Repetitive flight plans (RPL’s) cannot be used for flights other than those executed frequently on the same days of the following weeks and: a. For at least 20 occasions or every day over a period of at least 20 consecutive days b. For at least 20 consecutive days c. For at least 10 occasions or every day over a period of at least 10 consecutive days d. For at least 20 occasions

Repetitive flight plans (RPL’s) cannot be used for flights other than those executed frequently  on the same days of the following weeks and:  
a. For at least 20 occasions or every day over a period of at least 20 consecutive days  b. For at least 20 consecutive days  
c. For at least 10 occasions or every day over a period of at least 10 consecutive  days  
d. For at least 20 occasions
by

1 Answer

Answer :

c. For at least 10 occasions or every day over a period of at least 10 consecutive  days
by

Related questions

Repetitive flight plans (RPL’s) cannot be used for flights other than those executed frequently on the same days of the following weeks and: a. For at least 20 occasions or every day over a period of at least 20 consecutive days b. For at least 20 consecutive days c. For at least 10 occasions or every day over a period of at least 10 consecutive days d. For at least 20 occasions

Description : Repetitive flight plans (RPL's) cannot be used for flights other than those executed frequently on the same days of the following weeks and: a. For at least 20 occasions or every day over a period of ... or every day over a period of at least 10 consecutive days d. For at least 20 occasions

Last Answer : c. For at least 10 occasions or every day over a period of at least 10 consecutive days

How many hours in advance of departure time should a flight plan be filed in the case of flights into areas subject to air traffic flow management (ATFM)? a. 3.00 hrs b. 0.30 hrs c. 1.00 hr d. 0.10 hr

Description : How many hours in advance of departure time should a flight plan be filed in the case of flights into areas subject to air traffic flow management (ATFM)? a. 3.00 hrs b. 0.30 hrs c. 1.00 hr d. 0.10 hr

Last Answer : a. 3.00 hrs

After an accident, the operator of an aeroplane equipped with a flight recorder must keep the original recordings for a minimum period of: a. 30 days b. 90 days c. 45 days d. 60 days

Description : After an accident, the operator of an aeroplane equipped with a flight recorder must keep the original recordings for a minimum period of: a. 30 days b. 90 days c. 45 days d. 60 days

Last Answer : d. 60 days

A Flight Data Recorder is required in aeroplanes over: a. 20,000kg b. 5,700kg c. 10,000kg d. 7,000kg

Description : A Flight Data Recorder is required in aeroplanes over: a. 20,000kg b. 5,700kg c. 10,000kg d. 7,000kg

Last Answer : b. 5,700kg

For a controlled flight before departure, a flight plan must be filed at least: a. 50 minutes before off-block time b. 60 minutes before departure c. 10 minutes before departure d. 30 minutes before off-block time

Description : For a controlled flight before departure, a flight plan must be filed at least: a. 50 minutes before off-block time b. 60 minutes before departure c. 10 minutes before departure d. 30 minutes before off-block time

Last Answer : b. 60 minutes before departure

If, having tried all normal methods, the ears cannot be cleared in flight, the following action should be taken: a. Ignore and it will go away b. Descend to 10,000ft or MSA – whichever is higher c. Seek medical advice as soon as possible d. Descend as quickly as possible to minimize pain

Description : If, having tried all normal methods, the ears cannot be cleared in flight, the following action should be taken: a. Ignore and it will go away b. Descend to 10,000ft or MSA – whichever is higher c. Seek medical advice as soon as possible d. Descend as quickly as possible to minimize pain

Last Answer : c. Seek medical advice as soon as possible

What is the minimum vertical separation between IFR flights flying in the same direction below FL 290? a. 500ft b. 1000ft c. 2000ft d. 4000ft

Description : What is the minimum vertical separation between IFR flights flying in the same direction below FL 290? a. 500ft b. 1000ft c. 2000ft d. 4000ft

