A controlled flight is required to inform the concerned ATC unit when the average TAS at cruising level deviates or is expected to deviate compared to that given TAS in the Flight Plan by at least plus or minus: a. 10% b. 3% c. 5% d. 2%

A controlled flight is required to inform the concerned ATC unit when the average TAS at  cruising level deviates or is expected to deviate compared to that given TAS in the Flight Plan  by at least plus or minus:  
a. 10%  
b. 3%  
c. 5%  
d. 2%
by

1 Answer

Answer :

d. 2%
by

Related questions

A controlled flight is required to inform the concerned ATC unit when the average TAS at cruising level deviates or is expected to deviate compared to that given TAS in the Flight Plan by at least plus or minus: a. 10% b. 3% c. 5% d. 2%

Description : A controlled flight is required to inform the concerned ATC unit when the average TAS at cruising level deviates or is expected to deviate compared to that given TAS in the Flight Plan by at least plus or minus: a. 10% b. 3% c. 5% d. 2%

Last Answer : d. 2%

In the event of an act of unlawful interference, which of the following is the correct procedure to be taken by the pilot in command? a. Squawk 7700 if the situation requires and continue the flight as per the ATC clearance received if possible b. Squawk 7500 and broadcast a warning to ATC other traffic on 121.500MHz or the frequency in use whilst maintaining the flight as cleared c. Squawk 7500 (or 7700 if required) and broadcast a warning if the situation forces deviation from the cleared flight plan d. If forced to deviate from the flight plan, climb or descend to altitudes that differ from the normal cruising altitudes by 1000ft

Description : In the event of an act of unlawful interference, which of the following is the correct procedure to be taken by the pilot in command? a. Squawk 7700 if the situation requires and continue ... the flight plan, climb or descend to altitudes that differ from the normal cruising altitudes by 1000ft

Last Answer : c. Squawk 7500 (or 7700 if required) and broadcast a warning if the situation forces deviation from the cleared flight plan

You make a diversion from the route given in the flight plan and land at an uncontrolled airfield. Within what time after landing should you inform ATC? a. 10 mins b. 20 mins c. 30 mins d. 45 mins

Description : You make a diversion from the route given in the flight plan and land at an uncontrolled airfield. Within what time after landing should you inform ATC? a. 10 mins b. 20 mins c. 30 mins d. 45 mins

Last Answer : c. 30 mins

If the track on an instrument departure is published, the pilot is expected to: a. Correct for the correct wind so as to stay within controlled airspace b. Ask ATC for another heading to steer correcting for wind c. Ignore the wind and proceed with a heading equal to the track d. Ask ATC for permission to correct heading for wind

Description : If the track on an instrument departure is published, the pilot is expected to: a. Correct for the correct wind so as to stay within controlled airspace b. Ask ATC for another heading to steer ... proceed with a heading equal to the track d. Ask ATC for permission to correct heading for wind

Last Answer : a. Correct for the correct wind so as to stay within controlled airspace

The person having overall responsibility of an aircraft during flight is the: a. Pilot in command b. Operator c. ATC controller if the aircraft is in controlled airspace d. Owner of the aircraft

Description : The person having overall responsibility of an aircraft during flight is the: a. Pilot in command b. Operator c. ATC controller if the aircraft is in controlled airspace d. Owner of the aircraft

Last Answer : a. Pilot in command

If an ATC clearance is not suitable, the PIC may: a. Offer ATC an acceptable clearance b. Request and if practicable accept an amended clearance c. Demand an alternative clearance and ATC must comply d. Decline the clearance on the grounds that it is not in accordance with the field flight plan

Description : If an ATC clearance is not suitable, the PIC may: a. Offer ATC an acceptable clearance b. Request and if practicable accept an amended clearance c. Demand an alternative clearance and ATC must ... d. Decline the clearance on the grounds that it is not in accordance with the field flight plan

Last Answer : b. Request and if practicable accept an amended clearance

When the Captain cannot comply with an ATC clearance: a. The Captain must accept the ATC clearance, because it is based on a filed flight plan b. He/she may request an amended clearance and, if executable, he/she will accept that clearance c. He/she may ask a new clearance and the appropriate ATC must grant him/her that clearance d. He/she may suggest a new clearance to ATC

