Which of the following is an adhesion glycoprotein? A. Fibronectin. B. Tenascin. C. Laminin. D. Hyaluronic acid. E. Collagen type IV.

Which of the following is an adhesion glycoprotein? A.  Fibronectin. B.  Tenascin. C.  Laminin. D.  Hyaluronic acid. E.  Collagen type IV.
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Answer: ABC  DISCUSSION: Cell adhesion glycoproteins such as fibronectin, vitronectin, laminin, and tenascin provide a “railroad track” to facilitate epithelial and mesenchymal cell migration over the wound matrix. Hyaluronic acid is a glycosaminoglycan, and collagen type IV is a protein that is a crucial component of basement membrane
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In contrast to adult wound healing with scar formation, which of the following are characteristic of scarless fetal skin repair? A. Matrix rich in hyaluronic acid. B. Increased inflammatory response. C. Increased production of TGF-b. D. No collagen deposition. E. Minimal angiogenesis.

Description : In contrast to adult wound healing with scar formation, which of the following are characteristic of scarless fetal skin repair? A. Matrix rich in hyaluronic acid. B. Increased inflammatory response. C. Increased production of TGF-b. D. No collagen deposition. E. Minimal angiogenesis.

Last Answer : Answer: AE DISCUSSION: The ability of a fetus to heal without scar formation depends on its gestational age at the time of injury and the size of the wound defect. In ... repair has possible clinical applications in the modulation of adult fibrotic diseases and abnormal scar-forming conditions

All the following statements about fibronectin are true except (A) It is glycoprotein (B) It is a triple helix (C) It is present in extra cellular matrix (D) It binds with integrin receptors of cell

Description : All the following statements about fibronectin are true except (A) It is glycoprotein (B) It is a triple helix (C) It is present in extra cellular matrix (D) It binds with integrin receptors of cell

Last Answer : Answer : A

Leukocyte activation and adhesion to vascular endothelial cells is a critical step in the inflammatory process. This process is regulated by which of the following molecules? a. The selectins b. The b5 integrins c. The immunoglobulin supergene family d. Nitric oxide e. IL-8

Description : Leukocyte activation and adhesion to vascular endothelial cells is a critical step in the inflammatory process. This process is regulated by which of the following molecules? a. The selectins b. The b5 integrins c. The immunoglobulin supergene family d. Nitric oxide e. IL-8

Last Answer : Answer: a, c, d, e The temporal events that initiate and propagate neutrophil recruitment and inflammation include endothelial cell activation and expression of endothelial-derived ... role in neutrophil recruitment and activation, and the continued propagation of the inflammatory response

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning ischemia reperfusion injury? a. During ischemia, ATP degradation results in increased plasma and intracellular levels of hypoxanthine and xanthene b. Oxygen free radicals such as the superoxide radical are involved in the expression of the proinflammatory phenotype of endothelial cells, macrophages and neutrophils c. The intracellular adhesion molecule-1 (ICAN-1) contributes to injury and disruption of the endothelial lining, with extensive capillary leak and resultant interstitial edema d. Animal models have demonstrated that passive immunization with antibodies to neutrophil adhesive complex lessen the ischemic/reperfusion microvascular injury

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning ischemia reperfusion injury? a. During ischemia, ATP degradation results in increased plasma and intracellular levels of ... immunization with antibodies to neutrophil adhesive complex lessen the ischemic/reperfusion microvascular injury

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d During the ischemia and hypoperfusion phase, degradation of ATP stores essential to maintain cell integrity and significant loss of diffusible ... either the neutrophil adhesive complex or the endothelial selectins dramatically lessens ischemia/reperfusion microvascular injury

Which of the following statements regarding endothelial cells in acute inflammation are true? a. Endothelial cells are characterized by phenotypic homogeneity b. Specific patterns of receptor expression regulate leukocyte adherence c. Endothelial cell nitric oxide generation regulates regional blood flow and leukocyte adhesion d. Endothelial cells may be capable of phagocytosis

Description : Which of the following statements regarding endothelial cells in acute inflammation are true? a. Endothelial cells are characterized by phenotypic homogeneity b. Specific patterns of receptor expression ... blood flow and leukocyte adhesion d. Endothelial cells may be capable of phagocytosis

Last Answer : Answer: b, c, d Endothelial cells are increasingly recognized to be phenotypically heterogeneous. Specific receptor molecules are expressed at various sites where they help to direct lymphocytes and ... rather, they possess the ability to direct and focus many aspects of an inflammatory event

Which of the following statements regarding IL-1 are correct? a. While IL-1 and TNFa share many biologic effects, IL-1 appears to be more potent b. IL-1 expression is in part autoregulated c. IL-1 inhibits prostaglandin production d. The ability of IL-1 to upregulate endothelial cell-neutrophil adhesion molecules is relatively limited

Description : Which of the following statements regarding IL-1 are correct? a. While IL-1 and TNFa share many biologic effects, IL-1 appears to be more potent b. IL-1 expression is in part ... production d. The ability of IL-1 to upregulate endothelial cell-neutrophil adhesion molecules is relatively limited

