Which of the following statements regarding the transmission of infectious agents through blood transfusions is/are true? A. The transmission rates for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) have been decreasing progressively since the early 1980s. B. The transmission rates of hepatitis have been decreasing steadily since the 1980s. C. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) is the infectious agent most commonly transmitted in blood. D. Severely immunocompromised patients (such as patients undergoing transplantation) should receive specially screened blood products.

Which of the following statements regarding the transmission of infectious agents through blood transfusions is/are true? A.  The transmission rates for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) have been decreasing progressively since the early 1980s. B.  The transmission rates of hepatitis have been decreasing steadily since the 1980s. C.  Cytomegalovirus (CMV) is the infectious agent most commonly transmitted in blood. D.  Severely immunocompromised patients (such as patients undergoing transplantation) should receive specially screened blood products.
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Answer: ABCD  DISCUSSION: The incidence of both HIV and hepatitis transmitted via blood transfusions has been steadily decreasing since the 1980s. This is related to improved methods for detection and increased awareness of surrogate markers of disease. The currently available techniques for the detection of HIV are highly effective, provided the donor is not in the “window” before the formation of specific antibody. The surrogate markers for hepatitis C, as well as the specific assays for the organism, are now sufficiently refined to allow the detection of a large percentage of hepatitis C infection in donated blood. Screening for hepatitis B surface antigen has effectively eliminated the transmission of hepatitis B through blood products in most cases. CMV is the most commonly transmitted infectious agent in blood. Since a large percentage of the population carry the virus, routine screening is not performed for this organism; however, severely compromised patients such as those undergoing transplantation should receive CMV-negative blood products
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Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning pharmacologic agents used in the treatment of shock? a. The primary difference between dopamine and dobutamine is the absence of significant a adrenergic activity b. The renal and mesenteric vasoconstrictive effects of norepinephrine complicate and sometimes restrict its use c. The apparent paradoxical use of vasodilators, such as nitroprusside, in shock is indicated as a means to augment cardiac function d. Isoproterenol with its potent b-adrenergic effect, is a particularly useful agent in the treatment of all forms of shock

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Which of the following statements about total body water composition are correct? A. Females and obese persons have an increased percentage of body water. B. Increased muscle mass is associated with decreased total body water. C. Newborn infants have the greatest proportion of total body water. D. Total body water decreases steadily with age. E. Any person's percentage of body water is subject to wide physiologic variation.

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Last Answer : Answer: BC DISCUSSION: Essential amino acids and hypertonic dextrose, as opposed to hypertonic dextrose alone, was reported by Abel and co-workers to be associated with a decreased mortality rate ... renal failure have not been carried out in sufficient numbers to yield answers to this question

Diagnostic DNA probes have been developed for A- Mycobacterium tuberculosis B- Hepatitis B virus C- Human immunodeficiency virus D- all of the above

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Last Answer : - all of the above

CMV - immunocompromised host?

Description : CMV - immunocompromised host?

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Which of the following statements regarding cytokines is incorrect? A. Cytokines act directly on target cells and may potentiate the actions of one another. B. Interleukin 1 (IL-1) is a major proinflammatory mediator with multiple effects, including regulation of skeletal muscle proteolysis in patients with sepsis or significant injury. C. Platelet-activating factor (PAF) is a major cytokine that results in platelet aggregation, bronchoconstriction, and increased vascular permeability. D. Tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-a), despite its short plasma half-life, appears to be a principal mediator in the evolution of sepsis and the multiple organ dysfunction syndrome because of its multiple actions and the secondary cascades that it stimulates.

Description : Which of the following statements regarding cytokines is incorrect? A. Cytokines act directly on target cells and may potentiate the actions of one another. B. Interleukin 1 (IL-1) ... organ dysfunction syndrome because of its multiple actions and the secondary cascades that it stimulates.

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Description : Which of the following statements regarding fibroblasts and their function in wound healing are true? a. IL-1 has both inhibitory and promotional effects on fibroblast growth b. TNFa ... EGF (epithelial growth factor) has been demonstrated to accelerate epidermal regeneration in cutaneous wounds

Last Answer : Answer: a, d IL-1 appears to be important in the process of normal wound repair. IL-1 has been shown to stimulate skin fibroblast and keratinocyte growth, as well as ... that recombinant EGF enhances keratinocyte migration. EGF is also a potent chemoattractant for granulation tissue fibroblasts

Which of the following statements regarding the complement system are true? a. Complement activation yields products which are directly cytotoxic as well as products which act indirectly via activated leukocytes b. Complement products referred to as anaphylatoxins include C1, C3a, C4a, and C5a c. The principal role of C5a is in bacterial opsonization d. The alternative and classical pathways converge proximal to generating the membrane attack complex (C5b-9)

Description : Which of the following statements regarding the complement system are true? a. Complement activation yields products which are directly cytotoxic as well as products which act indirectly via activated ... and classical pathways converge proximal to generating the membrane attack complex (C5b-9)

