Which of the following statements regarding neutrophils are true? a. The neutrophil undergoes final maturation after release into the circulation b. Patients with chronic granulomatous disease have a defective neutrophil H-oxidase system c. Neutrophil killing of bacteria is achieved by oxidants, proteinases and cationic proteins d. The normal human neutrophil circulates in the blood for 7–10 days

Which of the following statements regarding neutrophils are true? a. The neutrophil undergoes final maturation after release into the circulation b. Patients with chronic granulomatous disease have a defective neutrophil H-oxidase system c. Neutrophil killing of bacteria is achieved by oxidants, proteinases and cationic proteins d. The normal human neutrophil circulates in the blood for 7–10 days
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Answer: b, c  The neutrophil is a migratory phagocytic cell that defends the host against bacteria and eliminates necrotic tissue. The neutrophil matures in the bone marrow and is released into the circulation as a fully differentiated cell. It is loaded with granules containing a variety of proteinases, hydrolases, antimicrobial agents and cationic proteins. The cell phagocytoses material and the granules fuse with the phagocytic vacuoles to degrade the foreign material. When the cells are challenged with a large amount of material, the granule contents may be released into the extracellular space where damage to surrounding tissue occurs. The neutrophil normally circulates in the human bloodstream for 7 to 10 hours. Thereafter, neutrophils are thought to exist for 1 to 2 days in the tissues before being cleared from the system. Granule constituents are formed during differentiation and replenishment of spent granules does not occur once the cells are in the circulation. Hence, the neutrophil is a fully differentiated end-cell poised to respond rapidly to stimuli, but it is rapidly spent in the process. Neutrophils have a NADPH-oxidase enzyme system on the plasma membrane which can be activated to produce toxic oxygen species including the superoxide anion (02–). Patients with chronic granulomatous disease (CGD) have a defective NADPH-oxidase system in their neutrophils, and are thus unable to generate 02–. Although neutrophils from patients with CGD are able to phagocytose bacteria, they are unable to kill the intracellular microbes and chronic, unresolved infections result
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Which of the following statements are true of oxidants? A. In addition to their pathophysiologic roles in inflammation, injury, and infection, oxidants also have physiologic roles. B. Oxidants may be generated from activated neutrophils and during reperfusion following a period of ischemia. C. The deleterious effects of oxidants include lipid peroxidation and cell membrane damage, oxidative damage to DNA, and inhibition of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) synthesis. D. The mechanism of ischemia-reperfusion injury involved the catalytic production of superoxide anion (O 2•) by the enzyme xanthine oxidase.

Description : Which of the following statements are true of oxidants? A. In addition to their pathophysiologic roles in inflammation, injury, and infection, oxidants also have physiologic roles. B. Oxidants may ... involved the catalytic production of superoxide anion (O 2 ) by the enzyme xanthine oxidase.

Last Answer : Answer: ABCD DISCUSSION: Oxidants are reactive oxygen metabolites that have both physiologic and pathophysiologic roles. As potent oxidizing agents, oxidants are involved in cytochrome P ... leukocyte infiltration and activation, causing further tissue damage by the release of cytotoxic proteases

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning ischemia reperfusion injury? a. During ischemia, ATP degradation results in increased plasma and intracellular levels of hypoxanthine and xanthene b. Oxygen free radicals such as the superoxide radical are involved in the expression of the proinflammatory phenotype of endothelial cells, macrophages and neutrophils c. The intracellular adhesion molecule-1 (ICAN-1) contributes to injury and disruption of the endothelial lining, with extensive capillary leak and resultant interstitial edema d. Animal models have demonstrated that passive immunization with antibodies to neutrophil adhesive complex lessen the ischemic/reperfusion microvascular injury

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning ischemia reperfusion injury? a. During ischemia, ATP degradation results in increased plasma and intracellular levels of ... immunization with antibodies to neutrophil adhesive complex lessen the ischemic/reperfusion microvascular injury

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d During the ischemia and hypoperfusion phase, degradation of ATP stores essential to maintain cell integrity and significant loss of diffusible ... either the neutrophil adhesive complex or the endothelial selectins dramatically lessens ischemia/reperfusion microvascular injury

Which of the following statements regarding TNFa are true? a. TNFa has a marked procoagulant effect b. Passive immunization of patients with neutralizing antibodies to TNFa improves survival from multi-organ system failure c. TNFa upregulates E-selectin expression d. The most potent known stimulus for TNFa production and release is IL-1

Description : Which of the following statements regarding TNFa are true? a. TNFa has a marked procoagulant effect b. Passive immunization of patients with neutralizing antibodies to TNFa improves survival from multi-organ ... expression d. The most potent known stimulus for TNFa production and release is IL-1

Last Answer : Answer: a, c TNFa has a marked procoagulant effect on endothelial cells, precipitating intravascular thrombosis. TNFa causes endothelial cells to release procoagulant activity (tissue factor), ... to produce TNFa, however the most potent stimulus for TNFa production and release is endotoxin

Which of the following statements regarding IL-1 are correct? a. While IL-1 and TNFa share many biologic effects, IL-1 appears to be more potent b. IL-1 expression is in part autoregulated c. IL-1 inhibits prostaglandin production d. The ability of IL-1 to upregulate endothelial cell-neutrophil adhesion molecules is relatively limited

Description : Which of the following statements regarding IL-1 are correct? a. While IL-1 and TNFa share many biologic effects, IL-1 appears to be more potent b. IL-1 expression is in part ... production d. The ability of IL-1 to upregulate endothelial cell-neutrophil adhesion molecules is relatively limited

Last Answer : Answer: b IL-1 and TNFa share many biologic properties. In addition, each potentiates the effects of the other one when given concurrently. Overall, IL-1 alone probably has weaker effects than ... IL-1 provides a key step in the extravasation of leukocytes to sites of local inflammation and injury

Which of the following statements regarding the transmission of infectious agents through blood transfusions is/are true? A. The transmission rates for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) have been decreasing progressively since the early 1980s. B. The transmission rates of hepatitis have been decreasing steadily since the 1980s. C. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) is the infectious agent most commonly transmitted in blood. D. Severely immunocompromised patients (such as patients undergoing transplantation) should receive specially screened blood products.

