Description : Salivary glands open into (a) Buccal cavity (b) Oesophagus (c) Stomach (d) All
Last Answer : (a) Buccal cavity
Description : Digestion of starch takes place in (D.P.M.T. 82) (a) stomach and duodenum (b) Buccal cavity duodenum (c) Buccal cavity and oesophagus (d) Duodenum only
Last Answer : (b) Buccal cavity duodenum
Description : Carbohydrate digestion in man starts from (a) Buccal cavity (b) Oesophagus (c) Stomach (d) Intestine
Description : All the following conditions produce a real or functional deficiency of vitamin K except (A) Prolonged oral, broad spectrum antibiotic therapy (B) Total lack of red meat in the diet (C) The total lack of green leafy vegetables in the diet (D) Being a new born infant
Last Answer : Answer : B
Description : A 65 years-old woman arrived for dental therapy. The answered questionnaire shows that she is suffering from severe cirrhosis. The problem that can be anticipated in the routine dental ... oral infection D. Increased tendency to syncope E. Difficulty in achieving adequate local anaesthesia
Last Answer : B. Tendency towards prolonged haemorrhage
Description : Hydrochloric acid is secreted by the cells lining the – (1) Oral cavity (2) Stomach (3) Ileum (4) Colon
Last Answer : (2) Stomach Explanation: The chief cells of the stomach secrete enzymes for protein breakdown (inactive pepsinogen and rennin). Hydrochloric acid activates pepsinogen into the enzyme pepsin, which then helps digestion by breaking the bonds linking amino acids, a process known as proteolysis.
Description : Hydrochloric acid is secreted by the cells lining the (1) Oral cavity (2) Stomach (3) Ileum (4) Colon
Last Answer : Stomach
Description : Prolonged severe acidity may cause a) Hypertension b) Ulcer c) Anxiety d) Hepatitis
Last Answer : b) Ulcer
Description : Which of the following concerning the pH of urine is correct? 1) is a useful indicator of the acid/base balance of the blood 2) rises on a vegetarian diet 3) is determined by the concentration of ... lower than 5.5 in renal tubular acidosis 5) would be above 7.0 after prolonged and severe vomiting
Last Answer : Answers-2 c - excretion of ammonium occurs when an acid urine is produced but the pH of urine is of course determined by the concentration of H+ ions d-unable to lower the pH to ... and distal nephron and this perpetuates the metabolic alkalosis until the fluid balance is restored with IV fluids.
Description : The following is true of proton pump inhibitors except: A. They are the most effective drugs for Zolinger Ellison syndrome B. Their prolonged use can cause atrophy of gastric mucosa C. They inhibit growth of H. pylori in stomach D. They have no effect on gastric motilit
Last Answer : B. Their prolonged use can cause atrophy of gastric mucosa
Description : Brunner’s glands occur in (a) submucosa of duodenum (b) submucosa of stomach (c) mucosa of oesophagus (d) mucosa of ileum.
Last Answer : (a) submucosa of duodenum
Description : Brunner’s glands are present in (a) stomach (b) oesophagus (c) ileum (d) duodenum
Last Answer : (d) duodenum.
Description : Which part of body secretes the hormone secretin? (a) Stomach (b) Oesophagus (c) Ileum (d) Duodenum
Last Answer : (d) Duodenum
Description : Secretin and cholecystokinin are digestive hormones. They are secreted in (a) pyloric stomach (b) duodenum (c) ileum (d) oesophagus.
Last Answer : (b) duodenum
Description : Which one of the following is the true description about an animal concerned? (a) Rat - Left kidney is slightly higher in position than the right one (b) Cockroach - 10 pairs of spiracles (2 ... stomach, gizzard and intestine (d) Frog - Body divisible into three regions - head, neck and trunk
Last Answer : (b) Cockroach - 10 pairs of spiracles (2 pairs on thorax and 8 pairs on abdomen)
Description : The ciliated columnar epithelial cells in humans are known to occur in (a) Eustachian tube and stomach lining (b) bronchioles and Fallopian tube (c) bile duct and oesophagus (d) Fallopian tube and urethra.
