Ketamine; all are true except A. Induction of anesthesia by IV route B. Induction of anesthesia … C. Supplementation of sedation... D. Decrease cerebral blood flow

Ketamine; all are true except A. Induction of anesthesia by IV route B. Induction of anesthesia … C. Supplementation of sedation... D. Decrease cerebral blood flow
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Thiopental (sodium thiopental, Thiopentone, STP) characterized by the following except A. Prepares as a pale yellow 10.5 (alkaline) B. After iv bolus, rapidly ... C) Effects include decrease cerebral blood flow and O2 requirements D) Has good analgesic ...

Description : Thiopental (sodium thiopental, Thiopentone, STP) characterized by the following except A. Prepares as a pale yellow 10.5 (alkaline) B. After iv bolus, rapidly ... C) Effects include decrease cerebral blood flow and O2 requirements D) Has good analgesic ...

Last Answer : Ans: D

if you suspect atrial flutter : Consider digoxin if not already in use because it frequently increases the conduction ratio and decreases the ventricular rate. , Avoid adrenergic and atropinic agents during sedation or anesthesia for cardioversion. Ketamine is relatively contraindicatedthe cause of premature ventricular contraction? decrease O2 supply to the muscle decrease blood supply to the muscle the heart trying to beat fast ______________________________

Description : if you suspect atrial flutter : Consider digoxin if not already in use because it frequently increases the conduction ratio and decreases the ventricular rate. , Avoid adrenergic and ... to the muscle decrease blood supply to the muscle the heart trying to beat fast ______________________________

Last Answer : decrease O2 supply to the muscle

Indication of rapid sequence anesthesia include all except A. Patient ASA I undergoing elective cholecytectomy. B. Patient presented with bowel obstruction C) Morbid Obesity Patients D) Pregnancy

Description : Indication of rapid sequence anesthesia include all except A. Patient ASA I undergoing elective cholecytectomy. B. Patient presented with bowel obstruction C) Morbid Obesity Patients D) Pregnancy

Last Answer : Ans: A

The following are the classical hemolytic transfusion reaction in general anesthesia except A. Hypotension B. Wheezing C. Hemoglobinuria D. bradycardia

Description : The following are the classical hemolytic transfusion reaction in general anesthesia except A. Hypotension B. Wheezing C. Hemoglobinuria D. bradycardia

Last Answer : Ans: D

Life threatening risks of anesthesia include all except A. Hypoxic brain injury B. Myocardial infarction C. Postoperative nausea and vomiting D. Cerebrovascular accident

Description : Life threatening risks of anesthesia include all except A. Hypoxic brain injury B. Myocardial infarction C. Postoperative nausea and vomiting D. Cerebrovascular accident

Last Answer : Ans: C

Chance of a dog dying from anesthesia?

Description : Chance of a dog dying from anesthesia?

Last Answer : Did you vet this question? 1 in 233.

Intravenous regional anesthesia is more commonly used for operations of A. Neck surgeries B. Lower abdomen C. Upper limbs D. Lower limbs

Description : Intravenous regional anesthesia is more commonly used for operations of A. Neck surgeries B. Lower abdomen C. Upper limbs D. Lower limbs

Last Answer : Ans: C

Balanced General Anesthesia includes A. Skeletal muscle relaxant B. Loss of consciousness C. Analgesia D. All of the above

Description : Balanced General Anesthesia includes A. Skeletal muscle relaxant B. Loss of consciousness C. Analgesia D. All of the above

Last Answer : Ans: D

In a lower segment caesarean section, which of the following techniques of anesthesia is desirable A. Spinal anesthesia B. Caudal anesthesia C. Combined Spinal Epidural D. General anesthesia

Description : In a lower segment caesarean section, which of the following techniques of anesthesia is desirable A. Spinal anesthesia B. Caudal anesthesia C. Combined Spinal Epidural D. General anesthesia