Description : Which of the following statements regarding the transmission of infectious agents through blood transfusions is/are true? A. The transmission rates for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) ... patients (such as patients undergoing transplantation) should receive specially screened blood products.

Last Answer : Answer: ABCD DISCUSSION: The incidence of both HIV and hepatitis transmitted via blood transfusions has been steadily decreasing since the 1980s. This is related to improved ... , severely compromised patients such as those undergoing transplantation should receive CMV-negative blood products

Answer: a, b, c, d Free oxygen radicals are chemical species that are intermediates in the normal process of cellular respiration. Oxidants that are free radicals have been implicated as initiators of reactions which lead to a variety of cellular injuries. Oxidants are derived from several sources, notably phagocytes. Among the effects of oxygen free radicals are membrane lipid peroxidation, DNA strand breaks, cytoskeletal disassembly and inhibition of glucose metabolism leading to decreased cellular ATP concentrations. (Figure 6-16) 187 Which of the following acute-phase protein levels are increased in human plasma following acute inflammation? a. C-reactive protein b. Serum amyloid c. a -Proteinase inhibitor d. Fibrinogen e. Albumin

Description : Answer: a, b, c, d Free oxygen radicals are chemical species that are intermediates in the normal process of cellular respiration. Oxidants that are free radicals have been implicated as initiators of ... a. C-reactive protein b. Serum amyloid c. a -Proteinase inhibitor d. Fibrinogen e. Albumin

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d The acute-phase response is a series of homeostatic responses of the organism to tissue injury in infection and inflammation. After an inflammatory stimulus occurs, a number ... 30% to 50% of the level before injury. The reason for the decrease in production is poorly understood

Which of the following statements about hypertension in diabetes patients is/are correct? A. Hypertension worsens the macrovascular disease of diabetes patients. B. Hypertension accelerates the progression of diabetic nephropathy. C. Hypertension is associated with sodium retention in diabetes patients. D. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors should be used in all patients with chronic hyperglycemia, regardless of the presence of hypertension. E. Diuretics, as single-drug therapy, are not indicated in the treatment of hypertension in diabetes patients.

Description : Which of the following statements about hypertension in diabetes patients is/are correct? A. Hypertension worsens the macrovascular disease of diabetes patients. B. Hypertension accelerates the ... single-drug therapy, are not indicated in the treatment of hypertension in diabetes patients.

Last Answer : Answer: ABCDE DISCUSSION: All of the answers listed are correct. By damaging endothelial cells, hypertension worsens macrovascular disease in all patients but especially in diabetics. Hypertension ... is not indicated because the chronic state of dehydration in such patients may become worse

A diabetic develops a severe perineal infection with skin necrosis, subcutaneous crepitance, and drainage of a thin, watery, grayish and foul-smelling fluid. Management should consist of: a. Gram stain of the fluid, which will likely demonstrate multiple bacteria including predominantly gram-positive rods b. A CT scan is indicated in a stable patient to define the extent of the disease c. Broad spectrum antibiotics followed with prompt extensive debridement is indicated d. A safe guideline is to resect infected necrotic tissue so that a several centimeter margin of grossly normal, healthy tissue can be achieved e. A colostomy is of little benefit in this situation

Description : A diabetic develops a severe perineal infection with skin necrosis, subcutaneous crepitance, and drainage of a thin, watery, grayish and foul-smelling fluid. Management should consist of: a. Gram stain ... normal, healthy tissue can be achieved e. A colostomy is of little benefit in this situation

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d The presence of severe perineal infection (referred to as Fournier gangrene when this process involves the perineum and scrotum in males) is associated with a ... often provides improved wound care and patient management, although it is not invariably a positive outcome

A modified amino acid solution with increased equimolar branched-chain amino acids and decreased aromatic amino acids has been proposed for patients with hepatic insufficiency. Which of the following statements is/are true? A. This formulation is proposed for the use of patients with fulminant hepatitis. B. Nitrogen balance is achieved in such patients with amounts of 40 gm. of amino acids per 24 hours. C. The use of 80 to 100 gm. of such solutions is associated with hepatic encephalopathy. D. In some studies of surgical patients, improvements in mortality have been reported.

Description : A modified amino acid solution with increased equimolar branched-chain amino acids and decreased aromatic amino acids has been proposed for patients with hepatic insufficiency. Which of the following ... D. In some studies of surgical patients, improvements in mortality have been reported.

Last Answer : Answer: D DISCUSSION: The use of modified amino acid solutions is based on the false neurotransmitter hypothesis of the cause of hepatic coma. According to this hypothesis, the imbalance ... in a group of patients with cirrhosis, decreasing morbidity and showing a trend toward decreased mortality

True statements regarding eicosanoids include which of the following? A. Prostaglandins and thromboxanes are synthesized via the cyclo-oxygenase pathway. B. The vasoconstricting, platelet-aggregating, and bronchoconstricting effects of thromboxane A 2 are balanced by the actions of prostacyclin, which produces the opposite effects. C. Leukotriene synthesis is inhibited by the action of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). D. The principal prostaglandins have a short circulation half-life and exert most of their effects locally.

Description : True statements regarding eicosanoids include which of the following? A. Prostaglandins and thromboxanes are synthesized via the cyclo-oxygenase pathway. B. The vasoconstricting, platelet-aggregating, ... prostaglandins have a short circulation half-life and exert most of their effects locally.