Last Answer : Answer: b IL-1 and TNFa share many biologic properties. In addition, each potentiates the effects of the other one when given concurrently. Overall, IL-1 alone probably has weaker effects than ... IL-1 provides a key step in the extravasation of leukocytes to sites of local inflammation and injury

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the remodeling phase of wound healing? a. Total collagen content increases steadily through this phase b. The normal adult ratio of collagen is approximately 4:1 of type I to type III collagen. c. Eventually a scar will achieve the strength of unwounded skin d. The proteoglycans are responsible for the ground substance of the extracellular matrix

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the remodeling phase of wound healing? a. Total collagen content increases steadily through this phase b. The normal adult ratio ... unwounded skin d. The proteoglycans are responsible for the ground substance of the extracellular matrix

Last Answer : Answer: b, d The transition from the proliferative phase to the remodeling phase of wound healing is defined by reaching collagen equilibrium. Collagen accumulation within the wound becomes maximal by ... in strength for six months or more, eventually reaching 70% of the strength of unwounded skin

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the proliferative phase of wound healing? a. The macrophage is the predominant cell type b. The pink or purple-red appearance of a wound is due to ingrowth and proliferation of endothelial cells c. Collagen, the dominant structural molecule of the wound matrix, contains two unique amino acids, hydroxyproline and hydroxylysine d. The predominant collagen type in a scar is type 3

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the proliferative phase of wound healing? a. The macrophage is the predominant cell type b. The pink or purple-red appearance of a wound ... amino acids, hydroxyproline and hydroxylysine d. The predominant collagen type in a scar is type 3

Last Answer : Answer: b, c The proliferative phase of wound healing begins with the formation of a provisional matrix of fibrin and fibronectin as part of the initial clot formation. Initially, the provisional ... The principal collagen type scar is type 1, with lesser amounts of type 3 collagen also present

Which of the following interfere with normal collagen formation or cross-linking? A. Beta-aminopropionitrile. B. Iron chelators. C. Vitamin C depletion. D. Proline analogs (e.g., cis-hydroxyproline). E. D-Penicillamine.

Description : Which of the following interfere with normal collagen formation or cross-linking? A. Beta-aminopropionitrile. B. Iron chelators. C. Vitamin C depletion. D. Proline analogs (e.g., cis-hydroxyproline). E. D-Penicillamine.

Last Answer : Answer: ABCDE DISCUSSION: Intramolecular and intermolecular cross-links are crucial for collagen structural stability. Formation of cross-links can be inhibited by two ... concentration, proline analogs prevent collagen formation with minimal effects on noncollagenase protein synthesis

Factors that decrease collagen synthesis include all of the following except: A. Protein depletion. B. Infection. C. Anemia. D. Advanced age. E. Hypoxia.

Description : Factors that decrease collagen synthesis include all of the following except: A. Protein depletion. B. Infection. C. Anemia. D. Advanced age. E. Hypoxia.

Last Answer : Answer: C DISCUSSION: Collagen synthesis, an integral part of wound healing, is affected by many local and systemic factors. Protein depletion impairs fibroplasia. Hypoproteinemia leads to diminution of ... more than any other factor, wound infection is associated with the risk of wound failure

The vitreous gel: a. contains 98% water b. is made up of 0.1% hyaluronic acid c. is acellular d. contains mainly type II and type III collagen

Description : The vitreous gel: a. contains 98% water b. is made up of 0.1% hyaluronic acid c. is acellular d. contains mainly type II and type III collagen

Last Answer : contains 98% water

Fibronectin has binding sites for all of the following except (A) Glycophorin (B) Collagen (C) Heparin (D) Integrin receptor

Description : Fibronectin has binding sites for all of the following except (A) Glycophorin (B) Collagen (C) Heparin (D) Integrin receptor

Last Answer : Answer : C

Which of the following statements regarding fibroblasts and their function in wound healing are true? a. IL-1 has both inhibitory and promotional effects on fibroblast growth b. TNFa stimulates fibroblast collagen synthesis c. IL-1 and TNFa have opposite effects on the healing of bone d. In human clinical trials, EGF (epithelial growth factor) has been demonstrated to accelerate epidermal regeneration in cutaneous wounds

Description : Which of the following statements regarding fibroblasts and their function in wound healing are true? a. IL-1 has both inhibitory and promotional effects on fibroblast growth b. TNFa ... EGF (epithelial growth factor) has been demonstrated to accelerate epidermal regeneration in cutaneous wounds

Last Answer : Answer: a, d IL-1 appears to be important in the process of normal wound repair. IL-1 has been shown to stimulate skin fibroblast and keratinocyte growth, as well as ... that recombinant EGF enhances keratinocyte migration. EGF is also a potent chemoattractant for granulation tissue fibroblasts

Which of the following statements regarding transforming growth factor b (TGF-b) are true? a. TGF-b expression is autoregulated b. TGF-b enhances collagen synthesis c. TGF-b inhibits extracellular matrix production d. TGF-b may inhibit or promote cellular proliferation

Description : Which of the following statements regarding transforming growth factor b (TGF-b) are true? a. TGF-b expression is autoregulated b. TGF-b enhances collagen synthesis c. TGF-b inhibits extracellular matrix production d. TGF-b may inhibit or promote cellular proliferation