Last Answer : Ans: C

Regarding morphine, all are true Except A. Respiratory depression ... effect B. Can be IV subcutaneously, rectally and epidurally C. Can cause nausea and vomiting D. Less effective against pain of myocardial ischemia

Description : Regarding morphine, all are true Except A. Respiratory depression ... effect B. Can be IV subcutaneously, rectally and epidurally C. Can cause nausea and vomiting D. Less effective against pain of myocardial ischemia

Last Answer : Ans: D

Symptoms of circulatory systemic overload during excessive IV fluids include all except A) Oliguria B) Increased BP C) Anxiety D) Pulmonary edema

Description : Symptoms of circulatory systemic overload during excessive IV fluids include all except A) Oliguria B) Increased BP C) Anxiety D) Pulmonary edema

Last Answer : Ans: A

Mallampati grade suggests difficult intubation A. grade I B. grade II C. grade IV D. All of the above

Description : Mallampati grade suggests difficult intubation A. grade I B. grade II C. grade IV D. All of the above

Last Answer : Ans: C

Signs of low perfusion include all except A. hypotension B. tachycardia C. High Urine Output D. Poor Capillary refill

Description : Signs of low perfusion include all except A. hypotension B. tachycardia C. High Urine Output D. Poor Capillary refill

Last Answer : Ans: C

ASA standard monitors include all except A. Pulse oximeter B. CVP C. NIBP cuff D. ECG

Description : ASA standard monitors include all except A. Pulse oximeter B. CVP C. NIBP cuff D. ECG

Last Answer : Ans: B

Succinylcholine can produce all except A) Induce malignant hyperthermia in susceptible patients B) Prolonged paralysis occurs in case of butyrylcholinesterase abnormalities (as succinylcholine is not metabolized) C) Tachycardia, particularly in children D) Increase intraocular pressure

Description : Succinylcholine can produce all except A) Induce malignant hyperthermia in susceptible patients B) Prolonged paralysis occurs in case of butyrylcholinesterase abnormalities (as succinylcholine is not metabolized) C) Tachycardia, particularly in children D) Increase intraocular pressure

Last Answer : Ans: C

The mean arterial pressure of a blood pressure of 160 80 is A. 90 mmHg B. 100 mmHg C. 110 mmHg D. 120 mmHg

Description : The mean arterial pressure of a blood pressure of 160 80 is A. 90 mmHg B. 100 mmHg C. 110 mmHg D. 120 mmHg

Last Answer : Ans: C

In 70 kg patient one unit of platelet concentrate should increase platelet count A. 2000 - 5000 mm3 B. 5000 - 10000 mm3 C. 10000 - 20000 mm3 D. More than 20000 mm3

Description : In 70 kg patient one unit of platelet concentrate should increase platelet count A. 2000 - 5000 mm3 B. 5000 - 10000 mm3 C. 10000 - 20000 mm3 D. More than 20000 mm3

Last Answer : Ans: B

Factor at increase risk of aspiration includes A. drinking clear fluids 8 hours before operation B. gastro esophageal reflux C. chewing gum D. Two hours preoperative oral clear fluid administration

Description : Factor at increase risk of aspiration includes A. drinking clear fluids 8 hours before operation B. gastro esophageal reflux C. chewing gum D. Two hours preoperative oral clear fluid administration

Last Answer : Ans: B

Premedication that can be given A. Anxiolysis B. Anti- emetic C. Antacid D. all of the above

Description : Premedication that can be given A. Anxiolysis B. Anti- emetic C. Antacid D. all of the above

Last Answer : Ans: D

ASA III is A. normal, healthy patient B. Patient with mild, well controlled systemic disease C. Patient with sever systemic disease that limits activity D. Patient with sever life threatening disease

Description : ASA III is A. normal, healthy patient B. Patient with mild, well controlled systemic disease C. Patient with sever systemic disease that limits activity D. Patient with sever life threatening disease