Last Answer : Answer: ABD DISCUSSION: The eicosanoids are a group of compounds arising from the metabolism of arachidonic acid. The prostaglandins and thromboxanes are synthesized via the cyclo-oxygenase ... effects and may be involved in the physiologic responses associated with anaphylactic and septic shock

Which of the following statements regarding angiogenesis are true? a. Angiogenesis is a seminal biologic event with clinical relevance limited to its effect upon tumor growth b. C-X-C chemokines regulate angiogenesis c. PF-4 has angiogenic properties d. Sites of atherosclerosis demonstrate chronic angiogenic activity

Description : Which of the following statements regarding angiogenesis are true? a. Angiogenesis is a seminal biologic event with clinical relevance limited to its effect upon tumor growth b. C-X-C ... c. PF-4 has angiogenic properties d. Sites of atherosclerosis demonstrate chronic angiogenic activity

Last Answer : Answer: b, d An important component of tissue repair and wound healing is the process of angiogenesis. This normal, physiologic process is a local, transient event which is ... between these factors may govern overall angiogenic potential in a variety of physiological and pathophysiological states

In patients with chronic granulomatous disease which of the following agents increases the synthesis of tumor necrosis factor, leading to activation of phagocytosis? (a) Aldesleukin (b) Cyclosporine (c) Filgrastim (d) Infliximab (e) Interferon gamma

Description : In patients with chronic granulomatous disease which of the following agents increases the synthesis of tumor necrosis factor, leading to activation of phagocytosis? (a) Aldesleukin (b) Cyclosporine (c) Filgrastim (d) Infliximab (e) Interferon gamma

Last Answer : Ans: E

Which of the following statements about the presence of gallstones in diabetes patients is/are correct? A. Gallstones occur with the same frequency in diabetes patients as in the healthy population. B. The presence of gallstones, regardless of the presence of symptoms, is an indication for cholecystectomy in a diabetes patient. C. Diabetes patients with gallstones and chronic biliary pain should be managed nonoperatively with chemical dissolution and/or lithotripsy because of severe complicating medical conditions and a high operative risk. D. The presence of diabetes and gallstones places the patient at high risk for pancreatic cancer. E. Diabetes patients with symptomatic gallstones should have prompt elective cholecystectomy, to avoid the complications of acute cholecystitis and g

Description : Which of the following statements about the presence of gallstones in diabetes patients is/are correct? A. Gallstones occur with the same frequency in diabetes patients as in the ... have prompt elective cholecystectomy, to avoid the complications of acute cholecystitis and gallbladder necrosis.

Last Answer : Answer: E DISCUSSION: Gallstones have been found to be very prevalent in patients with type II (non-insulin-dependent) diabetes mellitus, perhaps related to the dyslipoproteinemia in ... added mortality associated with it. There is no causal relationship between diabetes and pancreatic cancer

The standard management oral anticoagulant therapy for chronic treatment of venous thromboembolism is with the drug warfarin. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the administration of warfarin? a. An important complication of warfarin therapy is skin necrosis in patients with protein C deficiency b. Warfarin interferes with vitamin K dependent clotting factors II, VII, IX, X c. For effective anticoagulation the prothrombin time (PT) should be kept at 2 control d. It is recommended that warfarin be continued for at least one year after initial episode of deep venous thrombosis

Description : The standard management oral anticoagulant therapy for chronic treatment of venous thromboembolism is with the drug warfarin. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the administration ... warfarin be continued for at least one year after initial episode of deep venous thrombosis

Last Answer : Answer: a, b Warfarin interferes with the vitamin K dependent clotting factors II, VII, IX and X, protein C, and protein S. An important complication of warfarin is skin ... the benefit from anticoagulant therapy and thus is the basis for discontinuing warfarin administration at this time

Which of the following statements regarding hypercalcemia are true? A. The symptoms of hypercalcemia may mimic some symptoms of hyperglycemia. B. Metastatic breast cancer is an unusual cause of hypercalcemia. C. Calcitonin is a satisfactory long-term therapy for hypercalcemia. D. Severely hypercalcemic patients exhibit the signs of extracellular fluid volume deficit. E. Urinary calcium excretion may be increased by vigorous volume repletion.

Description : Which of the following statements regarding hypercalcemia are true? A. The symptoms of hypercalcemia may mimic some symptoms of hyperglycemia. B. Metastatic breast cancer is an unusual cause of ... fluid volume deficit. E. Urinary calcium excretion may be increased by vigorous volume repletion.

Last Answer : Answer: ADE DISCUSSION: Markedly elevated serum calcium levels produce polydipsia, polyuria, and thirst. Vigorous volume repletion and saline diuresis correct the extracellular fluid volume ... , from bony metastasis. The calcitonin effect on calcium is diminished with repeat administrations

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning methods of nutritional support? a. Optimal results for enteral feedings are achieved with approximately half of calories supplied as carbohydrate and half as fat b. Diarrhea is the most common complication of enteral feeds and is due to the high osmolarity of the carbohydrate components c. The hyperosmolar nature of parenteral fat solutions requires central venous administration d. Approximately 25–50% of calories should be provided as fat emulsion in patients receiving total parenteral nutrition

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning methods of nutritional support? a. Optimal results for enteral feedings are achieved with approximately half of calories supplied as ... -50% of calories should be provided as fat emulsion in patients receiving total parenteral nutrition

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, d Most formulas for enteral feeding range from 1.0 to 2 cal/ml and include 3 to 7% protein. Most of the calories are supplied as glucose or sucrose, so that the solutions ... up to 25 to 50% of calories each day as fat emulsion may optimize the delivery of this caloric delivery

The following statement(s) is/are true concerning host defense mechanisms to intraabdominal infection. a. Bacterial clearance can occur via translymphatic absorption b. Phagocytic activity and bacterial killing can occur via resident phagocytic cells and an influx of PMNs c. A fibrinogen-rich inflammatory exudate is released into the peritoneal cavity, trapping large numbers of bacteria and other particulate matter d. Perforations of a bowel may be walled off but are seldom sealed by the omentum and other mobile viscera

Description : The following statement(s) is/are true concerning host defense mechanisms to intraabdominal infection. a. Bacterial clearance can occur via translymphatic absorption b. Phagocytic activity and bacterial killing can ... may be walled off but are seldom sealed by the omentum and other mobile viscera

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c The introduction of microorganisms into the normally sterile peritoneal environment invoke several potent specialized host antimicrobial defense mechanisms. Bacterial clearance, ... the contaminated enteric contents walled off, preventing continued soilage of the peritoneal cavity

Which of the following statements regarding cytokines is incorrect? A. Cytokines act directly on target cells and may potentiate the actions of one another. B. Interleukin 1 (IL-1) is a major proinflammatory mediator with multiple effects, including regulation of skeletal muscle proteolysis in patients with sepsis or significant injury. C. Platelet-activating factor (PAF) is a major cytokine that results in platelet aggregation, bronchoconstriction, and increased vascular permeability. D. Tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-a), despite its short plasma half-life, appears to be a principal mediator in the evolution of sepsis and the multiple organ dysfunction syndrome because of its multiple actions and the secondary cascades that it stimulates.

