Description : The adhering of tissues on the surgical electrode usually means: A. Current intensity is too high B. Current intensity is too low C. Dispersion plate not applied to patient D. None of the above
Last Answer : B. Current intensity is too low
Description : Colour comparator is used to measure the (A) pH value (B) Electrode potential (C) Colour intensity (D) None of these
Last Answer : Option A
Description : What indicates for a periapical surgery: A. Where performing an endodontic treatment on existing root canal filling may lead to fracture of the root B. When root canal treatment is faulty C. When ... bony defect is so extensive that the edges of the incisors will collapse E. None of the above
Last Answer : A. Where performing an endodontic treatment on existing root canal filling may lead to fracture of the root
Description : Tetracycline hydrochloride conditioning of root surfaces in periodontal surgery is to: A. Sterilise the root surface B. May enhance binding of fibronectin and fibroblast C. Aids in re-mineralising the root surface D. Assist the biding of lamina dura E. Prevents post operative infections
Last Answer : B. May enhance binding of fibronectin and fibroblast
Description : Distortion or change in shape of a cast partial denture clasp during its clinical use probably indicates that the: A. Ductility was too low B. Hardness was too great C. Ultimate tensile strength was too low D. Tension temperature was too high E. Elastic limit was exceeded
Last Answer : E. Elastic limit was exceeded
Description : The most common cause of failure of the IDN “Inferior Dental Nerve” block is, A. Injecting too low B. Injecting too high
Last Answer : A. Injecting too low
Description : Treatment of fibrous dysplasia consists of, A. Resection B. Complete excision if it affects small area; if it is large lesion, limited excision surgery because of the cosmetic considerations. C. Irradiation D. Excision and removal of adjacent teeth E. None of the above
Last Answer : B. Complete excision if it affects small area; if it is large lesion, limited excision surgery because of the cosmetic considerations.
Description : .In an X ray the mesio buccal root of upper first molars is elongated because of: A. Mesio angular horizontal B. Too big vertical angulation C. Too small vertical angulation D. High angulation
Last Answer : C. Too small vertical angulation
Description : __________ is a handheld electro-optical pointing device. It is also called mouse pen. A. Joy Stick B. Light Pen C. Trackball D. Touch Screen
Last Answer : B. Light Pen
Description : If the focal spot to film distance is increased from 20cm to 40cm, the intensity of radiation is reduced by: a. ½ b. ¼ . c. 1/3 d. 1/5
Last Answer : b. ¼ .
Description : If the focal spot to film distance is increased from 20cm to 40cm, the intensity of radiation is reduced by: A. ½ B. ¼ C. 1/3 D. 1/5
Last Answer : B. ¼
Description : The inverse Square Law is concerned with intensity of radiation using type D film of 200mm target to film distance, the exposure time was 0.25s. What would be the exposure for the same situation with 400mm target to film distance? M07********** A. 0.5s B. 1.0s C. 2.0s D. 0.25s E. 0.125s
Last Answer : B. 1.0s
Description : The most accurate way to evaluate the effectiveness of root planning is by: A. Inspect the root surface with an instrument for root smoothness B. Use air for visual inspection C. Activate a ... the appointment for a decrease oedema and bleeding E. Evaluate the soft tissues 10 to 14 days later.
Last Answer : E. Evaluate the soft tissues 10 to 14 days later.
Description : A patient suffers a blow to his maxillary central incisor without resulting in fracture. The pulp may: A. Show immediate necrosis B. Become non-vital but only if treatment is delayed too long C. Become non vital irrespective of treatment D. No changes are seen later if fracture does not occur
Last Answer : C. Become non vital irrespective of treatment
Description : The major disadvantage of self-threaded pins is: A. Friction locked B. Too expensive C. Not all sizes available D. May cause tooth cracking
Last Answer : D. May cause tooth cracking
Description : High copper amalgam lasts longer than low copper amalgam because of:** A. Increased compressive strength B. Increased corrosion resistance C. High creep D. Increased tensile strength E. Decreased setting expansion
Last Answer : A. Increased compressive strength
Description : In class II preparation it is difficult to place the gingival seat when preparation is extended too gingivally because the: A. Enamel rods are directed occlusally B. Marked cervical constriction
Last Answer : B. Marked cervical constriction
Description : An opening between the bladder and the vagina is called a a) vesicovaginal fistula. A vesicovaginal fistula may occur because of tissue injury sustained during surgery, vaginal delivery, or a disease ... d) rectovaginal fistula. A rectovaginal fistula is an opening between the rectum and the vagina.