Last Answer : Ans: C

Body Mass Index= A. Height in centimeters Weight (kg) B. Weight (kg) Height (M2) C. Height (M2) Weight (kg) D. Weight (kg) Height in centimeters

Description : Body Mass Index= A. Height in centimeters Weight (kg) B. Weight (kg) Height (M2) C. Height (M2) Weight (kg) D. Weight (kg) Height in centimeters

Last Answer : Ans: B

Depolarizing block may be done by A. Atracurium B. Neostegmin C. Succinylcholine D. rocuronuim

Description : Depolarizing block may be done by A. Atracurium B. Neostegmin C. Succinylcholine D. rocuronuim

Last Answer : Ans: C

Predictors of difficult intubation include A. Short muscular neck B. Prominent upper incisor C. Protruding mandible D. All of the above

Description : Predictors of difficult intubation include A. Short muscular neck B. Prominent upper incisor C. Protruding mandible D. All of the above

Last Answer : Ans: D

Do you have any funny sedation/anesthesia/pain med stories?

Description : Do you have any funny sedation/anesthesia/pain med stories?

Last Answer : I had IV Demerol and twenty minutes later my son was born. While we waited, I sang Whiter Shade of Pale. Nobody will tell me straight out, as I generally have a fair singing voice, but I'm now ... an epidural with a lovely narc cocktail. Hell yeah, jam that needle in my spine and keep it coming.

What is the Difference Between Sedation and General Anesthesia?

Description : What is the Difference Between Sedation and General Anesthesia?

Last Answer : Anesthesia is composed of different classifications that differ from each other depending on the purpose and where to use. Eventually, general anesthesia and sedation are part of it and are commonly ... , danforth dental clinic, 3d ct scan, toronto sedation dentistry, toronto dentist, teeth whit

All of the following are true about neurogenic shock except: A. There is a decrease in systemic vascular resistance and an increase in venous capacitance. B. Tachycardia or bradycardia may be observed, along with hypotension. C. The use of an alpha agonist such as phenylephrine is the mainstay of treatment. D. Severe head injury, spinal cord injury, and high spinal anesthesia may all cause neurogenic shock.

Description : All of the following are true about neurogenic shock except: A. There is a decrease in systemic vascular resistance and an increase in venous capacitance. B. Tachycardia or bradycardia may be ... Severe head injury, spinal cord injury, and high spinal anesthesia may all cause neurogenic shock.

Last Answer : Answer: C DISCUSSION: Neurogenic shock occurs when severe head injury, spinal cord injury, or pharmacologic sympathetic blockade leads to sympathetic denervation and loss of vasomotor tone. ... of treatment. The use of alpha-adrenergic agonist is infrequently necessary to treat neurogenic shock

The drug/drugs used mainly for induction of general anaesthesia is/are: A. Thiopentone sodium B. Fentanyl + droperidol C. Ketamine D. All of the above

Description : The drug/drugs used mainly for induction of general anaesthesia is/are: A. Thiopentone sodium B. Fentanyl + droperidol C. Ketamine D. All of the above

Last Answer : A. Thiopentone sodium

Fentanyl (Sublimaze) is categorized as which type of intravenous anesthetic agent? a) Neuroleptanalgesic Fentanyl is 75-100 times more potent than morphine and has about 25% of the duration of morphine (IV). b) Tranquilizer Examples of tranquilizers include midazolam (Versed) and diazepam (Valium). c) Opioid Opioids include morphine and meperidine hydrochloride (Demerol). d) Dissociative agent Ketamine is a dissociative agent.

Description : Fentanyl (Sublimaze) is categorized as which type of intravenous anesthetic agent? a) Neuroleptanalgesic Fentanyl is 75-100 times more potent than morphine and has about 25% of the duration ... morphine and meperidine hydrochloride (Demerol). d) Dissociative agent Ketamine is a dissociative agent.

Last Answer : a) Neuroleptanalgesic Fentanyl is 75-100 times more potent than morphine and has about 25% of the duration of morphine (IV).