Description : Which of the following statements regarding cytokines is incorrect? A. Cytokines act directly on target cells and may potentiate the actions of one another. B. Interleukin 1 (IL-1) ... organ dysfunction syndrome because of its multiple actions and the secondary cascades that it stimulates.

Last Answer : Answer: C DISCUSSION: Cytokines are soluble peptide molecules that are synthesized and secreted by a number of cell types in response to injury, inflammation, and infection. Cytokines, which ... is thought to play a central role in the stress response, particularly in response to endotoxemia

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning protein/amino acid metabolism in man? a. The major source of amino acids is breakdown of circulating proteins b. The recommended daily allowance for protein may triple in critically ill patients c. Urinary nitrogen losses will approach 0 in the face of protein starvation d. Negative nitrogen balance refers to a decrease in nitrogen taken into the body versus the amount of nitrogen lost

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning protein/amino acid metabolism in man? a. The major source of amino acids is breakdown of circulating proteins b. The recommended daily ... balance refers to a decrease in nitrogen taken into the body versus the amount of nitrogen lost

Last Answer : Answer: b, d About 15% of the total body weight is made up of proteins, about half of which are intracellular and half extracellular. In man and other animals, dietary protein is the source of ... is exceeded by the amount of nitrogen lost in the urine, stool, skin, wounds, and fistula drainage

Which of the following statements about the preparation and storage of blood components is/are true? A. Solutions containing citrate prevent coagulation by binding calcium. B. The shelf life of packed red blood cells preserved with CPDA-1 is approximately 35 days at 1؛ to 6؛ C. C. There are normal numbers of platelets in packed red blood cells stored at 1؛ to 6؛ C for more than 2 days. D. The storage lesion affecting refrigerated packed red blood cells includes development of acidosis, hyperkalemia, and decreased intracellular 2,3DPG (diphosphoglycerate).

Description : Which of the following statements about the preparation and storage of blood components is/are true? A. Solutions containing citrate prevent coagulation by binding calcium. B. The ... cells includes development of acidosis, hyperkalemia, and decreased intracellular 2,3DPG (diphosphoglycerate).

Last Answer : Answer: ABD DISCUSSION: After blood has been collected from a donor, it is anticoagulated with a solution containing citrate, which acts by binding calcium. Blood is then separated into its ... transfusion or produce effects other than those predicted based on the content of the unit of blood

Which of the following statements regarding whole blood transfusion is/are correct? A. Whole blood is the most commonly used red cell preparation for transfusion in the United States. B. Whole blood is effective in the replacement of acute blood loss. C. Most blood banks in the United States have large supplies of whole blood available. D. The use of whole blood produces higher rates of disease transmission than the use of individual component therapies.

Description : Which of the following statements regarding whole blood transfusion is/are correct? A. Whole blood is the most commonly used red cell preparation for transfusion in the United States. B. ... whole blood produces higher rates of disease transmission than the use of individual component therapies.

Last Answer : Answer: B DISCUSSION: Whole blood is effective as a replacement fluid for acute blood loss because it provides both volume and oxygen-carrying capacity (red blood cells). It is rarely used in the ... the use of packed red blood cells, fresh frozen plasma, and platelets, each from a different donor

Infectious disease transmission during blood transfusions is of clinical significance to surgeons and of major importance to patients contemplating surgery potentially associated with the need for blood administration. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the transmission of infectious disease during blood transfusions? a. Post-transfusion hepatitis is usually due to hepatitis B b. Hepatitis and HIV transmission is greatest with the administration of pooled plasma products such as serum albumin c. The most important cause of post-transfusion disease in immunosuppressed patients is CMV infection d. The risk of HIV transmission in blood transfusions is significantly less than the risk of hepatitis transmission

Description : Infectious disease transmission during blood transfusions is of clinical significance to surgeons and of major importance to patients contemplating surgery potentially associated with the need for ... transmission in blood transfusions is significantly less than the risk of hepatitis transmission

Last Answer : Answer: c, d The most common infectious diseases transmitted during blood transfusions include viral hepatitis, CMV, and HIV infection. Post-transfusion hepatitis in 90% of cases consists of ... infectious disease transmission, the risks of HIV transmission is markedly less than that of hepatitis

Which of the following statements about septic shock are true? A. A circulating myocardial depressant factor may account for the cardiac dysfunction sometimes seen with shock due to sepsis or SIRS. B. A cardiac index (CI) of 6 liters per minute per square meter of body surface, a pulmonary capillary wedge pressure of 15 mm. Hg, and a systemic vascular resistance index (SVRI) of 800 dynes-sec/(cm 5-m 2) is a hemodynamic profile consistent with septic shock. C. An increase in SvO 2 in septic patients may be explained by the finding of anatomic arteriovenous shunts. D. Results of human trials employing antimediator therapy, such as antiendotoxin antibodies, IL-1 receptor antagonist, and tumor necrosis factor (TNF) antibodies, have confirmed animal studies that demonstrate a significant im

Description : Which of the following statements about septic shock are true? A. A circulating myocardial depressant factor may account for the cardiac dysfunction sometimes seen with shock due to sepsis or ... animal studies that demonstrate a significant improvement in survival with the use of such agents.