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, d TGF-b appears to be one of the key cytokines in control of tissue repair. TGF-b is strongly chemotactic for neutrophils, T cells, monocytes, and fibroblasts. ... TGF-b stimulates the proliferation of densely plated human marrow fibroblasts, but is inhibitory at high concentrations

Which of the following substances, not normally present in the circulation, trigger the initiating events in the hemostatic process? a. Thrombin b. Platelet factor 3 c. Tissue factor d. Collagen

Description : Which of the following substances, not normally present in the circulation, trigger the initiating events in the hemostatic process? a. Thrombin b. Platelet factor 3 c. Tissue factor d. Collagen

Last Answer : Answer: c, d The initiating agents for hemostasis involve two substances that are not normally present in the circulation-collagen and tissue factor. Tissue factor is released from ... phospholipid surface to form the so-called prothrombinase complex which catalyzes the formation of thrombin

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning pharmacologic agents used to accelerate wound healing? a. A number of these agents are now currently approved for use in this country b. PDGF (platelet-derived growth factor) promotes fibroblast proliferation, chemotaxis, and collagenase synthesis c. PDGF has been demonstrated in a number of clinical trials to promote healing in chronic wounds d. Growth hormone functions by promoting fibroblast proliferation and collagen synthesis

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning pharmacologic agents used to accelerate wound healing? a. A number of these agents are now currently approved for use in ... healing in chronic wounds d. Growth hormone functions by promoting fibroblast proliferation and collagen synthesis

Last Answer : Answer: b, c Currently there are no approved clinical agents that accelerate normal healing. Although a number of clinical trials are in progress, no agents are currently ... hormone administration significantly accelerates donor site healing, presumably due to its effects in minimizing catabolism

Which of the following tissues contain significant collagen useful for placing sutures to allow the prolonged tension necessary to maintain tissue approximation? a. Dermis b. Intestinal submucosa c. Muscular fascia d. Blood vessel wall

Description : Which of the following tissues contain significant collagen useful for placing sutures to allow the prolonged tension necessary to maintain tissue approximation? a. Dermis b. Intestinal submucosa c. Muscular fascia d. Blood vessel wall

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d It takes at least three weeks for collagen to undergo sufficient remodeling and cross linking to attain moderate strength. Since most skin sutures are removed at one to ... , Scarpa's fascia, and blood vessel wall represent a partial list of tissues with high collagen content

Which of the following is/are true? A. Because of its thickness, the tensile strength of a healing wound on the eyelid is much less than one on the thick skin of the back. B. By 2 days, the experimental burst strength of skin is minimal since collagen has been formed in the wound but has not yet cross-linked. C. Wound strength reaches a plateau by 3 weeks. D. Wounds rarely, if ever, regain the strength of intact tissues.

Description : Which of the following is/are true? A. Because of its thickness, the tensile strength of a healing wound on the eyelid is much less than one on the thick skin of the back. B. By 2 days, ... strength reaches a plateau by 3 weeks. D. Wounds rarely, if ever, regain the strength of intact tissues.

Last Answer : Answer: BD DISCUSSION: Tensile strength measures load per cross-section area at rupture, whereas burst strength measures load required to break a wound, regardless of dimension. Therefore, skin wounds have ... a slower rate for more than a year. Wounds do not regain the strength of normal tissue

Which of the following is/are true concerning wound fibroblasts? A. Fibroblasts synthesize and secrete collagen molecules. B. Wound fibroblasts are derived from blood-borne precursor cells. C. Fibroblasts migrate to a wound along fibrin strands, which are used as a scaffold. D. Large amounts of fibrin or blood clot can act as a physical barrier to fibroblast penetration, which delays normal wound healing.

Description : Which of the following is/are true concerning wound fibroblasts? A. Fibroblasts synthesize and secrete collagen molecules. B. Wound fibroblasts are derived from blood-borne precursor cells. C. ... clot can act as a physical barrier to fibroblast penetration, which delays normal wound healing.

Last Answer : Answer: ACD DISCUSSION: Fibroblasts appear in the wound on about the third day of healing and begin to synthesize and secrete collagen molecules. Wound fibroblasts arrive from cells surrounding ... enzymes, and large amounts of fibrin and blood clot prevent fibroblasts from entering the wound

Hemostasis and the cessation of bleeding require which of the following processes? A. Adherence of platelets to exposed subendothelial glycoproteins and collagen with subsequent aggregation of platelets and formation of a hemostatic plug. B. Interaction of tissue factor with factor VII circulating in the plasma. C. The production of thrombin via the coagulation cascade with conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin. D. Cross-linking of fibrin by factor XIII.

Description : Hemostasis and the cessation of bleeding require which of the following processes? A. Adherence of platelets to exposed subendothelial glycoproteins and collagen with subsequent aggregation of platelets and ... conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin. D. Cross-linking of fibrin by factor XIII.