Last Answer : (b) bronchioles and Fallopian tube
Description : Minimum peristaltis is found in (a) Oesophagus (b) Stomach (c) Ileum (d) Rectum
Last Answer : (d) Rectum
Description : Pylcrus, a constricted part of alimentary canal is situated between (a) Oesophagus and stomach (b) Stomach and duodenum (c) Duodenum and ileum (d) Ileum and rectum
Last Answer : (b) Stomach and duodenum
Description : Which of the following regions of the alimentary canal of rabbit does not secrete a digestive enzyme ? (a) Mouth (b) Oesophagus (c) Stomach (d) Duodenum
Last Answer : (b) Oesophagus
Description : The site of absorption of alcohol in man is (a) Oesophagus (b) Intestine (c) Large intestine (d) Stomach
Last Answer : (d) Stomach
Description : Achalasia is related with (a) Stomach (b) Oesophagus (c) Intestine (d) None
Description : The sphincter which separates oesophagus from stomach is called: (a) Pyloric sphinctor (b) Cardiac sphinctor (c) Sphinctor of Oddi (d) Anat sphincter
Last Answer : (b) Cardiac sphinctor
Description : Severe patothemic acid deficiency in man has been reported to cause (A) Burning feet syndrome (B) Scurvy (C) Cataract (D) Xeropththalmia
Last Answer : Answer : A
Description : .Which of the following is true: A. Antibiotics are useful in the treatment of periodontitis B. Trauma from occlusion causes thickening of the marginal gingivae C. Periodontitis is the ... can be identified by x-ray E. Periodontitis is the most common disease in the oral cavity
Last Answer : E. Periodontitis is the most common disease in the oral cavity
Description : Prothrombin time is prolonged in (A) Vitamin K deficiency (B) Liver damage (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
Last Answer : Answer : C
Description : An early effect of vitamin a deficiency is (A) Xerophthalmia (B) Keratomalacia (C) Prolonged dark adaptation time (D) Follicular hyperkeratosis
Description : The following is not a valid indication for parenteral iron therapy: A. Inadequate response to oral iron due to patient noncompliance B. Anaemia during pregnancy C. Severe anaemia associated with chronic bleeding D. Anaemia in a patient of active rheumatoid arthritis
Last Answer : B. Anaemia during pregnancy
Description : Ependymal cells lining the cavity of brain and spinal cord constitute (a) epithelioid tissue (b) ealse epithelium (c) mesothelium (d) endothelium
Last Answer : Ans:(b)
Description : Choose the correctly matched pair. (a) Inner lining of - Ciliated epithelium salivary ducts (b) Moist surface - Glandular epithelium of buccal cavity (c) Tubular parts of -Cuboidal epithelium nephrons (d) Inner surface of - Squamous epithelium bronchioles
Last Answer : (c) Tubular parts of -Cuboidal epithelium nephrons
Description : A 55-year-old renal transplant patient has been hospitalized in a Surgical Intensive Care Unit, receiving a prolonged course of antibiotics following an attack of acute cholecystitis. The ... suggest a dosage reduction in immunosuppressive agents until the infection can be adequately controlled
Last Answer : Answer: a, d Infections due to fungal pathogens have become increasingly common during the past decade, frequently occurring in patients undergoing prolonged hospitalization in the Surgical ... agents should be discontinued until evidence of infection is absolutely controlled or is eradicated
Description : Prolonged oral therapy with the following antibiotic can damage intestinal villi resulting in statorrhoea and loose motions (a) Ampicillin (b) Tetracycline (c) Neomycin (d) Nystatin
Last Answer : Ans: C
Description : Prolonged oral therapy with the following antibiotic can damage intestinal villi resulting in steatorrhoea and loose motions: A. Ampicillin B. Tetracycline C. Neomycin D. Nystatin
Last Answer : C. Neomycin
Description : The following is true of levamisole except: A. A single dose cures over 90% cases of round worm infestation B. It is more effective against Necator americanus than against Ancylostoma duodenale C. It has immunomodulating action D. Its prolonged use causes severe reactions
Last Answer : B. It is more effective against Necator americanus than against Ancylostoma duodenale
Description : During teeth eruption, the reduced enamel epithelium merges with the oral epithelium. What is the further development? A. Downgrowth of oral epithelium which replaces the reduced enamel ... which undermines the reduced enamel epithelium E. Gradual transformation of the reduced enamel epithelium
Last Answer : E. Gradual transformation of the reduced enamel epithelium
Description : In severe periodontitis the probe: A. Gets stopped by calculus B. Goes beyond connective tissues of junctional epithelium C. Touches coronal end of junctional epithelium D. Touches the middle of junctional epithelium E. Touches sulculuar epithelium
Last Answer : B. Goes beyond connective tissues of junctional epithelium
Description : In regard to Plummer-Vincent syndrome or “Paterson and Kelly syndrome”: A. Iron deficiency is a feature B. Atrophic oral and gastric mucosa C. Dysphagia and angular cheilitis D. Predisposing oral cancer E. All of the above
Last Answer : E. All of the above
Description : Select the oral iron preparation which does not impart metallic taste and has good oral tolerability despite high iron content but whose efficacy in treating iron deficiency anaemia has been questioned: A. Iron hydroxy polymaltose B. Ferrous succinate C. Ferrous fumarate D. Ferrous gluconate
Last Answer : A. Iron hydroxy polymaltose
Description : Hypervitaminosis K in neonates may cause (A) Porphyria (B) Jaundice (C) Pellagra (D) Prolonged bleeding
Description : Convulsive episodes occur when there is a severe deficiency of: (A) Pyridoxine (B) Folic acid (C) Thiamine (D) Riboflavin
Description : In adults a severe deficiency of vitamin D causes (A) Night blindness (B) Osteomalacia (C) Rickets (D) Skin cancer
Description : Convulsions and delirium could be caused by a severe deficiency of (A) Thiamine (B) Glutamate (C) Niacin (D) Magnesium
Last Answer : Answer : D
Description : Convulsive episodes occur when there is a severe deficiency of (A) Pyridoxine (B) Folic acid (C) Thiamine (D) Riboflavin
Description : Prolonged deficiency of nicotinic acid causes (a) pellagra (b) xerophthalmia (c) osteomalacia (d) anaemia.
Last Answer : (a) pellagra
Description : Von Willebrand disease is, A. Haemophilic disease B. Bacterial Endocarditis C. Congenital cardiac disease D. Rheumatic fever Decreased PTT, bleeding time prolonged, deficiency factor VIII
Last Answer : A. Haemophilic disease
Description : Mixture of food and saliva in oral cavity is called
Last Answer : Mixture of food and saliva in oral cavity is called
Description : A Candida albicans infection of the intestine, vagina, or oral cavity are commonly treated with a. cefotaxime. b. vidarabine. c. streptomycin. d. nystatin.
Last Answer : d. nystatin.
Description : The fungus Candida albicans has been known to infect a. The human intestine. b. The mucous membranes of the oral cavity. c. The female vagina. d. All the above (a-c) are correct.
Last Answer : d. All the above (a-c) are correct.
Description : Which one of the following is NOT a digestive organ of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract? a. Large intestine b. Oral cavity c. Liver d. Small intestine
Last Answer : c. Liver
Description : Treponema species from human oral cavity can be selected by using A- pH of the medium B- .incubation temperature C- cell size and motility D- all of these
Last Answer : cell size and motility