Last Answer : Answer: AB DISCUSSION: Shock due to sepsis or SIRS frequently manifests as a hyperdynamic cardiovascular response, consisting of an elevated CI and a decreased SVR or SVRI. Occasionally, ... been encouraging thus far in human clinical trials, despite the promising results from many animal studies

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the treatment of MOFS? a. Prevention and therapy of MOFS requires control of the infectious or inflammatory source b. Restoration of normal clinical parameters such as blood pressure, pulse rate, and urine output ensures optimal resuscitation in most patients c. Branch chain amino acids play and important role in the nutritional support of the patient d. Because of the nature of gut injury, total parenteral nutrition is preferred for most patients with MOFS

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the treatment of MOFS? a. Prevention and therapy of MOFS requires control of the infectious or inflammatory source b. Restoration of normal ... of the nature of gut injury, total parenteral nutrition is preferred for most patients with MOFS

Last Answer : Answer: a, c The therapy of MOFS is directed towards interrupting the involving pathophysiologic process and providing an optimal physiologic environment for healing and recovery. ... Enteral absorption and processing of nutrients appears superior to TPN and lessens overall complications

Laboratory monitoring of coagulation and anticoagulation includes testing of platelet function. Which of the following statements is/are true concerning tests of platelet function? a. A platelet count of 50,000/µL or more usually ensures hemostasis b. Bleeding time assays assessibility of platelets to perform hemostatic plugs and is determined from a sample of blood drawn in an EDTA coated test tube c. Aspirin therapy can be associated with a bleeding time in the range of 8–15 minutes d. Tests of platelet aggregation should be part of the standard preoperative evaluation of patients using aspirin

Description : Laboratory monitoring of coagulation and anticoagulation includes testing of platelet function. Which of the following statements is/are true concerning tests of platelet function? a. A ... platelet aggregation should be part of the standard preoperative evaluation of patients using aspirin

Last Answer : Answer: a, c Tests of platelet function include peripheral platelet counts, bleeding times, and platelet aggregation. Usually, a platelet count of 50,000/mL or more ensures adequate hemostasis ... is not available in most laboratories, probably because of the observer-dependent nature of the test

Essential amino acids have been advocated as standard therapy for renal failure. Which of the following statements are true? A. Increased survival from acute renal failure has been reported with both essential and nonessential amino acid therapy of patients in renal failure. B. Essential amino acids retard the rise of blood urea nitrogen (BUN) secondary to decreased urea appearance. C. Essential amino acids and hypertonic dextrose are a convenient form of therapy for hyperkalemia. D. Essential amino acids decrease BUN and creatinine to the same degree as solutions containing excessive nonessential amino acids.

Description : Essential amino acids have been advocated as standard therapy for renal failure. Which of the following statements are true? A. Increased survival from acute renal failure has been reported ... BUN and creatinine to the same degree as solutions containing excessive nonessential amino acids.

Last Answer : Answer: BC DISCUSSION: Essential amino acids and hypertonic dextrose, as opposed to hypertonic dextrose alone, was reported by Abel and co-workers to be associated with a decreased mortality rate ... renal failure have not been carried out in sufficient numbers to yield answers to this question

Answer: e The role of nutritional support in the cancer patient remains an important component of overall therapy. Preoperative nutritional support should be given only to those patients who do not require an emergency operation and who have severe weight loss (> 15% of pre-illness body weight) and a serum albumen < 2.9 mg%. Preoperative nutrition (enteral or parenteral) should not be given for longer than 7 to 10 days. Enteral nutrition is always the preferred route of feeding cancer patients if the GI tract is functional. There are several benefits of using the bowel lumen for nutrient delivery. The trophic effects of enteral feeding on small bowel mucosa have been well described. The integrity of the mucosal lining is maintained and it may provide an effective barrier to intraluminal

Description : Answer: e The role of nutritional support in the cancer patient remains an important component of overall therapy. Preoperative nutritional support should be given only to those patients who ... of bowel rest; this atrophy is not reversed by currently available total parenteral nutrition solutions

Last Answer : Which of the following hormones can be expected to be released as part of the stress response? a. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) b. Aldosterone c. Insulin d. Epinephrine nswer: a, b, d ... This hormone has the exact opposite effect of insulin, which promotes glucose storage and uptake by the cells

Neutrophil chemotaxis is a fundamental aspect of inflammatory injury in conditions such as the Adult Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS). Neutrophil chemotaxis is directly attributable to which of the following molecules? a. C5a b. TNFa c. LPS d. IL-1 e. ENA-78 (Epithelial Neutrophil Activating Protein)

Description : Neutrophil chemotaxis is a fundamental aspect of inflammatory injury in conditions such as the Adult Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS). Neutrophil chemotaxis is directly attributable to which of the following molecules? ... TNFa c. LPS d. IL-1 e. ENA-78 (Epithelial Neutrophil Activating Protein)

Last Answer : Answer: a, e There is a large collection of peptide, polypeptide and lipid mediators which have chemotactic properties. Although TNF a, IL-1 and LPS were initially reported to have direct ... are several complement-derived peptides. Perhaps, the most potent of these is the short-lived C5a peptide

Which of the following statements regarding fibroblasts and their function in wound healing are true? a. IL-1 has both inhibitory and promotional effects on fibroblast growth b. TNFa stimulates fibroblast collagen synthesis c. IL-1 and TNFa have opposite effects on the healing of bone d. In human clinical trials, EGF (epithelial growth factor) has been demonstrated to accelerate epidermal regeneration in cutaneous wounds

Description : Which of the following statements regarding fibroblasts and their function in wound healing are true? a. IL-1 has both inhibitory and promotional effects on fibroblast growth b. TNFa ... EGF (epithelial growth factor) has been demonstrated to accelerate epidermal regeneration in cutaneous wounds

Last Answer : Answer: a, d IL-1 appears to be important in the process of normal wound repair. IL-1 has been shown to stimulate skin fibroblast and keratinocyte growth, as well as ... that recombinant EGF enhances keratinocyte migration. EGF is also a potent chemoattractant for granulation tissue fibroblasts

Which of the following statements regarding endothelial cells in acute inflammation are true? a. Endothelial cells are characterized by phenotypic homogeneity b. Specific patterns of receptor expression regulate leukocyte adherence c. Endothelial cell nitric oxide generation regulates regional blood flow and leukocyte adhesion d. Endothelial cells may be capable of phagocytosis