Description : When the Captain cannot comply with an ATC clearance: a. The Captain must accept the ATC clearance, because it is based on a filed flight plan b. He/she may request an amended clearance and, if ... appropriate ATC must grant him/her that clearance d. He/she may suggest a new clearance to ATC

Last Answer : b. He/she may request an amended clearance and, if executable, he/she will accept that clearance

A flight is planned from L to M, distance 850 nm. Wind component out is 35 kt(TWC), TAS 450kt. Mean fuel flow out is 2500kg/hr, mean fuel flow inbound is 1900kg/hr and the fuel available is 6000kg. The time and distance to PSR is: a. 1hr 30 min, 660nm b. 1hr 30 min, 616nm c. 1hr 15 min, 606nm d. 1hr 16 min, 616nm

Description : A flight is planned from L to M, distance 850 nm. Wind component out is 35 kt(TWC), TAS 450kt. Mean fuel flow out is 2500kg/hr, mean fuel flow inbound is 1900kg/hr and the fuel available is 6000kg. The time ... 30 min, 660nm b. 1hr 30 min, 616nm c. 1hr 15 min, 606nm d. 1hr 16 min, 616nm

Last Answer : d. 1hr 16 min, 616nm

For a controlled flight before departure, a flight plan must be filed at least: a. 50 minutes before off-block time b. 60 minutes before departure c. 10 minutes before departure d. 30 minutes before off-block time

Description : For a controlled flight before departure, a flight plan must be filed at least: a. 50 minutes before off-block time b. 60 minutes before departure c. 10 minutes before departure d. 30 minutes before off-block time

Last Answer : b. 60 minutes before departure

On receipt of a TCAS RA, your action is to: a. Initiate the required maneuver immediately b. Make a note of the details c. Request a flight clearance deviation from ATC d. Do nothing until a TA is received

Description : On receipt of a TCAS RA, your action is to: a. Initiate the required maneuver immediately b. Make a note of the details c. Request a flight clearance deviation from ATC d. Do nothing until a TA is received

Last Answer : a. Initiate the required maneuver immediately

Except when cleared by an ATC unit, a VFR flight cannot enter or leave a Control Zone when the cloud base is lower than: a. 1000 feet and less than 8km visibility b. 2000 feet and less than 5km visibility c. 1500 feet or less than 5km visibility d. 1000 feet and less than 5km visibility

Description : Except when cleared by an ATC unit, a VFR flight cannot enter or leave a Control Zone when the cloud base is lower than: a. 1000 feet and less than 8km visibility b. 2000 feet and less than 5km visibility c. 1500 feet or less than 5km visibility d. 1000 feet and less than 5km visibility

Last Answer : c. 1500 feet or less than 5km visibility

At the alternate aerodrome, the commander of a turbojet engine aeroplane should have a fuel quantity (final reserve) sufficient for flying during: a. 30 minutes at holding flight speed at 1,500 ft b. 45 minutes at holding flight speed at 1,500 ft c. 30 minutes at cruising speed d. 45 minutes at cruising speed

Description : At the alternate aerodrome, the commander of a turbojet engine aeroplane should have a fuel quantity (final reserve) sufficient for flying during: a. 30 minutes at holding flight speed at 1,500 ft b. 45 ... speed at 1,500 ft c. 30 minutes at cruising speed d. 45 minutes at cruising speed

Last Answer : a. 30 minutes at holding flight speed at 1,500 ft

If a transponder is unserviceable before an IFR departure, then the pilot: a. Has to cancel the flight b. May proceed with the flight with ATC permission c. Has to fly low level only d. Should fly for another company

Description : If a transponder is unserviceable before an IFR departure, then the pilot: a. Has to cancel the flight b. May proceed with the flight with ATC permission c. Has to fly low level only d. Should fly for another company

Last Answer : b. May proceed with the flight with ATC permission

Clearance limit is defined as: a. The flight level to which an aircraft is granted ATC clearance b. The time at which the ATC clearance expires c. The point to which aircraft is granted ATC clearance d. The height below which you will hit the first obstacle