Last Answer : Answer: ABCD DISCUSSION: Hemostasis requires the interaction of platelets with the exposed subendothelial structures at the site of injury followed by aggregation of more platelets in that area. ... form a stable clot that incorporates the platelet plug and fibrin thrombus into a stable clot

Altering the amino acid profile in total parenteral nutrition solutions can be of benefit in certain conditions. Which of the following conditions are associated with a benefit by supplementation with the amino acid type listed? a. Acute renal failure and essential amino acids b. Hepatic failure and aromatic amino acids c. Short gut syndrome and glutamine d. Chronic renal failure and essential amino acids

Description : Altering the amino acid profile in total parenteral nutrition solutions can be of benefit in certain conditions. Which of the following conditions are associated with a benefit by supplementation with the ... c. Short gut syndrome and glutamine d. Chronic renal failure and essential amino acids

Last Answer : Answer: a, c In a number of conditions, altering the amino acid profile of the total parenteral nutrition solution can be of benefit. TPN with amino acids of high biologic value ... Glutamine-enriched TPN partially attenuates villous atrophy and may be useful in treatment of short gut syndrome

Which of the following statements about respiratory acidosis are true? A. Compensation occurs by a shift of chloride out of the red blood cells. B. Renal compensation occurs rapidly. C. Retention of bicarbonate and increased ammonia formation are normal compensatory mechanisms. D. Narcotic administration is an unusual cause of respiratory acidosis. E. The ratio of bicarbonate to carbonic acid is less than 20:1.

Description : Which of the following statements about respiratory acidosis are true? A. Compensation occurs by a shift of chloride out of the red blood cells. B. Renal compensation occurs rapidly. C. Retention of ... of respiratory acidosis. E. The ratio of bicarbonate to carbonic acid is less than 20:1.

Last Answer : Answer: CE DISCUSSION: Renal compensation for acute hypoventilation is relatively slow. Depression of the respiratory center by morphine can lead to respiratory acidosis. Renal retention of bicarbonate, ... into red cells combine to increase the ratio of bicarbonate to carbonic acid to 20:1

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the role of glutamine in total parenteral nutrition? a. Glutamine is an essential amino acid b. Glutamine appears to be of primary benefit in critical illness c. Glutamine is included in most standard TPN solutions d. Glutamine is the primary energy source for intestinal mucosal cells of the small bowel and colon

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the role of glutamine in total parenteral nutrition? a. Glutamine is an essential amino acid b. Glutamine appears to be of primary ... . Glutamine is the primary energy source for intestinal mucosal cells of the small bowel and colon

Last Answer : Answer: b Glutamine is the most studied gut-specific nutrient. Glutamine has been classified as a nonessential or nutritionally dispensable amino acid since glutamine can be synthesized in adequate ... . In contrast to glutamine, short chain fatty acids are primary energy source for colonocytes

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning protein/amino acid metabolism in man? a. The major source of amino acids is breakdown of circulating proteins b. The recommended daily allowance for protein may triple in critically ill patients c. Urinary nitrogen losses will approach 0 in the face of protein starvation d. Negative nitrogen balance refers to a decrease in nitrogen taken into the body versus the amount of nitrogen lost

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning protein/amino acid metabolism in man? a. The major source of amino acids is breakdown of circulating proteins b. The recommended daily ... balance refers to a decrease in nitrogen taken into the body versus the amount of nitrogen lost

Last Answer : Answer: b, d About 15% of the total body weight is made up of proteins, about half of which are intracellular and half extracellular. In man and other animals, dietary protein is the source of ... is exceeded by the amount of nitrogen lost in the urine, stool, skin, wounds, and fistula drainage

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning translation of the mRNA message to protein synthesis? a. An adaptor molecule, tRNA, recognizes specific nucleic acid bases and unites them with specific amino acids b. Covalent attachment of tRNA to amino acids is energy dependent c. The formation of a peptide bond between the growing peptide chain and the free amino acid occurs in the free cytoplasm d. Complete protein synthesis takes hours

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning translation of the mRNA message to protein synthesis? a. An adaptor molecule, tRNA, recognizes specific nucleic acid bases and unites them ... and the free amino acid occurs in the free cytoplasm d. Complete protein synthesis takes hours

Last Answer : Answer: a, b The synthesis of protein involves conversion from a four-letter nucleotide language to one of 20 chemically distinct amino acids. This process is referred to as ... translation and be moving down the mRNA molecules simultaneously, thus increasing the rate of protein synthesis

A modified amino acid solution with increased equimolar branched-chain amino acids and decreased aromatic amino acids has been proposed for patients with hepatic insufficiency. Which of the following statements is/are true? A. This formulation is proposed for the use of patients with fulminant hepatitis. B. Nitrogen balance is achieved in such patients with amounts of 40 gm. of amino acids per 24 hours. C. The use of 80 to 100 gm. of such solutions is associated with hepatic encephalopathy. D. In some studies of surgical patients, improvements in mortality have been reported.

Description : A modified amino acid solution with increased equimolar branched-chain amino acids and decreased aromatic amino acids has been proposed for patients with hepatic insufficiency. Which of the following ... D. In some studies of surgical patients, improvements in mortality have been reported.

Last Answer : Answer: D DISCUSSION: The use of modified amino acid solutions is based on the false neurotransmitter hypothesis of the cause of hepatic coma. According to this hypothesis, the imbalance ... in a group of patients with cirrhosis, decreasing morbidity and showing a trend toward decreased mortality

Essential amino acids have been advocated as standard therapy for renal failure. Which of the following statements are true? A. Increased survival from acute renal failure has been reported with both essential and nonessential amino acid therapy of patients in renal failure. B. Essential amino acids retard the rise of blood urea nitrogen (BUN) secondary to decreased urea appearance. C. Essential amino acids and hypertonic dextrose are a convenient form of therapy for hyperkalemia. D. Essential amino acids decrease BUN and creatinine to the same degree as solutions containing excessive nonessential amino acids.