Description : Which of the following statements regarding endothelial cells in acute inflammation are true? a. Endothelial cells are characterized by phenotypic homogeneity b. Specific patterns of receptor expression ... blood flow and leukocyte adhesion d. Endothelial cells may be capable of phagocytosis

Last Answer : Answer: b, c, d Endothelial cells are increasingly recognized to be phenotypically heterogeneous. Specific receptor molecules are expressed at various sites where they help to direct lymphocytes and ... rather, they possess the ability to direct and focus many aspects of an inflammatory event

Eicosanoids mediate inflammation in a variety of ways. Of the following statements, which are true with regard to this? a. Eicosanoids are stored in cytoplasmic granules for release after receptor mediated signaling b. Eicosanoids include prostaglandins, thromboxanes, leukotrienes and lipoxins c. Eicosanoids generally have a plasma half-life measured in hours d. Physiologic responses to eicosanoids include vasodilatation, vasoconstriction, increased vascular permeability and both chemotaxis and chemoattractant inhibition

Description : Eicosanoids mediate inflammation in a variety of ways. Of the following statements, which are true with regard to this? a. Eicosanoids are stored in cytoplasmic granules ... include vasodilatation, vasoconstriction, increased vascular permeability and both chemotaxis and chemoattractant inhibition

Last Answer : Answer: b, d The eicosanoids are derived from arachidonic acid (eicosatetraenoic acid) and consist of prostaglandins, thromboxanes, leukotrienes and lipoxins. The eicosanoids are not ... nervous system d. Mononuclear phagocytes release a variety of proinflammatory cytokines and growth factors

Essential fatty acid deficiency may complicate total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following statements are true? A. Essential fatty acid deficiency may be prevented by the administration of 1% to 2% of total calories as fat emulsion. B. Fat-free parenteral nutrition results in the appearance of plasma abnormalities, indicating essential fatty acid deficiency, within 7 to 10 days of initiation. C. An abnormal plasma eicosatrienoic-arachidonic acid ratio is always associated with essential fatty acid deficiency. D. Following initiation of fat-free parenteral nutrition, dry, scaly skin associated with a maculopapular rash indicates essential fatty acid deficiency.

Description : Essential fatty acid deficiency may complicate total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following statements are true? A. Essential fatty acid deficiency may be prevented by the ... , dry, scaly skin associated with a maculopapular rash indicates essential fatty acid deficiency.

Last Answer : Answer: BD DISCUSSION: Biochemical evidence of essential fatty acid deficiency may occur as early as 7 to 10 days following initiation of fat-free parenteral nutrition. The decrease in ... essential to the diagnosis of essential fatty acid deficiency, but this plasma abnormality is often present

The following statement(s) is/are true concerning HIV infection. a. Initial screening with ELISA is highly sensitive but can be associated with a false positive rate of 25% b. Treatment with azidothymidine (AZD) appears to prolong survival when administered early in the disease c. Predisposition to infection in HIV infection is primarily due to reduction in the number of helper T cells d. Common infections in patients with AIDS are Pneumocystis, carinii pneumonia, CMV pneumonitis, Cryptococcus meningitis, and disseminated infection due to atypical mycobacteria

Description : The following statement(s) is/are true concerning HIV infection. a. Initial screening with ELISA is highly sensitive but can be associated with a false positive rate of 25% b. ... , carinii pneumonia, CMV pneumonitis, Cryptococcus meningitis, and disseminated infection due to atypical mycobacteria

Last Answer : Answer: b, c, d Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is a syndrome caused by the human retrovirus (HIV-1) that infects T lymphocytes and causes severe immunosuppression. Individuals who ... to prolong survival when administered early in the course of disease and is considered routine therapy

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning hemophilia A? a. Hemophilia A is inherited as a sex-linked recessive deficiency of factor VIII b. A positive family history for bleeding disorders present in all patients c. Laboratory tests reveal a prolongation of aPTT, prothrombin time (PT), thrombin clotting time and platelet aggregation d. Spontaneous bleeding is unusual with factor VIII levels greater than 10% of normal

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning hemophilia A? a. Hemophilia A is inherited as a sex-linked recessive deficiency of factor VIII b. A positive family history for ... platelet aggregation d. Spontaneous bleeding is unusual with factor VIII levels greater than 10% of normal

Last Answer : Answer: a, d Hemophilia A is inherited as a sex-linked recessive deficiency of factor VIII although 0% of cases are secondary to spontaneous mutation. The incidence of this abnormality is ... factor levels as low as 1% have been noted and patients are at risk for spontaneous bleeding

Which of the following statements concerning perioperative nutrition is true concerning the above-described patient? a. Since the patient’s weight had been stable with no preoperative nutritional deficit, 5% dextrose intravenous solutions are adequate for the initial postoperative source of nutrition b. Preoperative immunologic status should be determined including total peripheral lymphocyte count and delayed hypersensitivity reaction to determine skin-test response to common antigens c. Routine postoperative fluid administration with intravenous 5% glucose solutions can provide the calories to meet basal energy requirements d. A jejunal feeding catheter should be placed at the time of surgery for postoperative enteral feeding

Description : Which of the following statements concerning perioperative nutrition is true concerning the above-described patient? a. Since the patient's weight had been stable with no preoperative nutritional deficit ... feeding catheter should be placed at the time of surgery for postoperative enteral feeding

Last Answer : Answer: a Most patients undergoing elective operations are adequately nourished. Unless the patient has suffered significant preoperative malnutrition, characterized by weight loss greater than ... gastrointestinal surgery, this technique would not appear indicated in the patient described above

Glucose overload results in increased CO 2 production. Which of the following statements are true? A. In patients with respiratory insufficiency, administration of glucose as a principal calorie source is contraindicated. B. In patients with pulmonary infection and sepsis, calorie support should consist of 95% fat and 5% glucose. C. In Askanazi's study, increased CO 2 production and difficulty in weaning was associated only with pronounced overfeeding. D. CO 2 production should be measured in most patients who are supported by respirators in intensive care units and are receiving nutritional support.