Last Answer : c. 2000ft

Except when cleared by an ATC unit, a VFR flight cannot enter or leave a Control Zone when the cloud base is lower than: a. 1000 feet and less than 8km visibility b. 2000 feet and less than 5km visibility c. 1500 feet or less than 5km visibility d. 1000 feet and less than 5km visibility

Description : Except when cleared by an ATC unit, a VFR flight cannot enter or leave a Control Zone when the cloud base is lower than: a. 1000 feet and less than 8km visibility b. 2000 feet and less than 5km visibility c. 1500 feet or less than 5km visibility d. 1000 feet and less than 5km visibility

Last Answer : c. 1500 feet or less than 5km visibility

A controlled flight is required to inform the concerned ATC unit when the average TAS at cruising level deviates or is expected to deviate compared to that given TAS in the Flight Plan by at least plus or minus: a. 10% b. 3% c. 5% d. 2%

Description : A controlled flight is required to inform the concerned ATC unit when the average TAS at cruising level deviates or is expected to deviate compared to that given TAS in the Flight Plan by at least plus or minus: a. 10% b. 3% c. 5% d. 2%

Last Answer : d. 2%

You make a diversion from the route given in the flight plan and land at an uncontrolled airfield. Within what time after landing should you inform ATC? a. 10 mins b. 20 mins c. 30 mins d. 45 mins

Description : You make a diversion from the route given in the flight plan and land at an uncontrolled airfield. Within what time after landing should you inform ATC? a. 10 mins b. 20 mins c. 30 mins d. 45 mins

Last Answer : c. 30 mins

What cannot be left out from a position report? a. Callsign, Flight Level and Time b. Callsign, Position and Time c. Position, Time, Flight Level, Next position and ETA d. Your signature

Description : What cannot be left out from a position report? a. Callsign, Flight Level and Time b. Callsign, Position and Time c. Position, Time, Flight Level, Next position and ETA d. Your signature

Last Answer : b. Callsign, Position and Time

When the Captain cannot comply with an ATC clearance: a. The Captain must accept the ATC clearance, because it is based on a filed flight plan b. He/she may request an amended clearance and, if executable, he/she will accept that clearance c. He/she may ask a new clearance and the appropriate ATC must grant him/her that clearance d. He/she may suggest a new clearance to ATC

Description : When the Captain cannot comply with an ATC clearance: a. The Captain must accept the ATC clearance, because it is based on a filed flight plan b. He/she may request an amended clearance and, if ... appropriate ATC must grant him/her that clearance d. He/she may suggest a new clearance to ATC

Last Answer : b. He/she may request an amended clearance and, if executable, he/she will accept that clearance

The Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) for flights in accordance with IFR within controlled airspace below FL290 is: a. 500 feet (150m) b. 2500 feet (750 m) c. 1000 feet (300m) d. 2000 feet (600m)

Description : The Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) for flights in accordance with IFR within controlled airspace below FL290 is: a. 500 feet (150m) b. 2500 feet (750 m) c. 1000 feet (300m) d. 2000 feet (600m)

Last Answer : c. 1000 feet (300m)

Disorientation is more likely when the pilot is: 1. flying in VMC 2. frequently changing between inside and outside references 3. flying from IMC to VMC 4. approaching over still water at night a. 1, 2 & 3 only are correct b. 1, 2 & 4 only are correct c. 1, 2, 3 & 4 are correct d. 1 only is correct

Description : Disorientation is more likely when the pilot is: 1. flying in VMC 2. frequently changing between inside and outside references 3. flying from IMC to VMC 4. approaching over still water at night a. 1, 2 & ... 1, 2 & 4 only are correct c. 1, 2, 3 & 4 are correct d. 1 only is correct

Last Answer : b. 1, 2 & 4 only are correct

One way in which passengers can be reassured during an emergency is: a. To regularly see members of the flight crew calmly moving about the cabin in a relaxed manner b. For the captain or first officer to keep a running commentary going over the PA c. For the cabin staff to ensure the passengers are aware of what is happening and that they are complying with instructions d. For the cabin staff to direct passengers’ attention to the emergency passenger brief cards and make sure that they have read them