Description : Essential amino acids have been advocated as standard therapy for renal failure. Which of the following statements are true? A. Increased survival from acute renal failure has been reported ... BUN and creatinine to the same degree as solutions containing excessive nonessential amino acids.

Last Answer : Answer: BC DISCUSSION: Essential amino acids and hypertonic dextrose, as opposed to hypertonic dextrose alone, was reported by Abel and co-workers to be associated with a decreased mortality rate ... renal failure have not been carried out in sufficient numbers to yield answers to this question

Essential fatty acid deficiency may complicate total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following statements are true? A. Essential fatty acid deficiency may be prevented by the administration of 1% to 2% of total calories as fat emulsion. B. Fat-free parenteral nutrition results in the appearance of plasma abnormalities, indicating essential fatty acid deficiency, within 7 to 10 days of initiation. C. An abnormal plasma eicosatrienoic-arachidonic acid ratio is always associated with essential fatty acid deficiency. D. Following initiation of fat-free parenteral nutrition, dry, scaly skin associated with a maculopapular rash indicates essential fatty acid deficiency.

Description : Essential fatty acid deficiency may complicate total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following statements are true? A. Essential fatty acid deficiency may be prevented by the ... , dry, scaly skin associated with a maculopapular rash indicates essential fatty acid deficiency.

Last Answer : Answer: BD DISCUSSION: Biochemical evidence of essential fatty acid deficiency may occur as early as 7 to 10 days following initiation of fat-free parenteral nutrition. The decrease in ... essential to the diagnosis of essential fatty acid deficiency, but this plasma abnormality is often present

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the pulmonary response to shock? a. The acute pulmonary vascular response to shock differs markedly from that of systemic vasculature b. The pulmonary edema of ARDS occurs in the face of elevated left heart pressures c. The initial physiologic changes of ARDS involve the capillary endothelial cells and the type I pneumocyte d. Mechanisms proposed in the pathogenesis of ARDS include injury from mediators of inflammation elsewhere and from activated cellular elements e. A decrease in lung compliance may result from the loss of type I pneumocytes

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the pulmonary response to shock? a. The acute pulmonary vascular response to shock differs markedly from that of systemic vasculature b. The ... elements e. A decrease in lung compliance may result from the loss of type I pneumocytes

Last Answer : Answer: c, d, e Contributing pathophysiologic processes to the pulmonary manifestations of shock include the pulmonary component of the cardiovascular response, disruption of the normal ... injury from mediators of inflammation elaborated elsewhere, and from activated cellular blood elements

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the antibody response to an invading antigen? a. All antibodies are composed of one type of heavy and one type of light protein chain b. The carboxyl terminus of the heavy chain is the antigen binding site c. Antibody of the immunoglobulin G class is the initial antibody produced in response to an antigenic stimulus d. Immunoglobulins A, D, and E play an active role in the circulating humoral response

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the antibody response to an invading antigen? a. All antibodies are composed of one type of heavy and one type of light protein chain b. ... stimulus d. Immunoglobulins A, D, and E play an active role in the circulating humoral response

Last Answer : Answer: a Humoral defenses consist of antibody (immunoglobulin; Ig) and complement. All Ig classes (IgM, IgG, IgA, IgE, IgD) and IgG subclasses are composed of one type (M, G, A, E, D ... exist in smaller amounts in the circulation and do not appear to play a major role as host defense components

Tetracycline hydrochloride conditioning of root surfaces in periodontal surgery is to: A. Sterilise the root surface B. May enhance binding of fibronectin and fibroblast C. Aids in re-mineralising the root surface D. Assist the biding of lamina dura E. Prevents post operative infections

Description : Tetracycline hydrochloride conditioning of root surfaces in periodontal surgery is to: A. Sterilise the root surface B. May enhance binding of fibronectin and fibroblast C. Aids in re-mineralising the root surface D. Assist the biding of lamina dura E. Prevents post operative infections

Last Answer : B. May enhance binding of fibronectin and fibroblast

The following statement(s) is/are true concerning viral infections. a. The most common post-transplantation viral infections are caused by herpes viruses and include CMV and herpes simplex virus b. Viral infections occur at equal frequency anytime during the post-transplantation period c. CMV infection in the post-transplant patient is most likely a pulmonary process d. Herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection primarily presents with a mononucleosis-type syndrome with fever, lethargy, and cough

Description : The following statement(s) is/are true concerning viral infections. a. The most common post-transplantation viral infections are caused by herpes viruses and include CMV and herpes simplex virus ... HSV) infection primarily presents with a mononucleosis-type syndrome with fever, lethargy, and cough

Last Answer : Answer: a, c, Solid organ transplant patients are prone to develop viral infection by virtue of exogenous immunosuppression. The most common post-transplantation viral infections are those ... transplant patient or as painful herpes zoster in patients who have previously developed chicken pox