Description : Glucose overload results in increased CO 2 production. Which of the following statements are true? A. In patients with respiratory insufficiency, administration of glucose as a principal calorie ... who are supported by respirators in intensive care units and are receiving nutritional support.

Last Answer : Answer: C DISCUSSION: Few papers have excited as much interest as that by Askanazi, Kinney, and co-workers, which demonstrated that glucose calories given to patients with severe respiratory ... the caloric requirement and glucose for the remainder, without much fear of excessive CO 2 production

In the nutritional support of patients with cancer, which of the following statements is/are true? A. Nutritional support benefits the patient's lean body mass but does not enable the tumor to grow. B. In experimental animals, the growth of implanted tumors is directly proportional to the amount of calories and protein supplied. C. Prospective randomized trials of nutritional support utilizing chemotherapy and radiation therapy have revealed benefits to patients receiving total parenteral nutrition. D. Studies of nutritional support for patients with cancer about to undergo surgery revealed decreased morbidity and mortality, especially morbidity from sepsis.

Description : In the nutritional support of patients with cancer, which of the following statements is/are true? A. Nutritional support benefits the patient's lean body mass but does not enable ... with cancer about to undergo surgery revealed decreased morbidity and mortality, especially morbidity from sepsis.

Last Answer : Answer: B DISCUSSION: The problem with the patient with cancer is a very vexing one. Clearly, one of the metabolic effects of cancer, cachexia, affects patients in the last quartile ... undoubtedly reveal that there are certain nutrients that tumors require, which probably should be best avoided

Which of the following statements about delivery-dependent oxygen consumption are true? A. Below the critical oxygen delivery (D(overdot)O 2crit), one would expect to see a decrease in the lactate-pyruvate ratio. B. D(overdot)O 2crit may be increased in patients with sepsis. C. A desirable goal in the treatment of shock is to achieve delivery-independent oxygen consumption. D. The oxygen extraction ratio remains constant as long as oxygen delivery remains above D(overdot)O 2crit.

Description : Which of the following statements about delivery-dependent oxygen consumption are true? A. Below the critical oxygen delivery (D(overdot)O 2crit), one would expect to see a decrease in the ... oxygen extraction ratio remains constant as long as oxygen delivery remains above D(overdot)O 2crit.

Last Answer : Answer: BC DISCUSSION: Oxygen consumption is said to be delivery dependent below a critical point, D(overdot)O 2crit, at which anaerobic metabolism supervenes. Above this point, oxygen ... the therapeutic benefit of trying to achieve supranormal oxygen delivery has not been firmly established

True statements concerning hypoadrenal shock include which of the following? A. Adrenocortical insufficiency may manifest itself as severe shock refractory to volume and pressor therapy. B. The presence of hyperglycemia and hypotension may suggest the diagnosis of shock due to adrenocortical insufficiency. C. Hydrocortisone does not interfere with the serum cortisol assay and should be given to hemodynamically unstable patients suspected of having hypoadrenal shock. D. The rapid adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) stimulation test should be performed to help establish the diagnosis of acute adrenocortical insufficiency.

Description : True statements concerning hypoadrenal shock include which of the following? A. Adrenocortical insufficiency may manifest itself as severe shock refractory to volume and pressor therapy. B. ... test should be performed to help establish the diagnosis of acute adrenocortical insufficiency.

Last Answer : Answer: AD DISCUSSION: Shock due to acute adrenocortical insufficiency is relatively uncommon but must be considered when shock refractory to volume replacement and pressor therapy is present. ... and it is the corticosteroid of choice while the ACTH stimulation test is being performed

A 55-year-old male undergoes a total abdominal colectomy. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the hormonal response to the surgical procedure? a. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) is secreted from the anterior pituitary gland b. ACTH stimulation results in elevation of serum cortisol levels for up to a week after the operation c. An increased secretion of aldosterone and ADH may contribute to postoperative fluid retention d. An increase in serum insulin and a fall in glucagon accelerate hepatic glucose production and maintain gluconeogenesis

Description : A 55-year-old male undergoes a total abdominal colectomy. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the hormonal response to the surgical procedure? a. Adrenocorticotropic ... in serum insulin and a fall in glucagon accelerate hepatic glucose production and maintain gluconeogenesis

Last Answer : Answer: a, c One of the earliest consequence of a surgical procedure is the rise in levels of circulating cortisol that occur in response to a sudden outpouring of ACTH ... hepatic glucose production, and, with other hormones (epinephrine and glucocorticoids), gluconeogenesis is maintained

What immunodeficiency disorder is associated with a tack of T and B cells and complete immune dysfunction? a. DiGeorge syndrome b. Severe combined immunodeficiency disease c. Chronic granulomatous disease d. Chédiak-Higashi syndrome

Description : What immunodeficiency disorder is associated with a tack of T and B cells and complete immune dysfunction? a. DiGeorge syndrome b. Severe combined immunodeficiency disease c. Chronic granulomatous disease d. Chédiak-Higashi syndrome

Last Answer : b. Severe combined immunodeficiency disease

Which of the following statements are true of the multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)? A. The “two-hit” model proposes that secondary MODS may be produced when even a relatively minor second insult reactivates, in a more amplified form, the systemic inflammatory response that was primed by an initial insult to the host. B. The systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS), shock due to sepsis or SIRS, and MODS may be regarded as a continuum of illness severity. C. Prolonged stimulation or activation of Kupffer cells in the liver is thought to be a critical factor in the sustained, uncontrolled release of inflammatory mediators. D. The incidence of MODS in intensive care units has decreased owing to increased awareness, prevention, and treatment of the syndrome.

Description : Which of the following statements are true of the multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)? A. The two-hit model proposes that secondary MODS may be produced when even a relatively ... intensive care units has decreased owing to increased awareness, prevention, and treatment of the syndrome.