Description : Clearance limit is defined as: a. The flight level to which an aircraft is granted ATC clearance b. The time at which the ATC clearance expires c. The point to which aircraft is granted ATC clearance d. The height below which you will hit the first obstacle

Last Answer : c. The point to which aircraft is granted ATC clearance

You make a diversion from the route given in the flight plan and land at an uncontrolled airfield. Within what time after landing should you inform ATC? a. 10 mins b. 20 mins c. 30 mins d. 45 mins

Description : You make a diversion from the route given in the flight plan and land at an uncontrolled airfield. Within what time after landing should you inform ATC? a. 10 mins b. 20 mins c. 30 mins d. 45 mins

Last Answer : c. 30 mins

When supplying emergency lighting loads, the storage battery initial voltage must not exceed the standard system voltage by more than _____________. A. 2% B. 3% C. 5% D. 10%

Description : When supplying emergency lighting loads, the storage battery initial voltage must not exceed the standard system voltage by more than _____________. A. 2% B. 3% C. 5% D. 10%

Last Answer : Answer: C

Nandu purchased a mobile phone and got a discount of 5% from dealer. he sold that mobile phone at a profit of 10% on his purchase price. What is the percentage profit on actual price of the mobile phone? 1. 2% 2. 3% 3. 4% 4. 4.5 %

Description : Nandu purchased a mobile phone and got a discount of 5% from dealer. he sold that mobile phone at a profit of 10% on his purchase price. What is the percentage profit on actual price of the mobile phone? 1. 2% 2. 3% 3. 4% 4. 4.5 %

Last Answer : 4. 4.5 %

The transition from IFR to VFR is done: a. On the Captain’s initiative b. Whenever an aircraft in VMC leaves controlled airspace c. If told by ATC d. At the clearance limit, disregarding the weather situation

Description : The transition from IFR to VFR is done: a. On the Captain’s initiative b. Whenever an aircraft in VMC leaves controlled airspace c. If told by ATC d. At the clearance limit, disregarding the weather situation

Last Answer : a. On the Captain’s initiative

When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall continuously operate this mode: a. Only when directed by ATC b. Unless otherwise directed by ATC c. Only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace d. Regardless of ATC instructions

Description : When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall continuously operate this mode: a. Only when directed by ATC b. Unless otherwise directed by ATC c. Only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace d. Regardless of ATC instructions

Last Answer : b. Unless otherwise directed by ATC

Pilots are not allowed to use the indent function on their SSR, unless: a. They operate outside controlled airspace b. If asked by ATC c. Within controlled airspace d. They operate a transponder with mode C

Description : Pilots are not allowed to use the indent function on their SSR, unless: a. They operate outside controlled airspace b. If asked by ATC c. Within controlled airspace d. They operate a transponder with mode C

Last Answer : b. If asked by ATC

The transition from IFR to VFR is done: a. On the Captain’s initiative b. Whenever an aircraft in VMC leaves controlled airspace c. If told by ATC d. At the clearance limit, disregarding the weather situation

Description : The transition from IFR to VFR is done: a. On the Captain’s initiative b. Whenever an aircraft in VMC leaves controlled airspace c. If told by ATC d. At the clearance limit, disregarding the weather situation

Last Answer : a. On the Captain’s initiative

You are cruising at FL 200, OAT is -40°C, sea level pressure is 1033 hPa. Calculate the true altitude. a. 20,660 ft b. 21,740 ft c. 18,260 ft d. 19, 340 ft

Description : You are cruising at FL 200, OAT is -40°C, sea level pressure is 1033 hPa. Calculate the true altitude. a. 20,660 ft b. 21,740 ft c. 18,260 ft d. 19, 340 ft

Last Answer : d. 19, 340 ft

Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig. 4.2 & 4.5.3.2 Estimated take-off mass 57,000kg; ground distance 150nm; temperature ISA -10C; cruise at M0.74. What is the optimum cruise altitude and TAS? a. 25,000ft & 445kt b. 33,000ft & 420kt c. 25,000ft & 435kt d. 33,000ft & 430kt