Cytokines are low-molecular-weight polypeptides exerting a wide variety of biologic effects at both local and systemic levels. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the production and actions of cytokines? a. Cytokines are produced solely by macrophages b. Cytokines act only on other cells within the same local environment c. Cytokines may have both protective and deleterious effects on the host d. Each specific cytokine is produced by a single cell type

Description : Cytokines are low-molecular-weight polypeptides exerting a wide variety of biologic effects at both local and systemic levels. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the production and ... effects on the host d. Each specific cytokine is produced by a single cell type

Last Answer : Answer: c Macrophages, endothelial cells, lymphocytes, and other cells secrete a large number of different compounds, termed cytokines, that are most probably evolved for the purpose of ... host defenses, exerting both salutatory and deleterious effects on the host, has become increasingly evident

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about the role of macrophages in the wound healing process? a. Macrophages are the dominant cell type during the inflammatory phase of wound healing b. Macrophages are not essential for wound healing c. The macrophage role in wound healing is limited to phagocytosis d. Macrophages are a source of a number of humoral factors essential for wound healing

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about the role of macrophages in the wound healing process? a. Macrophages are the dominant cell type during the inflammatory phase of wound ... phagocytosis d. Macrophages are a source of a number of humoral factors essential for wound healing

Last Answer : Answer: a, d Within three or four days after injury, macrophages become the dominant cell type in the inflammatory phase of wound healing. The role of macrophages is not limited only ... . These studies confirm the dominant role of the macrophage and the inflammatory phase of wound healing

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct concerning cell junctions? a. The major occluding junction is the tight junction or zonula occludens b. Tight junctions are usually located near the basal pole of the cell c. Desmosomes are button-like points of attachment which serve to weld together adjacent cells d. Gap junctions are a type of cell junction specialized for cell communication

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct concerning cell junctions? a. The major occluding junction is the tight junction or zonula occludens b. Tight junctions are usually located near ... adjacent cells d. Gap junctions are a type of cell junction specialized for cell communication

Last Answer : Answer: a, c, d Cell junctions are classified as occluding, anchoring, and communicating. The major occluding junction is the tight junction or zonula occludens which connects ... gap junction which is specialized for communication. This junction mediates both electrical and chemical coupling

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning carrier proteins? a. Carrier proteins are distinguished by three types of mechanisms: carrier-type, channel-type, and conduction-type b. Conformational changes in the membrane protein occur between the conducting and the nonconducting states c. A channel-type carrier protein has two states—closed and open d. Carrier-type transport proteins are equally accessible from either side of the membrane

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning carrier proteins? a. Carrier proteins are distinguished by three types of mechanisms: carrier-type, channel-type, and conduction-type b. ... and open d. Carrier-type transport proteins are equally accessible from either side of the membrane

Last Answer : Answer: b, c Most transport proteins appear to function as carriers, rather than channels. Important distinctions can be made between types of carrier proteins on the basis of transport kinetics. ... a carrier mechanism, the binding site is available only one side of the membrane at any instant

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the various types of shock? a. Traumatic shock is more commonly associated with subsequent organ injury and multiorgan failure syndrome than hemorrhagic shock b. Cardiogenic shock can be of either an intrinsic or compressive nature c. Hypodynamic septic shock is associated with a decreased mortality risk when compared with hyperdynamic septic shock d. Hypoadrenal shock usually responds quickly to resuscitation e. Neurogenic shock occurs with the absence of sympathetic activity

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the various types of shock? a. Traumatic shock is more commonly associated with subsequent organ injury and multiorgan failure ... responds quickly to resuscitation e. Neurogenic shock occurs with the absence of sympathetic activity

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, d, e Classification schemes of shock based on cause have been developed for the seemingly dissimilar processes leading to circulatory collapse and the shock state. ... and pressor agents. The response to exogenous corticosteroids is usually dramatic and potentially life-saving

The following statement(s) is/are true concerning gram-negative bacterial sepsis. a. Mortality due to this condition has almost been eliminated due to therapeutic intervention with antibiotics, aggressive hemodynamic monitoring and fluid resuscitation b. Recent series have noted a decrease in the incidence of this condition c. Predisposing factors include old age, malnutrition, and immunosuppression d. Pseudomonas bacteremia is the most common cause of gram-negative sepsis e. Polymicrobial sepsis is generally considered a more serious problem than sepsis due to a single organism

Description : The following statement(s) is/are true concerning gram-negative bacterial sepsis. a. Mortality due to this condition has almost been eliminated due to therapeutic intervention with antibiotics, aggressive ... sepsis is generally considered a more serious problem than sepsis due to a single organism

Last Answer : Answer: c, e Gram-negative bacterial sepsis is a serious disease process that produces substantial morbidity and mortality in both normal and immunocompromised patients (10% to 20% and ... and most investigators agree that polymicrobial sepsis is more lethal than infection with a single organism

A 67-year-old male presents with an intraabdominal abscess secondary to perforated sigmoid diverticulitis. The following statement(s) is/are true concerning his intraabdominal abscess. a. Culture will likely reveal a solitary organism b. Both aerobic and anaerobic islets are encountered in 50% of specimens c. The most common aerobic islet will be likely E. coli and other gram-negative enteric bacilli d. The most common anaerobic islet will be a Bacteroides species