The capacity of an antihistaminic to produce sedation depends on the following except (a) Relative affinity for central versus peripheral H1 receptors (b) Ability to penetrate blood-brain barrier (c) Individual susceptibility (d) Ratio of H1 : H2 blockade produced by the drug

Description : The capacity of an antihistaminic to produce sedation depends on the following except (a) Relative affinity for central versus peripheral H1 receptors (b) Ability to penetrate blood-brain barrier (c) Individual susceptibility (d) Ratio of H1 : H2 blockade produced by the drug

Last Answer : Ans: D

The capacity of an antihistaminic to produce sedation depends on the following except: A. Relative affinity for central versus peripheral H1 receptors B. Ability to penetrate blood-brain barrier C. Individual susceptibility D. Ratio of H1:H2 blockade produced by the drug

Description : The capacity of an antihistaminic to produce sedation depends on the following except: A. Relative affinity for central versus peripheral H1 receptors B. Ability to penetrate blood-brain barrier C. Individual susceptibility D. Ratio of H1:H2 blockade produced by the drug

Last Answer : D. Ratio of H1:H2 blockade produced by the drug

The capacity of an antihistaminic to produce sedation depends on the following except: A. Relative affinity for central versus peripheral H1 receptors B. Ability to penetrate blood-brain barrier C. Individual susceptibility D. Ratio of H1:H2 blockade produced by the drug

Description : The capacity of an antihistaminic to produce sedation depends on the following except: A. Relative affinity for central versus peripheral H1 receptors B. Ability to penetrate blood-brain barrier C. Individual susceptibility D. Ratio of H1:H2 blockade produced by the drug

Last Answer : D. Ratio of H1:H2 blockade produced by the drug

The following is true of bupropion except: A. It inhibits dopamine reuptake along with inhibiting noradrenaline reuptake B. It produces sedation as a side effect C. It is being used as an aid for smoking cessation D. It is likely to produce seizures in overdose

Description : The following is true of bupropion except: A. It inhibits dopamine reuptake along with inhibiting noradrenaline reuptake B. It produces sedation as a side effect C. It is being used as an aid for smoking cessation D. It is likely to produce seizures in overdose

Last Answer : B. It produces sedation as a side effect

Transfusions of blood products can be associated with a number of complications including immediate and delayed hemolytic reactions; nonhemolytic reactions; infectious disease transmission; and complications of massive transfusions. Which of the following statements are true concerning complications of blood transfusions? a. Immediate hemolytic transfusion reactions are caused by major ABO blood group incompatibility b. Nonhemolytic transfusion reactions are usually due to RH incompatibility and are therefore more common in women of childbearing age c. The most common complication of massive blood transfusion is dilutional thrombocytopenia d. Routine impaired calcium supplementation is necessary during most massive transfusion episodes

Description : Transfusions of blood products can be associated with a number of complications including immediate and delayed hemolytic reactions; nonhemolytic reactions; infectious disease transmission; and ... d. Routine impaired calcium supplementation is necessary during most massive transfusion episodes

Last Answer : Answer: a, c Immediate hemolytic reactions are usually caused by blood group ABO incompatibility although they may be caused by antigens of other blood group systems ... when associated with massive transfusion during complex intraoperative procedures such as thoracoabdominal aneurysm resection

True statements about cerebral blood flow: a. it is controlled mainly by the autonomic nervous system b. cerebral arterioles constricts when the blood pressure is raised c. it is constant in the blood pressure range of 50 to 150 mm Hg systolic d. hypocapnia increases the cerebral blood flow

Description : True statements about cerebral blood flow: a. it is controlled mainly by the autonomic nervous system b. cerebral arterioles constricts when the blood pressure is raised c. it is constant in the blood pressure range of 50 to 150 mm Hg systolic d. hypocapnia increases the cerebral blood flow

Last Answer : it is constant in the blood pressure range of 50 to 150 mm Hg systolic