Description : Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig. 4.2 & 4.5.3.2 Estimated take-off mass 57,000kg; ground distance 150nm; temperature ISA -10C; cruise at M0.74. What is the optimum cruise altitude and TAS? a. 25,000ft & 445kt b. 33,000ft & 420kt c. 25,000ft & 435kt d. 33,000ft & 430kt

Last Answer : c. 25,000ft & 435kt

After flying for 16 minutes at 100kt TAS with a 20kt tail wind, you have to return to the airfield of departure. You will arrive after: a. 10 min 40 sec b. 20 min c. 24 min d. 16 min

Description : After flying for 16 minutes at 100kt TAS with a 20kt tail wind, you have to return to the airfield of departure. You will arrive after: a. 10 min 40 sec b. 20 min c. 24 min d. 16 min

Last Answer : c. 24 min

A stall warning device must be set to operate: a. At the stalling speed b. At a speed just below the stalling speed c. At a speed about 5% to 10% above the stalling speed d. At a speed about 20% above the stalling speed

Description : A stall warning device must be set to operate: a. At the stalling speed b. At a speed just below the stalling speed c. At a speed about 5% to 10% above the stalling speed d. At a speed about 20% above the stalling speed

Last Answer : c. At a speed about 5% to 10% above the stalling speed

What is required for an IFR flight in advisory airspace? a. No flight plan required b. Flight plan required and PIC must notify of any changes regardless if wanting advisory service or not c. Flight plan required but PIC need not notify of any changes d. A flight plan is only required if advisory service is required

Description : What is required for an IFR flight in advisory airspace? a. No flight plan required b. Flight plan required and PIC must notify of any changes regardless if wanting advisory service or not c ... need not notify of any changes d. A flight plan is only required if advisory service is required

Last Answer : b. Flight plan required and PIC must notify of any changes regardless if wanting advisory service or not

The message “CHECK” to an aircraft means that you should: a. Confirm that you received and understood the last message b. Pass the required information to ATC c. Stay where you are d. Examine a system or procedure

Description : The message “CHECK” to an aircraft means that you should: a. Confirm that you received and understood the last message b. Pass the required information to ATC c. Stay where you are d. Examine a system or procedure

Last Answer : d. Examine a system or procedure

The DME in an aircraft, cruising at FL210, fails to achieve a lock on a DME at MSL at a range of 210nm. The reason for this is: a. The beacon is saturated b. The aircraft is beyond the maximum usable range for DME c. The aircraft is beyond line of sight range d. The aircraft signal is too weak at the range to trigger a response

Description : The DME in an aircraft, cruising at FL210, fails to achieve a lock on a DME at MSL at a range of 210nm. The reason for this is: a. The beacon is saturated b. The aircraft is beyond ... is beyond line of sight range d. The aircraft signal is too weak at the range to trigger a response

Last Answer : c. The aircraft is beyond line of sight range

What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect? a. A decrease in parasite drag permitting a lower angle of attack b. An increase induced drag and a requirement for a higher angle of attack c. An increase in dynamic stability d. A decrease in induced drag requiring a smaller angle of attack

Description : What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect? a. A decrease in parasite drag permitting a lower angle of attack b. An increase induced drag and a requirement ... increase in dynamic stability d. A decrease in induced drag requiring a smaller angle of attack

Last Answer : b. An increase induced drag and a requirement for a higher angle of attack

Total Air Temperature is: a. The maximum temperature attainable by the air when brought to rest, adiabatically b. The temperature indicated on the air temperature thermometer plus the ram rise c. The static air temperature minus the recovery factor d. The recovery factor plus the ram rise

Description : Total Air Temperature is: a. The maximum temperature attainable by the air when brought to rest, adiabatically b. The temperature indicated on the air temperature thermometer plus the ram rise c. The static air temperature minus the recovery factor d. The recovery factor plus the ram rise

Last Answer : a. The maximum temperature attainable by the air when brought to rest, adiabatically

True track 215; mountain elevation 11,600ft; local airfield gives QNH as 1035mb; required terrain clearance 1500ft; temperature ISA -15C. Which of the following is the minimum flight level considering the temperature? a. FL150 b. FL140 c. FL120 d. FL110