Description : A 67-year-old male presents with an intraabdominal abscess secondary to perforated sigmoid diverticulitis. The following statement(s) is/are true concerning his intraabdominal abscess. a. Culture will ... gram-negative enteric bacilli d. The most common anaerobic islet will be a Bacteroides species

Last Answer : Answer: b, c, d Typically an intraabdominal infection results in perforation of a hollow viscus and the ensuing contamination of a normally sterile peritoneal cavity. The normal ... Bacteroides species (especially B. fragilis, Clostridium), and anaerobic cocci are most consistently isolated

The treatment of the following patient should include: a. Initial empiric therapy directed against both aerobes and anaerobes b. The addition of anti-fungal therapy in an elderly patient c. A minimum of two weeks of antibiotic therapy is indicated d. The addition of appropriate antibiotic therapy has made surgical therapy unnecessary in such cases e. Either a single agent or combination therapy is appropriate if the agents selected possess activity against both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria

Description : The treatment of the following patient should include: a. Initial empiric therapy directed against both aerobes and anaerobes b. The addition of anti-fungal therapy in an elderly patient ... therapy is appropriate if the agents selected possess activity against both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria

Last Answer : Answer: a, e The primary treatment for a perforated viscus is surgical, however antimicrobial therapy is an extremely important adjunct. Empiric antibiotic therapy for secondary ... whereas longer periods are indicated for immunosuppressed patients and with patients with extensive contamination

New treatment modalities designed to modulate host defense mechanisms that have been demonstrated conclusively to be of benefit include: a. Gut decontamination b. Anti-LPS antibody c. Anti-TNF antibody d. Thymopentin e. None of the above

Description : New treatment modalities designed to modulate host defense mechanisms that have been demonstrated conclusively to be of benefit include: a. Gut decontamination b. Anti-LPS antibody c. Anti-TNF antibody d. Thymopentin e. None of the above

Last Answer : Answer: e Selective gut decontamination involves the use of orally administered antibiotics that achieve a high intraluminal level directed against gram-negative aerobes and yeast, leaving ... but conclusive evidence that concurrent reduction of infection-related mortality occurs is not available

The following statement(s) is/are true concerning necrotizing fascitis. a. Mortality rates as high as 40% can be expected b. The infection involves only the superficial fascia, sparing the deep muscular fascia c. An impaired immune system is a common factor predisposing to this condition d. The infection is usually polymicrobial e. Necrotizing fascitis is most likely to develop in the face of impaired fascial blood supply

Description : The following statement(s) is/are true concerning necrotizing fascitis. a. Mortality rates as high as 40% can be expected b. The infection involves only the superficial fascia, sparing the deep ... e. Necrotizing fascitis is most likely to develop in the face of impaired fascial blood supply

Last Answer : Answer: a, c, d, e Necrotizing fascitis is an uncommon infection of the deep and superficial fascia that is associated with mortality as high as 40% in many series. ... fulminant and is frequently associated with cellulitis, myositis, fascitis, and bacteremia with attendant high mortality

A diabetic develops a severe perineal infection with skin necrosis, subcutaneous crepitance, and drainage of a thin, watery, grayish and foul-smelling fluid. Management should consist of: a. Gram stain of the fluid, which will likely demonstrate multiple bacteria including predominantly gram-positive rods b. A CT scan is indicated in a stable patient to define the extent of the disease c. Broad spectrum antibiotics followed with prompt extensive debridement is indicated d. A safe guideline is to resect infected necrotic tissue so that a several centimeter margin of grossly normal, healthy tissue can be achieved e. A colostomy is of little benefit in this situation

Description : A diabetic develops a severe perineal infection with skin necrosis, subcutaneous crepitance, and drainage of a thin, watery, grayish and foul-smelling fluid. Management should consist of: a. Gram stain ... normal, healthy tissue can be achieved e. A colostomy is of little benefit in this situation

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d The presence of severe perineal infection (referred to as Fournier gangrene when this process involves the perineum and scrotum in males) is associated with a ... often provides improved wound care and patient management, although it is not invariably a positive outcome

Answer: a, b, c, d Free oxygen radicals are chemical species that are intermediates in the normal process of cellular respiration. Oxidants that are free radicals have been implicated as initiators of reactions which lead to a variety of cellular injuries. Oxidants are derived from several sources, notably phagocytes. Among the effects of oxygen free radicals are membrane lipid peroxidation, DNA strand breaks, cytoskeletal disassembly and inhibition of glucose metabolism leading to decreased cellular ATP concentrations. (Figure 6-16) 187 Which of the following acute-phase protein levels are increased in human plasma following acute inflammation? a. C-reactive protein b. Serum amyloid c. a -Proteinase inhibitor d. Fibrinogen e. Albumin

Description : Answer: a, b, c, d Free oxygen radicals are chemical species that are intermediates in the normal process of cellular respiration. Oxidants that are free radicals have been implicated as initiators of ... a. C-reactive protein b. Serum amyloid c. a -Proteinase inhibitor d. Fibrinogen e. Albumin

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d The acute-phase response is a series of homeostatic responses of the organism to tissue injury in infection and inflammation. After an inflammatory stimulus occurs, a number ... 30% to 50% of the level before injury. The reason for the decrease in production is poorly understood