True statements about the cerebral blood flow include: a. it is constant for the blood pressure in the range between 50-150mmHg b. the blood pressure is affected more by the PaO2 than PaCO2 c. hypocapnia causes vasoconstriction d. cerebral arterioles constricts when the blood pressure raises

Description : True statements about the cerebral blood flow include: a. it is constant for the blood pressure in the range between 50-150mmHg b. the blood pressure is affected more by the PaO2 than PaCO2 c. hypocapnia causes vasoconstriction d. cerebral arterioles constricts when the blood pressure raises

Last Answer : it is constant for the blood pressure in the range between 50-150mmHg

True statements about the cerebral blood flow include: a. it is constant for the blood pressure in the range between 50-150mmHg b. hypocapnia causes vasoconstriction c. cerebral arterioles constricts when the blood pressure raises d. all above

Description : True statements about the cerebral blood flow include: a. it is constant for the blood pressure in the range between 50-150mmHg b. hypocapnia causes vasoconstriction c. cerebral arterioles constricts when the blood pressure raises d. all above

Last Answer : all above

Methylxanthine drugs such as aminophylline cause which one of the following? (a) Vasoconstriction in many vascular beds (b) Decrease in the amount of cAMP in mast cells (c) Bronchodilation (d) Activation of the enzyme phosphodiesterase (e) Sedation

Description : Methylxanthine drugs such as aminophylline cause which one of the following? (a) Vasoconstriction in many vascular beds (b) Decrease in the amount of cAMP in mast cells (c) Bronchodilation (d) Activation of the enzyme phosphodiesterase (e) Sedation

Last Answer : Ans: C

Select the anaesthetic that increases cardiac output and blood pressure: A. Halothane B. Fentanyl C. Ketamine D. Diazepam

Description : Select the anaesthetic that increases cardiac output and blood pressure: A. Halothane B. Fentanyl C. Ketamine D. Diazepam

Last Answer : C. Ketamine

Will you feel pain under IV (intravenous) sedation?

Description : Will you feel pain under IV (intravenous) sedation?

Last Answer : nope..you wont feel a thing. when i got my wisdom teeth out i was given general anesthesia and woke up after the whole thing was over.

The constellation of adverse effects associated with nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs include the following except: A. Sedation B. Gastric irritation C. Fluid retention D. Rashes

Description : The constellation of adverse effects associated with nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs include the following except: A. Sedation B. Gastric irritation C. Fluid retention D. Rashes

Last Answer : A. Sedation

The following is true of rivastigmine except: A. It is a relatively selective inhibitor of G1 isoform of acetylcholinesterase B. It has been found to retard disease progression in Alzheimer's disease C. It affords measurable improvement in Alzheimer's disease symptom score D. It enhances cerebral cholinergic transmission with only mild peripheral effect

Description : The following is true of rivastigmine except: A. It is a relatively selective inhibitor of G1 isoform of acetylcholinesterase B. It has been found to retard disease progression in ... 's disease symptom score D. It enhances cerebral cholinergic transmission with only mild peripheral effect

Last Answer : B. It has been found to retard disease progression in Alzheimer's disease

Which stage of anesthesia is termed surgical anesthesia? a) III With proper administration of the anesthetic, this stage may be maintained for hours. b) I Stage I is beginning anesthesia, as the patient breathes in the anesthetic mixture and experiences warmth, dizziness, and a feeling of detachment. c) II Stage II is the excitement stage, which may be characterized by struggling, singing, laughing, or crying. d) IV Stage IV is a stage of medullary depression and is reached when too much anesthesia has been administered.

Description : Which stage of anesthesia is termed surgical anesthesia? a) III With proper administration of the anesthetic, this stage may be maintained for hours. b) I Stage I is beginning anesthesia, as the ... IV is a stage of medullary depression and is reached when too much anesthesia has been administered.

Last Answer : a) III With proper administration of the anesthetic, this stage may be maintained for hours.