Last Answer : Answer: ABC DISCUSSION: MODS is part of a clinical continuum that begins with the systemic inflammatory response syndrome, which is the host's stress response to any major insult such ... pathogenesis of MODS, the incidence of MODS continues to increase without a significant improvement in outcome

Which of the following statements regarding the complement system are true? a. Complement activation yields products which are directly cytotoxic as well as products which act indirectly via activated leukocytes b. Complement products referred to as anaphylatoxins include C1, C3a, C4a, and C5a c. The principal role of C5a is in bacterial opsonization d. The alternative and classical pathways converge proximal to generating the membrane attack complex (C5b-9)

Description : Which of the following statements regarding the complement system are true? a. Complement activation yields products which are directly cytotoxic as well as products which act indirectly via activated ... and classical pathways converge proximal to generating the membrane attack complex (C5b-9)

Last Answer : Answer: a, d The complement system is composed of two different but linked sequences, the classic and alternative pathways. The pathways involve serum proteins that act to amplify the inflammatory-immune ... the C5 level proximal to generating the membrane attack complex (C5b-9) (Figure 6-3)

Platelets have a wide array of functions in inflammation. Which of the following are among these? a. Synthesis and release of vasoactive eicosanoids b. Release of chemotactic factors c. Adherence to and coating of bacterial and tumor cells d. Increase of vascular permeability e. Phagocytosis of bacteria

Description : Platelets have a wide array of functions in inflammation. Which of the following are among these? a. Synthesis and release of vasoactive eicosanoids b. Release of chemotactic factors c. ... coating of bacterial and tumor cells d. Increase of vascular permeability e. Phagocytosis of bacteria

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d Platelets are anucleated cells derived from megakaryocytes in the bone marrow. Their central role in hemostasis is well known. Platelets possess a wide ... primitive precursor inflammatory cell. Platelets serve primarily as an amplifier or modulator of the inflammatory response

Which of the following factors can be associated with impaired wound healing? a. Chemotherapy b. Chronic steroid use c. Peripheral vascular disease d. Radiation therapy e. Diabetes mellitus

Description : Which of the following factors can be associated with impaired wound healing? a. Chemotherapy b. Chronic steroid use c. Peripheral vascular disease d. Radiation therapy e. Diabetes mellitus

Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d, e Bone marrow suppression, a common consequence of chemotherapy, is detrimental to wound healing. Quantitative and qualitative lymphocyte and monocyte deficiency impairs cellular ... be a primary cause of impaired healing, and may be also a cofactor with other conditions

Rank the clinical scenarios in order of greatest likelihood of serious postoperative pulmonary complications. A. Transabdominal hysterectomy in an obese woman that requires 3 hours of anesthesia time. B. Right middle lobectomy for bronchogenic cancer in a 65-year-old smoker. C. Vagotomy and pyloroplasty for chronic duodenal ulcer disease in a 50-year-old who had chest film findings of old, healed tuberculosis. D. Right hemicolectomy in an obese 60-year-old smoker. E. Modified radical mastectomy in a 58-year-old woman who is obese.

Description : Rank the clinical scenarios in order of greatest likelihood of serious postoperative pulmonary complications. A. Transabdominal hysterectomy in an obese woman that requires 3 hours of anesthesia time. B. Right ... smoker. E. Modified radical mastectomy in a 58-year-old woman who is obese.

Last Answer : Answer: BDCAE DISCUSSION: If one considers the constellation of risk factors for pulmonary complications that is provided in tabular form in the accompanying chapter, one should ... is associated with relatively little postoperative pain, and provides free and unrestricted respiratory function

Which of the following statements(s) is/are true concerning human energy requirement? a. In normal subjects, less than 5% of basal energy requirement is spent on cardiac output and the work of breathing b. Mechanical ventilation can decrease the energy expenditure for normal respiration c. For a 70 kg male, average resting energy consumption is almost 1500 kcal/day d. Similar increases in energy expenditures are associated with elective surgery and trauma or thermal injury

Description : Which of the following statements(s) is/are true concerning human energy requirement? a. In normal subjects, less than 5% of basal energy requirement is spent on cardiac output and the ... d. Similar increases in energy expenditures are associated with elective surgery and trauma or thermal injury

Last Answer : Answer: a, c Basal energy requirements are measured with the subject at rest when no external work is being done; the energy is used mainly for transport and synthetic work within cells. A ... average-sized adult who sustains a major burn rarely may require more than 3500 kcal/day for maintenance

Transfusions of blood products can be associated with a number of complications including immediate and delayed hemolytic reactions; nonhemolytic reactions; infectious disease transmission; and complications of massive transfusions. Which of the following statements are true concerning complications of blood transfusions? a. Immediate hemolytic transfusion reactions are caused by major ABO blood group incompatibility b. Nonhemolytic transfusion reactions are usually due to RH incompatibility and are therefore more common in women of childbearing age c. The most common complication of massive blood transfusion is dilutional thrombocytopenia d. Routine impaired calcium supplementation is necessary during most massive transfusion episodes

Description : Transfusions of blood products can be associated with a number of complications including immediate and delayed hemolytic reactions; nonhemolytic reactions; infectious disease transmission; and ... d. Routine impaired calcium supplementation is necessary during most massive transfusion episodes

Last Answer : Answer: a, c Immediate hemolytic reactions are usually caused by blood group ABO incompatibility although they may be caused by antigens of other blood group systems ... when associated with massive transfusion during complex intraoperative procedures such as thoracoabdominal aneurysm resection

Which of the following statements about respiratory acidosis are true? A. Compensation occurs by a shift of chloride out of the red blood cells. B. Renal compensation occurs rapidly. C. Retention of bicarbonate and increased ammonia formation are normal compensatory mechanisms. D. Narcotic administration is an unusual cause of respiratory acidosis. E. The ratio of bicarbonate to carbonic acid is less than 20:1.

Description : Which of the following statements about respiratory acidosis are true? A. Compensation occurs by a shift of chloride out of the red blood cells. B. Renal compensation occurs rapidly. C. Retention of ... of respiratory acidosis. E. The ratio of bicarbonate to carbonic acid is less than 20:1.

Last Answer : Answer: CE DISCUSSION: Renal compensation for acute hypoventilation is relatively slow. Depression of the respiratory center by morphine can lead to respiratory acidosis. Renal retention of bicarbonate, ... into red cells combine to increase the ratio of bicarbonate to carbonic acid to 20:1