Description : One way in which passengers can be reassured during an emergency is: a. To regularly see members of the flight crew calmly moving about the cabin in a relaxed manner b. For the ... to direct passengers' attention to the emergency passenger brief cards and make sure that they have read them

Last Answer : c. For the cabin staff to ensure the passengers are aware of what is happening and that they are complying with instructions

What are the VMC limits for Class B airspace? a. 8km flight visibility, clear of cloud and in sight of the surface b. 8km flight visibility, 1000ft vertically and 1500m horizontally from cloud c. 5km flight visibility, 1000ft vertically and 1500m horizontally from cloud d. The same as Class D

Description : What are the VMC limits for Class B airspace? a. 8km flight visibility, clear of cloud and in sight of the surface b. 8km flight visibility, 1000ft vertically and 1500m horizontally from ... . 5km flight visibility, 1000ft vertically and 1500m horizontally from cloud d. The same as Class D

Last Answer : d. The same as Class D

A pilot can improve the probability of detecting other aircrafts by: a. Minimizing the duration of eye rests and making as many eye movements as possible b. Moving the head frequently to alter the apparent motion of any distant object c. Maximizing the time spent looking in each sector to allow the maximum chance of detecting movement d. Maintaining as far as possible a lookout ahead of the aircraft and relying on peripheral vision to detect any movement from the side

Description : A pilot can improve the probability of detecting other aircrafts by: a. Minimizing the duration of eye rests and making as many eye movements as possible b. Moving the head frequently to ... a lookout ahead of the aircraft and relying on peripheral vision to detect any movement from the side

Last Answer : a. Minimizing the duration of eye rests and making as many eye movements as possible

In the event of an act of unlawful interference, which of the following is the correct procedure to be taken by the pilot in command? a. Squawk 7700 if the situation requires and continue the flight as per the ATC clearance received if possible b. Squawk 7500 and broadcast a warning to ATC other traffic on 121.500MHz or the frequency in use whilst maintaining the flight as cleared c. Squawk 7500 (or 7700 if required) and broadcast a warning if the situation forces deviation from the cleared flight plan d. If forced to deviate from the flight plan, climb or descend to altitudes that differ from the normal cruising altitudes by 1000ft

Description : In the event of an act of unlawful interference, which of the following is the correct procedure to be taken by the pilot in command? a. Squawk 7700 if the situation requires and continue ... the flight plan, climb or descend to altitudes that differ from the normal cruising altitudes by 1000ft

Last Answer : c. Squawk 7500 (or 7700 if required) and broadcast a warning if the situation forces deviation from the cleared flight plan

When a state renders valid a license issued by another Contracting State, as an alternative to issuance of its own license, the validity shall: a. Not extend beyond 15 days after the validity of the license b. Not extend beyond the period of validity of the license c. Be at the discretion of the Contracting State rendering it valid d. Be at the discretion of ICAO

Description : When a state renders valid a license issued by another Contracting State, as an alternative to issuance of its own license, the validity shall: a. Not extend beyond 15 days after the validity of ... at the discretion of the Contracting State rendering it valid d. Be at the discretion of ICAO

Last Answer : b. Not extend beyond the period of validity of the license

Which statement is true regarding the opposing forces acting on an aeroplane in steady-state level flight? a. Thrust is greater than drag and weight and lift are equal b. These forces are equal c. Thrust is greater than drag and lift is greater than weight d. Thrust is slightly greater than lift, but the drag and weight are equal

Description : Which statement is true regarding the opposing forces acting on an aeroplane in steady-state level flight? a. Thrust is greater than drag and weight and lift are equal b. These forces are equal ... greater than weight d. Thrust is slightly greater than lift, but the drag and weight are equal

Last Answer : b. These forces are equal

When do you not need a destination alternate aerodrome? a. If there is a reasonable certainty that at the ETA at the destination aerodrome and a reasonable time before and after you can expect VMC b. If the flight time is less than 6 hours c. If the flight time is less than 1 hour d. If your operator deems the weather to be suitable for a visual landing