Description : True track 215; mountain elevation 11,600ft; local airfield gives QNH as 1035mb; required terrain clearance 1500ft; temperature ISA -15C. Which of the following is the minimum flight level considering the temperature? a. FL150 b. FL140 c. FL120 d. FL110

Last Answer : b. FL140

According to 2017 census what is the share of FATA in the total Population of Pakistan A. 3% B. 2% C. 1% D. 0.5%

Description : According to 2017 census what is the share of FATA in the total Population of Pakistan A. 3% B. 2% C. 1% D. 0.5%

Last Answer : ANSWER: B

According to 2017 census what is the share of FATA in the total Population of Pakistan A. 3% B. 2% C. 1% D. 0.5%

Description : According to 2017 census what is the share of FATA in the total Population of Pakistan A. 3% B. 2% C. 1% D. 0.5%

Last Answer : ANSWER: B

To be a regional party the minimum percentage of votes, that a party needs to secure in any election is (1) 2% (2) 3% (3) 4% (4) 5%

Description : To be a regional party the minimum percentage of votes, that a party needs to secure in any election is (1) 2% (2) 3% (3) 4% (4) 5%

Last Answer : 2) 3% Explanation: According to the rules, a party has to win three percent of the total number of seats in a state assembly to become a regional party. In October 2011, the Election Commission ( ... the total valid votes polled in a state in addition to winning at least two seats in that Assembly.

What is the approximate percentage of earth coverage of a geostationary satellite at zero degree elevation? A. 33.3% B. 45.2% C. 42.5% D. 30.5%

Description : What is the approximate percentage of earth coverage of a geostationary satellite at zero degree elevation? A. 33.3% B. 45.2% C. 42.5% D. 30.5%

Last Answer : C. 42.5%

Present rate of interested on on 1, 2, 4, 5 years fixed deposit(TD) is a) 6.25%, 6.50%, 7.25%, 7.50% b) 7.25%, 7.50%, 8%, 8.2% c) 8.2%, 8.3%, 8.4%, 8.5% d) None of these

Description : Present rate of interested on on 1, 2, 4, 5 years fixed deposit(TD) is a) 6.25%, 6.50%, 7.25%, 7.50% b) 7.25%, 7.50%, 8%, 8.2% c) 8.2%, 8.3%, 8.4%, 8.5% d) None of these

Last Answer : c) 8.2%, 8.3%, 8.4%, 8.5%

Rebate available at the time of reset of meter is a) 2% b) 3% c) 5% d) none of these

Description : Rebate available at the time of reset of meter is a) 2% b) 3% c) 5% d) none of these

Last Answer : b) 3%

If the nominal interest rate is 5% and the inflation rate is 2%, the real interest rate is: a. 2% b. 3% c. 5% d. 7% e. 2 ½%

Description : If the nominal interest rate is 5% and the inflation rate is 2%, the real interest rate is: a. 2% b. 3% c. 5% d. 7% e. 2 ½%

Last Answer : b. 3%

Bureau of Indian standards has specified that the total grain loss should not be more than 5% in which broken grain should be less than 2%. a. 3% b. 2.5% d. None of above

Description : Bureau of Indian standards has specified that the total grain loss should not be more than 5% in which broken grain should be less than 2%. a. 3% b. 2.5% d. None of above

Last Answer : Ans-      c. 2%.

The cement becomes useless if its absorbed moisture content exceeds [ A ] 1% [ B ] 2% [ C ] 3% [ D ] 5%

Description : The cement becomes useless if its absorbed moisture content exceeds [ A ] 1% [ B ] 2% [ C ] 3% [ D ] 5%

Last Answer : [ D ] 5%

39. India is one of the twelve “Mega diversity countries” in the world due to ... e) Having 2.5% of the land area and 8.2% global species diversity. f) Having 2.4% of the land area and 8.1% global species diversity. g) Having 2.6% of the land area and 8.3% global species diversity. h) Having 2.4% of the land area and 8.2% global species diversity.

