physical findings are associated with the various classes of hemorrhagic shock? a. Mild shock (< 20% blood volume): Pallor, cool extremities, diminished capillary refill and ... ): Systemic hypotension, changes in mental status, tachycardia, oliguria d. All of the above
Last Answer : Answer: a, c PHYSICAL FINDINGS IN HEMORRHAGIC SHOCK* Moderate Mild (40% Blood Volume) Blood Volume) Blood Volume) Pallor Pallor Pallor Cool extremities Cool extremities Cool extremities ... hypotension Mental status changes * Alcohol or drug intoxication may alter physical findings
Description : Systemic corticosteroids are indicated in the following conditions except: A. Mild episodic asthma B. Severe chronic asthma C. Status asthmaticus D. To prevent neonatal respiratory distress syndrome
Last Answer : A. Mild episodic asthma
Description : A diabetic develops a severe perineal infection with skin necrosis, subcutaneous crepitance, and drainage of a thin, watery, grayish and foul-smelling fluid. Management should consist of: a. Gram stain ... normal, healthy tissue can be achieved e. A colostomy is of little benefit in this situation
Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d The presence of severe perineal infection (referred to as Fournier gangrene when this process involves the perineum and scrotum in males) is associated with a ... often provides improved wound care and patient management, although it is not invariably a positive outcome
Description : Which stage of shock is best described as that stage when the mechanisms that regulate blood pressure fail to sustain a systolic pressure above 90 mm Hg? a) Progressive In the progressive stage of ... which organ damage is so severe that the patient does not respond to treatment and cannot survive.
Last Answer : a) Progressive In the progressive stage of shock, the mechanisms that regulate blood pressure can no longer compensate, and the mean arterial pressure falls below normal limits.
Description : Mini-dose heparin has been shown to be useful in the prophylaxis of postoperative venous thrombosis. Mechanism(s) by which low-dose heparin is/are thought to protect against venous ... aggregation and subsequent platelet release action d. A mild prolongation of activated partial thromboplastin time
Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c Low-dose heparin is thought to protect against venous thrombosis through three different mechanisms. First, antithrombin III activity with its inhibition of activated Factor X is ... release reaction. The standard doses of heparin administered (5000 units bid) does not affect aPTT
Description : In temperate climates, pruning should not be done near the end of the summer because: a. New growth will not harden before winter b. It may increase foliage disease c. Plants will not recover in time to produce new growth before winter d. Sever “bleeding” from the cuts will kill the plant
Last Answer : New growth will not harden before winter
Description : Typical features of Down’s syndrome (Mongolism) do not include: A. Multiple immunodeficiencies B. Sever caries but minimal periodontal disease C. Susceptibility to infections D. Multiple missing teeth and malocclusion E. Hepatitis B carriage in institutionalised patients
Last Answer : B. Sever caries but minimal periodontal disease
Description : Draw stress-strain diagram for mild-steel rod and show different limits on it.
Last Answer : Where, A = Limit of proportionality B = Elastic limit C = Upper yield point D = Lower yield point E = Ultimate load point F = Breaking point
Description : In which stage of COPD is the forced expiratory volume (FEV1) < 30%? a) III Stage III patients demonstrate FEV1 < 30% with respiratory failure or clinical signs of right heart failure b) II Stage II ... I Stage I is mild COPD with FEV1 < 70%. d) O Stage O is characterized by normal spirometry
Last Answer : a) III Stage III patients demonstrate FEV1 < 30% with respiratory failure or clinical signs of right heart failure
Description : Teicoplanin has the following feature(s): A. Antimicrobial activity and indications similar to vancomycin B. Long elimination half-life C. Efficacy in systemic infections by oral route D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct
Last Answer : D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct
Description : The nurse teaches the patient about diabetes including which of the following statements? a) Elevated blood glucose levels contribute to complications of diabetes, such as diminished vision. When blood ... be able to resume previous methods for control of diabetes when the stress is resolved.
Last Answer : a) Elevated blood glucose levels contribute to complications of diabetes, such as diminished vision. When blood glucose levels are well controlled, the potential for complications of diabetes is reduced.
Description : Which of the following is true of acarbose: A. It reduces absorption of glucose from intestines B. It produces hypoglycaemia in normal as well as diabetic subjects C. It limits postprandial hyperglycaemia in diabetics D. It raises circulating insulin levels
Last Answer : C. It limits postprandial hyperglycaemia in diabetics
Description : Useful steps to optimize systemic oxygen delivery include: a. Maintaining mean arterial blood pressure between 50 and 90 mm Hg b. Optimizing PEEP levels by monitoring mixed venous saturation c. Turning the patient prone d. Sedation or paralysis
Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d Optimizing systemic oxygen delivery in relationship to oxygen requirement is the primary goal of management. Improving oxygenation of the blood itself by ... sedation, and establishing muscular paralysis decrease oxygen consumption, and decrease the need for oxygen delivery
Description : Although TPN has major beneficial effects to the patient and specific organ systems, TPN has a downside which is related to intestinal disuse. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the ... from the gut is increased d. Effects of TPN on the gut may lead to multiple organ failure
Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d A number of studies have examined the effects of TPN on intestinal function and immunity. Although most of these studies have been done in animal models, ... the release of bacteria and/or cytokines leading to pronounced systemic responses and possibly multiple organ failure
Description : In an asthma patient treated with systemic corticosteroids, bronchodilator drugs (a) Are not needed (b) Are contraindicated (c) May be used on ‘as and when required’ basis (d) Are ineffective
Description : A patient receiving a class I antiarrhythmic agent on a chronic basis complains of fatigue, low-grade fever, and joint pain suggestive of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). The patient is most likely receiving (a) Lidocaine (b) Procainamide (c) Quinidine (d) Flecainide (e) Propranolol
Description : Patient with seasonal watery nasal discharge, sneezing and nasal block. What should you give him as a treatment: • Topical steroid • Decongestants • Antihistamines • Systemic Steriods
Last Answer : Topical steroid