Description : When do you not need a destination alternate aerodrome? a. If there is a reasonable certainty that at the ETA at the destination aerodrome and a reasonable time before and after you can expect VMC ... less than 1 hour d. If your operator deems the weather to be suitable for a visual landing

Last Answer : a. If there is a reasonable certainty that at the ETA at the destination aerodrome and a reasonable time before and after you can expect VMC

What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect? a. A decrease in parasite drag permitting a lower angle of attack b. An increase induced drag and a requirement for a higher angle of attack c. An increase in dynamic stability d. A decrease in induced drag requiring a smaller angle of attack

Description : What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect? a. A decrease in parasite drag permitting a lower angle of attack b. An increase induced drag and a requirement ... increase in dynamic stability d. A decrease in induced drag requiring a smaller angle of attack

Last Answer : b. An increase induced drag and a requirement for a higher angle of attack

An aircraft has a stalling speed in level flight of 70kt IAS. In a 60° balanced turn, the stalling speed would be: a. 76kt b. 84kt c. 99kt d. 140kt

Description : An aircraft has a stalling speed in level flight of 70kt IAS. In a 60° balanced turn, the stalling speed would be: a. 76kt b. 84kt c. 99kt d. 140kt

Last Answer : c. 99kt

The purpose of a trim tab is: a. To assist the pilot in initiating movement of the controls b. To zero the load on the pilot controls in the flight attitude required c. To provide feel to the controls at high speed d. To increase the effectiveness of the controls

Description : The purpose of a trim tab is: a. To assist the pilot in initiating movement of the controls b. To zero the load on the pilot controls in the flight attitude required c. To provide feel to the controls at high speed d. To increase the effectiveness of the controls

Last Answer : b. To zero the load on the pilot controls in the flight attitude required

To ensure some degree of longitudinal stability in flight, the position of the CG: a. Must always coincide with the AC b. Must be forward of the Neutral Point c. Must be aft of the Neutral Point d. Must not be forward of the aft CG limi

Description : To ensure some degree of longitudinal stability in flight, the position of the CG: a. Must always coincide with the AC b. Must be forward of the Neutral Point c. Must be aft of the Neutral Point d. Must not be forward of the aft CG limi

Last Answer : b. Must be forward of the Neutral Point

The stalling speed of an aeroplane is most affected by: a. Changes in air density b. Variations in aeroplane loading c. Variations in flight altitude d. Changes in pitch attitude

Description : The stalling speed of an aeroplane is most affected by: a. Changes in air density b. Variations in aeroplane loading c. Variations in flight altitude d. Changes in pitch attitude

Last Answer : b. Variations in aeroplane loading

When refuelling is being conducted with passengers embarking or disembarking: a. Refuelling is strictly prohibited whilst passengers are embarking or disembarking b. All flight crew must be on board c. Communications shall be maintained by ground crew and qualified crew on board d. The stairs shall be fully extended

Description : When refuelling is being conducted with passengers embarking or disembarking: a. Refuelling is strictly prohibited whilst passengers are embarking or disembarking b. All flight crew must be on board c. ... by ground crew and qualified crew on board d. The stairs shall be fully extended

Last Answer : c. Communications shall be maintained by ground crew and qualified crew on board

From the flight deck you observe an aeroplane in the forward left position on an opposite parallel track. What Nav light will be used? a. Green b. Red c. White d. All of the above

Description : From the flight deck you observe an aeroplane in the forward left position on an opposite parallel track. What Nav light will be used? a. Green b. Red c. White d. All of the above

Last Answer : b. Red

When must a radiation indicator be carried? a. For flight above 29,000ft b. For flight above 39,000ft c. For flight above 49,000ft d. For flight above 59,000ft

Description : When must a radiation indicator be carried? a. For flight above 29,000ft b. For flight above 39,000ft c. For flight above 49,000ft d. For flight above 59,000ft

Last Answer : c. For flight above 49,000ft

At the alternate aerodrome, the commander of a turbojet engine aeroplane should have a fuel quantity (final reserve) sufficient for flying during: a. 30 minutes at holding flight speed at 1,500 ft b. 45 minutes at holding flight speed at 1,500 ft c. 30 minutes at cruising speed d. 45 minutes at cruising speed