Last Answer : Answer: a, d The complement system is composed of two different but linked sequences, the classic and alternative pathways. The pathways involve serum proteins that act to amplify the inflammatory-immune ... the C5 level proximal to generating the membrane attack complex (C5b-9) (Figure 6-3)

Laboratory monitoring of coagulation and anticoagulation includes testing of platelet function. Which of the following statements is/are true concerning tests of platelet function? a. A platelet count of 50,000/µL or more usually ensures hemostasis b. Bleeding time assays assessibility of platelets to perform hemostatic plugs and is determined from a sample of blood drawn in an EDTA coated test tube c. Aspirin therapy can be associated with a bleeding time in the range of 8–15 minutes d. Tests of platelet aggregation should be part of the standard preoperative evaluation of patients using aspirin

Description : Laboratory monitoring of coagulation and anticoagulation includes testing of platelet function. Which of the following statements is/are true concerning tests of platelet function? a. A ... platelet aggregation should be part of the standard preoperative evaluation of patients using aspirin

Last Answer : Answer: a, c Tests of platelet function include peripheral platelet counts, bleeding times, and platelet aggregation. Usually, a platelet count of 50,000/mL or more ensures adequate hemostasis ... is not available in most laboratories, probably because of the observer-dependent nature of the test

Though the following drug reduces HIV titre, it is used only to treat associated cytomegalovirus infection in AIDS patients: A. Didanosine B. Foscarnet C. Acyclovir D. Saquinavir

Description : Though the following drug reduces HIV titre, it is used only to treat associated cytomegalovirus infection in AIDS patients: A. Didanosine B. Foscarnet C. Acyclovir D. Saquinavir

Last Answer : B. Foscarnet

Which of the following statements about the role of the gut in shock and sepsis are true? A. Selective decontamination of the digestive tract with the use of oral antibiotics has been shown to reduce nosocomial pneumonias and to improve mortality rates. B. Enteral nutrition, as compared with parenteral nutrition, preserves the villus architecture of the gut. C. Gut dysfunction may be an effect of shock, but it may also contribute to the development of MODS by the mechanism of bacterial translocation. D. As compared with parenteral nutrition, enteral nutrition is associated with a reduction in septic morbidity.

Description : Which of the following statements about the role of the gut in shock and sepsis are true? A. Selective decontamination of the digestive tract with the use of oral antibiotics has been ... As compared with parenteral nutrition, enteral nutrition is associated with a reduction in septic morbidity.

Last Answer : Answer: BCD DISCUSSION: The gut has a vital role in the pathophysiology of shock. The splanchnic circulation is very vulnerable to the circulatory redistribution that occurs in shock, thus, gut ... , enteral feeding is more cost effective and is associated with a lower rate of septic morbidity

Match the following sexually transmitted diseases (column I) with their causative agent (column II) and select the correct option. Column I Column II A. Gonorrhoea (i) HIV B. Syphilis (ii) Neisseria C. Genital warts (iii) Treponema D. AIDS (iv) Human papilloma virus A B C D (a) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (b) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) (c) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (d) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

Description : Match the following sexually transmitted diseases (column I) with their causative agent (column II) and select the correct option. Column I Column II A. Gonorrhoea (i) HIV B. Syphilis (ii) Neisseria C. Genital warts (iii) Treponema D. ... iii) (i) (c) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (d) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

Last Answer : (d) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

Ganciclovir is mainly used for the treatment of infection caused by (A) Cytomegalovirus (B) Candida albicans (C) Herpes zoster virus (D) Hepatitis B virus

Description : Ganciclovir is mainly used for the treatment of infection caused by (A) Cytomegalovirus (B) Candida albicans (C) Herpes zoster virus (D) Hepatitis B virus

Last Answer : Ans. A & C

Antibacterial agents can be classified with regard to their structure, mechanism of action, and activity pattern against various types of bacterial pathogens. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning antimicrobial classes? a. Penicillins and cephalosporins share the compound structure of a b-lactam ring which binds to bacterial division plate proteins b. Tetracyclines and macrolides such as erythromycin inhibit bacterial ribosomal activity and therefore protein synthesis c. Aminoglycosides act in a similar fashion to tetracyclines and therefore are both bacteriostatic d. Sulfonamides and trimethoprim act synergistically to inhibit purine synthesis

Description : Antibacterial agents can be classified with regard to their structure, mechanism of action, and activity pattern against various types of bacterial pathogens. Which of the following ... are both bacteriostatic d. Sulfonamides and trimethoprim act synergistically to inhibit purine synthesis

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, d Penicillins, cephalosporins, and monobactams possess a b-lactam ring of some type and act to bind bacterial division plate proteins, thus inhibiting cell wall ... act in different mechanisms to inhibit protein synthesis, therefore two agents in combination act synergistically

