Description : The mechanism of action of cyclosporine involves (a) Activation of calcineurin (b) Binding to cyclophilin to cause inhibition of a cytoplasmic phosphatase (c) Blockade of interleukin – 2- receptors (d) Inhibition of phospholipase A2 (e) Suppression of bone marrow progenitors
Last Answer : Ans: B
Description : The drug, Interleukin-2, is an example of which type of biologic response modifier? a) Cytokine Other cytokines include interferon alfa and filgrastim. b) Monoclonal antibodies Monoclonal ... an example of a retinoid. d) Antimetabolites Antimetabolites are cell cycle-specific antineoplastic agents.
Last Answer : a) Cytokine Other cytokines include interferon alfa and filgrastim.
Description : Cytokines which play an important role in the metabolic response to injury include: a. Tumor necrosis factor—a (TNF) b. Interleukin-1 (IL-1) c. Interleukin-6 (IL-6) d. Interferon-g
Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d TNF or cachetin is considered the primary mediator of the systemic effects of endotoxin, producing anorexia, fever, tachypnea, and tachycardia at low doses and hypotension, ... infected sells. IFN-g has the ability to upregulate the number of TNF receptors on various cell types
Description : Because of proven beneficial effects on “cardiac remodeling”, these agents are now indicated as first line therapy in CHF patients. Which of the following is representative of this group of drugs? (a) Hydrochlorothiazide (b) Enalapril (c) Furosemide (d) Carvedilol (e) Bumetanide
Description : Which of the following statements regarding neutrophils are true? a. The neutrophil undergoes final maturation after release into the circulation b. Patients with chronic granulomatous disease have a defective ... proteins d. The normal human neutrophil circulates in the blood for 7-10 days
Last Answer : Answer: b, c The neutrophil is a migratory phagocytic cell that defends the host against bacteria and eliminates necrotic tissue. The neutrophil matures in the bone marrow and is ... phagocytose bacteria, they are unable to kill the intracellular microbes and chronic, unresolved infections result
Description : Six months after beginning atorvastatin, the patient's total and LDL cholesterol concentrations remained above normal and he continued to have anginal attacks despite good adherence to his antianginal ... Increased endocytosis of HDL by the liver (e) Increased lipid hydrolysis by lipoprotein lipase
Last Answer : Ans: C
Description : Acute renal failure (ARF) may be caused by all of the following except (a) Acute tubular necrosis (ATN) due to drug therapy (e.g., aminoglycosides, contrast media) (b) Severe hypotension ... (c) Decreased cardiac output, as from congestive heart failure (d) Hemolysis, myoglobinuria (e) Hyperkalemia
Last Answer : Ans: E
Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning tumor necrosis factor (TNF)? a. TNF is a product of activated macrophages secreted in response to contact with endotoxin or ... completed clinical trials of anti-TNF antibody in septic patients shows a marked improvement in survival
Last Answer : Answer: a, b Tumor necrosis factor (TNF), a protein product of activated macrophages, is secreted in response to contact with endotoxin or lipopolysaccharide, antibody complexes, or ... patients utilizing infusion of monoclonal antibodies to the TNF molecule have shown no overall survival benefit
Description : Which of the following statements about septic shock are true? A. A circulating myocardial depressant factor may account for the cardiac dysfunction sometimes seen with shock due to sepsis or ... animal studies that demonstrate a significant improvement in survival with the use of such agents.
Last Answer : Answer: AB DISCUSSION: Shock due to sepsis or SIRS frequently manifests as a hyperdynamic cardiovascular response, consisting of an elevated CI and a decreased SVR or SVRI. Occasionally, ... been encouraging thus far in human clinical trials, despite the promising results from many animal studies
Description : Which of the following statements regarding cytokines is incorrect? A. Cytokines act directly on target cells and may potentiate the actions of one another. B. Interleukin 1 (IL-1) ... organ dysfunction syndrome because of its multiple actions and the secondary cascades that it stimulates.
Last Answer : Answer: C DISCUSSION: Cytokines are soluble peptide molecules that are synthesized and secreted by a number of cell types in response to injury, inflammation, and infection. Cytokines, which ... is thought to play a central role in the stress response, particularly in response to endotoxemia
Description : The following are true about cell-mediated immunity: a. antigen-specific function is the role of the T-lymphocytes b. cell-mediated immunity can activate the complement system c. it is ... the delayed hypersensitivity reaction. d. Gamma interferon is an important mediator of B-cell activation.