Description : 39. India is one of the twelve Mega diversity countries in the world due to ... e) Having 2.5% of the land area and 8.2% global species diversity. f) Having 2.4% of the land area and 8. ... area and 8.3% global species diversity. h) Having 2.4% of the land area and 8.2% global species diversity.

Last Answer : f) Having 2.4% of the land area and 8.1% global species diversity.

19. India is one of the twelve “Mega diversity countries” in the world due to ... a) Having 2.5% of the land area and 8.2% global species diversity. b) Having 2.4% of the land area and 8.1% global species diversity. c) Having 2.6% of the land area and 8.3% global species diversity. d) Having 2.4% of the land area and 8.2% global species diversity.

Description : 19. India is one of the twelve Mega diversity countries in the world due to ... a) Having 2.5% of the land area and 8.2% global species diversity. b) Having 2.4% of the land area and 8.1% ... area and 8.3% global species diversity. d) Having 2.4% of the land area and 8.2% global species diversity.

Last Answer : b) Having 2.4% of the land area and 8.1% global species diversity.

Educational cess is charges at the rate of …….. A) 2% B) 1% C) 3% D) 5%

Description : Educational cess is charges at the rate of …….. A) 2% B) 1% C) 3% D) 5%

Last Answer : C) 3%

Repetitive flight plans (RPL’s) cannot be used for flights other than those executed frequently on the same days of the following weeks and: a. For at least 20 occasions or every day over a period of at least 20 consecutive days b. For at least 20 consecutive days c. For at least 10 occasions or every day over a period of at least 10 consecutive days d. For at least 20 occasions

Description : Repetitive flight plans (RPL's) cannot be used for flights other than those executed frequently on the same days of the following weeks and: a. For at least 20 occasions or every day over a period of ... or every day over a period of at least 10 consecutive days d. For at least 20 occasions

Last Answer : c. For at least 10 occasions or every day over a period of at least 10 consecutive days

Which of the following would give the best indication of speed? a. A VOR on the flight plan route b. A VOR off the flight plan route c. A DME on the flight plan route d. A DME off the flight plan route

Description : Which of the following would give the best indication of speed? a. A VOR on the flight plan route b. A VOR off the flight plan route c. A DME on the flight plan route d. A DME off the flight plan route

Last Answer : c. A DME on the flight plan route

For a flight plan filed before flight, the indicated time of departure is: a. The time overhead the first reporting point after take-off b. The time at which the flight plan is filed c. The estimated off-block time d. The time of take-off

Description : For a flight plan filed before flight, the indicated time of departure is: a. The time overhead the first reporting point after take-off b. The time at which the flight plan is filed c. The estimated off-block time d. The time of take-off

Last Answer : c. The estimated off-block time

What is the Total Elapsed Time on a VFR flight plan? a. From take-off to overhead destination b. From take-off to overhead destination + 15 mins c. From take-off to landing d. From taxi to arrival on the gate

Description : What is the Total Elapsed Time on a VFR flight plan? a. From take-off to overhead destination b. From take-off to overhead destination + 15 mins c. From take-off to landing d. From taxi to arrival on the gate

Last Answer : a. From take-off to overhead destination

In flight, it is possible to: i. File an IFR flight plan ii. Modify an active flight plan iii. Cancel a VFR flight plan iv. Close a VFR flight plan (rules of the air ann2 3.3.5) a. i and ii b. i, ii, iii and iv c. ii, iii and iv d. i and iv

Description : In flight, it is possible to: i. File an IFR flight plan ii. Modify an active flight plan iii. Cancel a VFR flight plan iv. Close a VFR flight plan (rules of the air ann2 3.3.5) a. i and ii b. i, ii, iii and iv c. ii, iii and iv d. i and iv

Last Answer : b. i, ii, iii and iv

How many hours in advance of departure time should a flight plan be filed in the case of flights into areas subject to air traffic flow management (ATFM)? a. 3.00 hrs b. 0.30 hrs c. 1.00 hr d. 0.10 hr

Description : How many hours in advance of departure time should a flight plan be filed in the case of flights into areas subject to air traffic flow management (ATFM)? a. 3.00 hrs b. 0.30 hrs c. 1.00 hr d. 0.10 hr

Last Answer : a. 3.00 hrs