Last Answer : a) vesicovaginal fistula. A vesicovaginal fistula may occur because of tissue injury sustained during surgery, vaginal delivery, or a disease process.
Description : .In minor oral surgery which is TRUE in regard to antibiotics: a. Amoxil is satisfactory against most oral infection. b. Metronidazole and Amoxil have the same penetrating power. c. It is evident that it will reduce post operative swelling.
Last Answer : a. Amoxil is satisfactory against most oral infection.
Description : The MOST primary treatment of ANUG in HIV patient is: A. Prescribe antibiotics B. Debridement and antimicrobial rinses C. Gingivoplasty D. Flap surgery
Last Answer : B. Debridement and antimicrobial rinses
Description : In regard to periapical lesions, what is TRUE: A. Are predominantly anaerobic B. Must be treated by antibiotics C. Must always treated by surgery
Last Answer : A. Are predominantly anaerobic
Description : Thrombo cytopenic purpura would complicate surgery by: A. Oedema B. Haemorrhage C. Acute infection
Last Answer : B. Haemorrhage
Description : Prophylactic administration of antibiotic is indicated before oral surgery in patients with: A. Herpes simplex B. Whooping cough C. Bacterial endocarditis
Last Answer : C. Bacterial endocarditis
Description : In regard to third molar surgery: A. Maximum swelling is seen after 24-48 hours B. Prophylactic antibiotic will reduce swelling C. Antibiotic cover is compulsory
Last Answer : A. Maximum swelling is seen after 24-48 hours
Description : In minor oral surgery, what is TRUE in regard to antibiotics: A. Amoxil is satisfactory against most oral infections B. Metronidazole and Amoxil have the same penetrating power C. It is evident that it will reduce post operative swelling
Last Answer : A. Amoxil is satisfactory against most oral infections
Description : Antibiotics should be used routinely to prevent infection arising from oral surgery in patients suffering from all the following EXCEPT: A. Agranulocytosis B. Sever uncontrolled diabetes C. Aplastic anaemia D. Mumps E. Leukaemia
Last Answer : D. Mumps
Description : Which of the following statement is correct for a periodontal disease:** A. The finger pressure is enough for mobility diagnosis B. A communicable disease C. X ray after intra alveolar surgery ... diagnosis healing D. Systemic diseases have no effects on it E. ZoE paste will accelerate healing
Last Answer : E. ZoE paste will accelerate healing
Description : The prognosis of teeth with apical resorption is : A. Poor B. Good if apex can be sealed C. Dependant upon periapical surgery D. Contingent upon systemic antibiotic therapy combined with treatment of the canal
Last Answer : B. Good if apex can be sealed
Description : How would you treat Epidermoid Carcinoma: A. Excision B. Excision and extraction of teeth C. Radiation D. Surgery and radiation
Last Answer : D. Surgery and radiation
Description : Signs and symptoms that commonly suggest cardiac failure in a patient being assessed for oral surgery are, A. Elevated temperature and nausea B. Palpitations and malaise C. Ankle oedema and dyspnoea D. Erythema and pain E. Pallor and tremor
Last Answer : C. Ankle oedema and dyspnoea
Description : An 8 years-old child who has sustained a fracture of maxillary permanent central incisor in which 2mm of the pulp is exposed presents for treatment three hours after injury. Which of the ... - Pulpotomy using formocresol. d- Pulpectomy and immediate root filling. e- Pulpectomy and apexification.
Last Answer : a- Remove the surface 1. 2 mm of pulp tissue and place calcium hydroxide
Description : In removable partial dentures, the principle of an indirect retainer is that it: a. Stabilises against lateral movement b. Prevents settling of major connectors c. Restricts tissue movement at ... base of the partial denture. d. Minimises movement of the base away from the supporting tissue
Last Answer : d. Minimises movement of the base away from the supporting tissue
Description : Amalgam restoration, when do you have to replace it? a. Ditching of the edges. b. The probe penetrates the area between the margin and tooth tissue. c. Fissure of the surface of the amalgam. d. When there is chronic inflammation of the pulp.
Last Answer : c. Fissure of the surface of the amalgam.