Last Answer : cell-mediated immunity can activate the complement system
Description : Methylxanthine drugs such as aminophylline cause which one of the following? (a) Vasoconstriction in many vascular beds (b) Decrease in the amount of cAMP in mast cells (c) Bronchodilation (d) Activation of the enzyme phosphodiesterase (e) Sedation
Description : Platelets have a wide array of functions in inflammation. Which of the following are among these? a. Synthesis and release of vasoactive eicosanoids b. Release of chemotactic factors c. ... coating of bacterial and tumor cells d. Increase of vascular permeability e. Phagocytosis of bacteria
Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d Platelets are anucleated cells derived from megakaryocytes in the bone marrow. Their central role in hemostasis is well known. Platelets possess a wide ... primitive precursor inflammatory cell. Platelets serve primarily as an amplifier or modulator of the inflammatory response
Description : Which of the following agents has a direct effect on the AV mode, delaying calciumchannel depolarization? (a) Lidocaine (b) Diltiazem (c) Bretylium (d) Quinidine (e) Lbutilide
Description : Which of the following agents used in prinzmetal’s angina has spasmolytic actions, which increase coronary blood supply? (a) Nitroglycerin (b) Nifedipine (c) Timolol (d) Isosorbide mononitrate (e) Propranolol
Description : Which of the following cardiovascular agents is classified chemically as a glycoside? (a) Nifedipine (b) Digoxin (c) Flecainide (d) Cholestyramine (e) Warfarin
Description : Activation of endothelin receptor ETA, leads to (a) Vasoconstriction (b) Bronchoconstriction (c) Aldosterone release (d) All of the above
Last Answer : Ans: D
Description : A patient receiving a class I antiarrhythmic agent on a chronic basis complains of fatigue, low-grade fever, and joint pain suggestive of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). The patient is most likely receiving (a) Lidocaine (b) Procainamide (c) Quinidine (d) Flecainide (e) Propranolol
Description : Which of the following thrombolytic agents would be appropriate at this time? (a) Anisoylated plasminogen streptokinase activator complex (APSAC) (b) Streptokinase (SK) (c) Recombinant tissue-type plasminogen activator (t-PA)
Description : What immunodeficiency disorder is associated with a tack of T and B cells and complete immune dysfunction? a. DiGeorge syndrome b. Severe combined immunodeficiency disease c. Chronic granulomatous disease d. Chédiak-Higashi syndrome
Last Answer : b. Severe combined immunodeficiency disease
Description : Frozen tissue section of a lymph node biopsy from the neck of an old dog shows granulomatous inflammation with large areas of necrosis. Which one would be most important to do? C A. cell surface markers for lymphocyte identification B. chromosomal analysis by karyotyping
Last Answer : cultures for acid fast bacilli and fungi
Description : Aspirin in small doses (50 to 150 mg per day) (a) Is of benefit in patients of unstable angina (b) Has thrombolytic action (c) PREFerentially inhibits prostacyclin synthetase enzyme (d) MAY Alleviate need for Verapamil in variant angina
Last Answer : Ans: A
Description : Digoxin given for cardiac failure is extremely valuable in patients of (a) Thyrotoxicosis (b) Beriberi (c) Cor pulmonale (d) Atrial fibrillation
Description : Cytokines with clearly defined actions in acute inflammation and early tissue injury include which of the following? a. Cysteine-X-Cysteine (C-X-C) chemokines b. Tumor Necrosis Factor (TNFa) c. Transforming Growth Factor-b (TGF-b) d. Interleukin-6 (IL-6) e. Platelet Derived Growth Factor (PDGF)
Last Answer : Answer: a, b, c, d, e Polypeptide mediators, such as TNFa and IL-1, are considered early response cytokines and are actively involved in the initiation of the ... of tissue repair. Thus, coagulation and platelet activation provide the initial foundation for subsequent cellular recruitment
Description : The standard management oral anticoagulant therapy for chronic treatment of venous thromboembolism is with the drug warfarin. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the administration ... warfarin be continued for at least one year after initial episode of deep venous thrombosis
Last Answer : Answer: a, b Warfarin interferes with the vitamin K dependent clotting factors II, VII, IX and X, protein C, and protein S. An important complication of warfarin is skin ... the benefit from anticoagulant therapy and thus is the basis for discontinuing warfarin administration at this time
Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning pharmacologic agents used to accelerate wound healing? a. A number of these agents are now currently approved for use in ... healing in chronic wounds d. Growth hormone functions by promoting fibroblast proliferation and collagen synthesis
Last Answer : Answer: b, c Currently there are no approved clinical agents that accelerate normal healing. Although a number of clinical trials are in progress, no agents are currently ... hormone administration significantly accelerates donor site healing, presumably due to its effects in minimizing catabolism
Description : Products of platelet degranulation include: a. Tumor necrosis factor b. Interleukin-1 c. Transforming growth factor b d. Platelet-derived growth factor