Determinants of cerebral blood flow include: A. Preoperative neurologic dysfunction. B. Arterial CO 2 tension. C. Arterial O 2 tension. D. Systemic arterial pressure. E. All of the above.

Description : Determinants of cerebral blood flow include: A. Preoperative neurologic dysfunction. B. Arterial CO 2 tension. C. Arterial O 2 tension. D. Systemic arterial pressure. E. All of the above.

Last Answer : Answer: BCD DISCUSSION: Determinants of cerebral blood flow include arterial CO 2 and O 2 tensions, systemic arterial pressure, and temperature. Other factors that may affect cerebral ... and intracranial pressure are head position, jugular venous obstruction, and positive end-expiratory pressure

With regard to cerebral autoregulation: a. cerebral blood flow is constant over a diastolic blood pressure of 60 to 140 mmHg b. autoregulation is lost during the acute phase of subarachnoid haemorrhage c. it is impaired in hypercapnia d. it is impaired in hypoxia

Description : With regard to cerebral autoregulation: a. cerebral blood flow is constant over a diastolic blood pressure of 60 to 140 mmHg b. autoregulation is lost during the acute phase of subarachnoid haemorrhage c. it is impaired in hypercapnia d. it is impaired in hypoxia

Last Answer : it is impaired in hypoxia

Hyperventilation: a. decreases cerebral blood flow b. increases ionized calcium concentration in the serum c. causes hypocapnia d. causes metabolic alkalosis

Description : Hyperventilation: a. decreases cerebral blood flow b. increases ionized calcium concentration in the serum c. causes hypocapnia d. causes metabolic alkalosis

Last Answer : causes hypocapnia

Increased intracranial pressure causes: a. sixth nerve palsy b. cupping of the optic disc c. absent venous pulsation d. increased cerebral blood flow

Description : Increased intracranial pressure causes: a. sixth nerve palsy b. cupping of the optic disc c. absent venous pulsation d. increased cerebral blood flow

Last Answer : absent venous pulsation

With regard to cerebral blood flow: a. is dependent on the intracranial pressure b. is increased by hypoxia c. is reduced by hypercapnia d. is increased by hypothermia

Description : With regard to cerebral blood flow: a. is dependent on the intracranial pressure b. is increased by hypoxia c. is reduced by hypercapnia d. is increased by hypothermia

Last Answer : is increased by hypoxia

The cerebral blood flow: a. is increased by hypercapnia b. is increased by hypoxia c. accounts for 15% of the total cardiac output d. all above

Description : The cerebral blood flow: a. is increased by hypercapnia b. is increased by hypoxia c. accounts for 15% of the total cardiac output d. all above

Last Answer : all above

Cerebral blood flow is increase in: a. chronic anaemia b. inhalation of 5% carbon dioxide c. seizures d. inhalation of hyperbaric oxygen

Description : Cerebral blood flow is increase in: a. chronic anaemia b. inhalation of 5% carbon dioxide c. seizures d. inhalation of hyperbaric oxygen

Last Answer : chronic anaemia

Which of the following is true of loss of gastrointestinal secretions? A. Gastric losses are best replaced with a balanced salt solution. B. Potassium supplementation is unnecessary in replacement of gastric secretions. C. Bicarbonate wasting is an unusual complication of a high-volume pancreatic fistula. D. Balanced salt solution is a reasonable replacement fluid for a small bowel fistula. E. A patient with persistent vomiting usually requires hyperchloremic replacement fluids.

Description : Which of the following is true of loss of gastrointestinal secretions? A. Gastric losses are best replaced with a balanced salt solution. B. Potassium supplementation is unnecessary in ... bowel fistula. E. A patient with persistent vomiting usually requires hyperchloremic replacement fluids.

Last Answer : Answer: DE DISCUSSION: Gastric secretions are relatively high in chloride and potassium. Other than an isolated pancreatic fistula, gastrointestinal tract losses below the pylorus ... Although potassium concentrations are low, copious losses require potassium supplementation to prevent hypokalemia