Description : Denture stomatitis is commonly associated with, A. The continuous wearing of removable orthodontic appliances in otherwise healthy patient B. The proliferation of hypertrophic tissue at the denture ... overgrowth of some constituents of oral normal microflora D. Allergy to denture base material
Last Answer : C. The overgrowth of some constituents of oral normal microflora
Description : Which of the following is true in regard to smoking, A. Smokers keratosis is common but metaplasia activity is not recognised B. Redox potential is increased resulting in aerobic bacteria C. Tissue perfusion is decreased resulting in increased infection
Last Answer : A. Smokers keratosis is common but metaplasia activity is not recognised
Description : In the construction of a full veneer gold crown, future recession of gingival tissue can be prevented or at least minimised by, A. Extension of the crown 1 mm under the gingival crevice B. ... of the crown D. Slight under contouring of the tooth in the gingival one fifth of the crown
Last Answer : B. Reproduction of normal tooth incline in the gingival one third of the crown
Description : If aesthetic is not a concern what is the first thing to do to treat soreness under dentures, A. Take the denture off for a week B. Rinse the denture in nystatin C. Apply tissue conditioner
Last Answer : A. Take the denture off for a week
Description : The principal reasons for placing a gingival interproximal wedge in conjunction with a matrix for amalgam condensation are to: 1. separate the teeth slightly 2. keep the band tight at the gingival margin 3. contribute to the ... b. 1,2,4 c. 2,3,4 d. 1,3,4 e. all of the above
Last Answer : e. all of the above
Description : The biologic width is the distance between the A. Base of the gingival sulcus and the crest of alveolar bone B. Free gingival margin and the base of the gingival sulcus C. ... gingival margin and the mucogingival junction E. Free gingival margin and the base of connective tissue attachment
Last Answer : A. Base of the gingival sulcus and the crest of alveolar bone
Description : What is the Bilaminar Zone:** A. Formed of, or having, two laminae, or thin plates. Which is the distal attachment of superior hard lateral plate B. A vascular, innervated tissue that plays an important role in allowing the condyle to move foreward
Last Answer : B. A vascular, innervated tissue that plays an important role in allowing the condyle to move foreward
Description : X rays are used in endodontic treatment to: A. Aid in the diagnosis of periapical hard tissue lesion B. Determine the number, location, shape, size and direction of roots and root canals C. Confirm ... root canals D. Evaluate the adequacy of the complete root canal filling E. All of the above
Last Answer : E. All of the above
Description : Which is the only dental tissue that loses its formative cells as it matures: A. Enamel B. Dentine C. Pulp D. Cementum
Last Answer : A. Enamel
Description : The articular surface of the normal temporomandibular joint are lined with, A. A specially adapted, highly fibrous tissue B. Hyaline cartilage C. Chondroitin-6-phosphate D. Highly vesiculated tissues
Last Answer : A. A specially adapted, highly fibrous tissue
Description : In removable partial denture, the principle of an indirect retainer is to: A. Stabilise against lateral movement B. Prevent settling of major connectors C. Restrict tissue movement at the distal ... base of the partial denture D. Minimise movement of the base away from the supporting tissue
Last Answer : D. Minimise movement of the base away from the supporting tissue
Description : To remove the pulp tissue from a narrow canal, you can use: A. Barbed broach B. Small K-Type file C. Smooth broach D. Reamer s.
Last Answer : B. Small K-Type file
Description : Tissue conditioning materials: (Silicon lining materials) A. are more resilient than plastic acrylic B. can minimise any bacterial colonies
Last Answer : A. are more resilient than plastic acrylic
Description : Periodontal damage to abutment teeth of partial denture with distal extension can best be avoided by, A. Applying Stressbreakers B. Employing bar s on all abutment teeth C. Maintaining tissue support ... area E. Maintaining the clasp arms on all abutment teeth at the ideal degree of tension
Last Answer : C. Maintaining tissue support of the distal extension
Description : 8 years old child who has sustained a fracture of maxillary permanent central incisor in which 2mm of the pulp is exposed; presents for treatment three hours after injury. Which of the ... C. Pulpotomy using formocresol D. Pulpectomy and immediate root filling E. Pulpectomy and apexification
Last Answer : A. Remove the surface 1-2 mm of pulp tissue and place calcium hydroxide (Cvek pulpotomy, apexogenesis)
Description : Trichloroacetic acid, a strong acid, has been used by dentists for chemical cautery of hypertrophic tissue and aphthous ulcers; its mechanism of action is, BOUCHERS P 194 A. Thermodynamic ... Activation of tissue enzymes C. Osmotic pressure D. Protein precipitation (PPT) E. Neutralization
Last Answer : D. Protein precipitation (PPT)
Description : Suppuration is mainly the result of the combined action of four factors; which of the following is not one of these factors?CHECK A. Necrosis B. Presence of lymphocytes C. Collection of neutrophils D. Accumulation of tissue fluid E. Autolysis by proteolytic enzymes
Last Answer : B. Presence of lymphocytes