Last Answer : Answer: c, d The initial response to injury and disruption of a blood vessel is bleeding. The hemostatic response to this is clot formation to stop hemorrhage. Platelet plug ... . Tumor necrosis factor and interleukin-1 also stimulate fibroblast proliferation, however are produced by macrophages
Description : Cylcoocygenase-II specific inhibitors block the following (a) Production of cytoprotective prostaglandins (b) Tumor necrosis factor - a (c) Production of prostaglandins responsible for pain and inflammation
Description : Bacterial opsonization is mediated by? C A. histamine B. prostaglandin C. immunoglobulins D. tumor Necrosis Factor
Last Answer : immunoglobulins
Description : Which of the following monoclonal antibodies is prescribed for patients with non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma? (A) Infliximab (B) Abciximab (C) Gemtuzumab (D) Rituximab
Last Answer : (D) Rituximab
Description : Which one of the following drugs predictably prolongs the PR interval and increases cardiac contractility? (a) Digoxin (b) Lidocaine (c) Propranolol (d) Quinidine (e) Verapamil
Description : Unfractionated heparin binds to antithrombin III and inactivates clotting factor(s) (a) Xa (b) Ixa (c) Iia (d) All of the above (e) None of the above
Description : What drug is used to prevent embolism in the lung and during myocardial infarction? (a) Alteplase (b) Human growth hormone (c) Granulocyte–macrophage colony – stimulating factor (GM–CSF) (d) EPOGEN (EPO) (e) None of the above
Description : When compared to unfractionated heparin, low molecular weight heparins have (a) Preferential binding affinity to factor Xa relative to Iia (thrombin) (b) Shorter half-lives (c) Dose – dependent renal clearance
Description : Antianginal drugs afford the following benefit/benefits (a) Terminate anginal attacks (b) Decrease the frequency of anginal attacks (c) Retard the progression of coronary artery disease (d) Both (a) and (b)
Description : The term ischemic heart disease (IHD) is used to designate all of the following conditions except (a) Angina pectoris (b) Sudden cardiac death (c) Congestive heart failur (CHF) (d) Arrhythmias
Description : Mary has a family history of heart disease and wonders if garlic would be beneficial to her. Which of the following statements is correct about garlic? (a) Enteric-coated tablets release their contents in ... (c) The safety of garlic in pregnancy is unknown (d) Garlic does not interact with warfarin
Description : Indicate the drug(s) that is/are used to treat chronic hepatitis B: A. Human interferon α B. Lamivudine C. Amantadine D. Both 'A' and 'B'
Last Answer : D. Both 'A' and 'B'
Description : Tolerance to nitroglycerin may be overcome by (a) Initially using the largest safe dose of the drug (b) Using other nitrites (c) Temporarily discontinuing the drug for one or two weeks (d) Use of higher doses (e) None of the above
Description : The chief use of levoarterenol is to treat (a) Shock (b) Diabetes (c) Hypertension (d) Cardiac arrhythmias (e) Iron deficiencies
Description : Which of the following is used to lower blood lipid levels? (a) Trimethadione (b) Clofibrate (c) Flucytosine (d) Coumarin (e) Propranolol
Description : In case of acute pain of angina pectoris the most effective treatment would be to administer (a) Mannitol hexanitrate (b) Erythrityl tetranitrate (c) Sodium nitrate (d) Pentaerythritol tetranitrate (e) Nitroglycerin
Description : The action of digitalis is enhanced by (a) Sodium (b) Calcium (c) Magnesium (d) Potassium (e) Chloride
Description : Overuse of digitalis may result in (a) Habituation (b) Tolerance (c) Addiction (d) Physical dependence (e) Cummulative poisoning
Description : The action of quinidine differs from that of digitalis in (a) Decreasing irritability of cardiac muscle (b) Preventing passage of impulses to the ventricle (c) Increasing irritability of heart muscle (d) Reducing conductivity (e) None of the above
Description : For treating the patient with congestive heart failure (CHF), which of the following dosages of dopamine is selected for its positive inotropic effects? (a) 2.0 mg/kg/min (b) 5–10 mg/kg/min (c) 10–20 mg/kg/min (d) 40 mg/kg/min (e) 40 mg/kg/min
Description : When digoxin is used in a patient with congestive heart failure (CHF), it works by exerting a positive effect on (a) Stroke volume (b) Total peripheral resistance (c) Heart rate (d) Blood pressure (e) Venous return
Description : Which of the following combinations of drugs, when used together, reduce both preload and afterload? (a) Nitroglycerin and isosorbide dinitrate (b) Hydralazine and isosorbide dinitrate (c) Captopril and methyldopa (d) Prazosin and angiotension II (e) Hydralazine and methyldopa
Description : Which of the following groups of symptoms is most often associated with a patient who has right-sided heart failure? (a) Nocturia, rales, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (b) Paroxysmal ... distention (e) Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, jugular venous distention, abdominal distention, shortness of breath
Description : Which of the following drugs is a class IV antiarrhythmic that is primarily indicated for the treatment of supraventricular tachyarrhythmias? (a) Lbutilide (b) Mexiletine (c) Diltiazem (d) Quinidine (e) Propranolol