Platelets have a wide array of functions in inflammation. Which of the following are among these? a. Synthesis and release of vasoactive eicosanoids b. Release of chemotactic factors c. Adherence to and coating of bacterial and tumor cells d. Increase of vascular permeability e. Phagocytosis of bacteria

Description : Platelets have a wide array of functions in inflammation. Which of the following are among these? a. Synthesis and release of vasoactive eicosanoids b. Release of chemotactic factors c. ... coating of bacterial and tumor cells d. Increase of vascular permeability e. Phagocytosis of bacteria

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d Platelets are anucleated cells derived from megakaryocytes in the bone marrow. Their central role in hemostasis is well known. Platelets possess a wide ... primitive precursor inflammatory cell. Platelets serve primarily as an amplifier or modulator of the inflammatory response

Which of the following belong to the family of C-X-C chemokines? a. IL-8 b. IL-10 c. Growth Related Oncogene-a d. Leukotreine B4 e. b Thromboglobulin

Description : Which of the following belong to the family of C-X-C chemokines? a. IL-8 b. IL-10 c. Growth Related Oncogene-a d. Leukotreine B4 e. b Thromboglobulin

Last Answer : Answer: a, c, e A particularly important group of novel chemotactic cytokines has been elucidated over the last decade. Twelve are known and are listed below. C-X-C ... in vivo cytokine networks involving these molecules which regulate chemotaxis, and other fundamental aspects of inflammation

Which of the following statements regarding TNFa are true? a. TNFa has a marked procoagulant effect b. Passive immunization of patients with neutralizing antibodies to TNFa improves survival from multi-organ system failure c. TNFa upregulates E-selectin expression d. The most potent known stimulus for TNFa production and release is IL-1

Description : Which of the following statements regarding TNFa are true? a. TNFa has a marked procoagulant effect b. Passive immunization of patients with neutralizing antibodies to TNFa improves survival from multi-organ ... expression d. The most potent known stimulus for TNFa production and release is IL-1

Last Answer : Answer: a, c TNFa has a marked procoagulant effect on endothelial cells, precipitating intravascular thrombosis. TNFa causes endothelial cells to release procoagulant activity (tissue factor), ... to produce TNFa, however the most potent stimulus for TNFa production and release is endotoxin

Neutrophil chemotaxis is a fundamental aspect of inflammatory injury in conditions such as the Adult Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS). Neutrophil chemotaxis is directly attributable to which of the following molecules? a. C5a b. TNFa c. LPS d. IL-1 e. ENA-78 (Epithelial Neutrophil Activating Protein)

Description : Neutrophil chemotaxis is a fundamental aspect of inflammatory injury in conditions such as the Adult Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS). Neutrophil chemotaxis is directly attributable to which of the following molecules? ... TNFa c. LPS d. IL-1 e. ENA-78 (Epithelial Neutrophil Activating Protein)

Last Answer : Answer: a, e There is a large collection of peptide, polypeptide and lipid mediators which have chemotactic properties. Although TNF a, IL-1 and LPS were initially reported to have direct ... are several complement-derived peptides. Perhaps, the most potent of these is the short-lived C5a peptide

A 65-year old patient has colon carcinoma metastatic to the liver and lungs. He has had a weight loss of 10 kg. Cytokine-dependent tumor cachexia is attributable to which of the following? a. Increased glucose uptake and increased glycogen breakdown occur in this circumstance. b. Suppressed activity of lipoprotein lipase results from TNFa c. TNFa stimulates lipolysis d. The differentiation process of pre-adipocytes is impaired e. Partial reversal of differentiated adipocytes to pre-adipocyte morphology and gene expression occurs

Description : A 65-year old patient has colon carcinoma metastatic to the liver and lungs. He has had a weight loss of 10 kg. Cytokine-dependent tumor cachexia is attributable to which of the ... is impaired e. Partial reversal of differentiated adipocytes to pre-adipocyte morphology and gene expression occurs

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d, e Tumor cachexia appears to be mediated by TNFa. Lipopolysaccharide (LPS), as well as other cytokines, activate a variety of inflammatory cells, most ... chronic syndromes of anorexia, weight loss, and cachexia that are associated with both chronic infection and malignancy

Cytokines with clearly defined actions in acute inflammation and early tissue injury include which of the following? a. Cysteine-X-Cysteine (C-X-C) chemokines b. Tumor Necrosis Factor (TNFa) c. Transforming Growth Factor-b (TGF-b) d. Interleukin-6 (IL-6) e. Platelet Derived Growth Factor (PDGF)

Description : Cytokines with clearly defined actions in acute inflammation and early tissue injury include which of the following? a. Cysteine-X-Cysteine (C-X-C) chemokines b. Tumor Necrosis Factor (TNFa) c. Transforming Growth Factor-b (TGF-b) d. Interleukin-6 (IL-6) e. Platelet Derived Growth Factor (PDGF)

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d, e Polypeptide mediators, such as TNFa and IL-1, are considered early response cytokines and are actively involved in the initiation of the ... of tissue repair. Thus, coagulation and platelet activation provide the initial foundation for subsequent cellular recruitment