There are a multitude of various dressings available. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning options for surgical dressings? a. Hydrocolloids, such as karaya compounds, offer the primary advantage of increased absorptive ability b. Films, such as Op-site, provide a water impermeable environment to achieve a dry wound c. Impregnates are fine gauze impregnated with a variety of substances such as antibiotics or moisturizing agents that adhere tightly to the wound and do not require a secondary dressing d. Absorptive powders and paste are highly useful in debriding necrotic and fibrous material from wounds and absorbing wound serum

Description : There are a multitude of various dressings available. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning options for surgical dressings? a. Hydrocolloids, such as karaya compounds, offer ... are highly useful in debriding necrotic and fibrous material from wounds and absorbing wound serum

Last Answer : Answer: a, d Although the simplest dressing of gauze and tape combined with the use of antibacterial ointment can achieve moist wound healing in most patients. A multitude of other ... agents have high absorbency for tissue wound fluid and debride necrotic and fibrous material from the wound

AIDS is caused by Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV), What is this? -Do You Know?

Description : AIDS is caused by Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV), What is this? -Do You Know?

Last Answer : answer:

AIDS is caused by Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV), What is this?

Description : AIDS is caused by Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV), What is this?

Last Answer : Retro virus

Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) contains

Description : 8. . Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) contains (a) reverse transcriptase (ii) DNA (iii) double-stranded RNA (iv) nuclear membrane

Last Answer : (a) reverse transcriptase

Hepatic abnormalities have been noted in adults since the beginning of hyperalimentation. Which of the following statements are true? A. Hepatic steatosis appears to be associated with an overload of glucose. B. Hepatic steatosis is usually associated with abnormalities in hepatic enzymes. C. Hyperbilirubinemia is inevitably associated with hepatic steatosis. D. Abnormalities in the portal insulin-glucagon ratio are thought to be causative of hepatic steatosis in experimental animals.

Description : Hepatic abnormalities have been noted in adults since the beginning of hyperalimentation. Which of the following statements are true? A. Hepatic steatosis appears to be associated with an overload ... insulin-glucagon ratio are thought to be causative of hepatic steatosis in experimental animals.

Last Answer : Answer: AD DISCUSSION: The most common metabolic complication of TPN in adults is hepatic steatosis. Unlike the hepatic abnormalities in children, which may progress to cholestasis, liver damage, ... glucagon, which is elicited by certain amino acids, results in the mobilization of hepatic lipid

Which of the following statements regarding endothelial cells in acute inflammation are true? a. Endothelial cells are characterized by phenotypic homogeneity b. Specific patterns of receptor expression regulate leukocyte adherence c. Endothelial cell nitric oxide generation regulates regional blood flow and leukocyte adhesion d. Endothelial cells may be capable of phagocytosis

Description : Which of the following statements regarding endothelial cells in acute inflammation are true? a. Endothelial cells are characterized by phenotypic homogeneity b. Specific patterns of receptor expression ... blood flow and leukocyte adhesion d. Endothelial cells may be capable of phagocytosis

Last Answer : Answer: b, c, d Endothelial cells are increasingly recognized to be phenotypically heterogeneous. Specific receptor molecules are expressed at various sites where they help to direct lymphocytes and ... rather, they possess the ability to direct and focus many aspects of an inflammatory event

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the effects of MOFS? a. Pulmonary dysfunction tends to arise early and may resolve within 7 to 10 days b. Unless the precipitating insult has prompted oliguric acute tubular necrosis, renal function tends to be maintained early in the course of MOFS c. Although hepatic dysfunction is common with MOFS, the GI tract plays little role in this process d. Intercurrent nosocomial infection, most commonly pulmonary, is a common complication providing a “second hit” to the patient

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the effects of MOFS? a. Pulmonary dysfunction tends to arise early and may resolve within 7 to 10 days b. Unless the precipitating ... infection, most commonly pulmonary, is a common complication providing a second hit to the patient

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, d Pulmonary dysfunction typically arises early in the development of systemic inflammation and may represent mild relatively localized acute lung injury or it may be a prelude ... is marked by progressive rise in serum bilirubin levels after a latent period of several days

Which of the following microorganisms is known to cause retinitis in people with HIV/AIDS? a) Cytomegalovirus Cytomegalovirus is a species-specific herpes virus.

Description : Which of the following microorganisms is known to cause retinitis in people with HIV/AIDS? a) Cytomegalovirus Cytomegalovirus is a species-specific herpes virus. b) Cryptococcus neoformans Cryptococcus neoformans is ... is thought to be protozoan but believed to be a fungus based on its structure.

Last Answer : a) Cytomegalovirus Cytomegalovirus is a species-specific herpes virus.

What is the common in AIDS, mumps and poliomyelitis? (1) Young children get affected most readily (2) No effective vaccine has yet been developed for them (3) These are caused by viruses (4) Their germs can be transmitted through blood transfusions

Description : What is the common in AIDS, mumps and poliomyelitis? (1) Young children get affected most readily (2) No effective vaccine has yet been developed for them (3) These are caused by viruses (4) Their germs can be transmitted through blood transfusions

Last Answer : These are caused by viruses