Description : At the alternate aerodrome, the commander of a turbojet engine aeroplane should have a fuel quantity (final reserve) sufficient for flying during: a. 30 minutes at holding flight speed at 1,500 ft b. 45 ... speed at 1,500 ft c. 30 minutes at cruising speed d. 45 minutes at cruising speed

Last Answer : a. 30 minutes at holding flight speed at 1,500 ft

When does a pilot apply the limitations of the MEL? a. At parking before commencement of taxi b. Prior to take-off c. At any time in flight d. Any time up to coming to a complete stop and applying the parking brake

Description : When does a pilot apply the limitations of the MEL? a. At parking before commencement of taxi b. Prior to take-off c. At any time in flight d. Any time up to coming to a complete stop and applying the parking brake

Last Answer : d. Any time up to coming to a complete stop and applying the parking brake

Who checks, before flight, that the aircraft’s weight is such that the flight can be safely made and that any transported cargo is properly distributed and secured? a. The company’s cargo technicians b. The captain c. The mechanic on board, or in his absence the co-pilot d. The operator

Description : Who checks, before flight, that the aircraft’s weight is such that the flight can be safely made and that any transported cargo is properly distributed and secured? a. The company’s cargo technicians b. The captain c. The mechanic on board, or in his absence the co-pilot d. The operator

Last Answer : b. The captain

Who is responsible for reporting acts of unlawful interference? a. The Commander or the Operator b. The ATCU for the airspace in which the event occurred c. Any member of the flight crew d. Any person on board the aeroplane

Description : Who is responsible for reporting acts of unlawful interference? a. The Commander or the Operator b. The ATCU for the airspace in which the event occurred c. Any member of the flight crew d. Any person on board the aeroplane

Last Answer : a. The Commander or the Operato

Which of the following would give the best indication of speed? a. A VOR on the flight plan route b. A VOR off the flight plan route c. A DME on the flight plan route d. A DME off the flight plan route

Description : Which of the following would give the best indication of speed? a. A VOR on the flight plan route b. A VOR off the flight plan route c. A DME on the flight plan route d. A DME off the flight plan route

Last Answer : c. A DME on the flight plan route

On receipt of a TCAS RA, your action is to: a. Initiate the required maneuver immediately b. Make a note of the details c. Request a flight clearance deviation from ATC d. Do nothing until a TA is received

Description : On receipt of a TCAS RA, your action is to: a. Initiate the required maneuver immediately b. Make a note of the details c. Request a flight clearance deviation from ATC d. Do nothing until a TA is received

Last Answer : a. Initiate the required maneuver immediately

From a pre-flight briefing you know a jet stream is at 31,000ft whilst you are at FL270. You experience moderate CAT. What would be the best course of action? a. Stay level b. Descend c. Climb d. Reduce speed

Description : From a pre-flight briefing you know a jet stream is at 31,000ft whilst you are at FL270. You experience moderate CAT. What would be the best course of action? a. Stay level b. Descend c. Climb d. Reduce speed

Last Answer : b. Descend

A flight is to depart from an airport with runway 09 and 27. Surface wind is 270/05; an inversion is reported at 300 feet with turbulence and wind shear. The wind just above the inversion is 090/30. What is the safest departure procedure? a. Take-off is not possible under these conditions b. Depart on runway 09 with a tailwind c. Depart runway 27 with maximum throttle during the passage through the inversion d. Depart runway 27 with as steep an ascent as possible

Description : A flight is to depart from an airport with runway 09 and 27. Surface wind is 270/05; an inversion is reported at 300 feet with turbulence and wind shear. The wind just above the ... throttle during the passage through the inversion d. Depart runway 27 with as steep an ascent as possible

Last Answer : b. Depart on runway 09 with a tailwind

The isobars drawn on a surface weather chart represent lines of equal pressure: a. At flight level b. At height of observatory c. At a determined density altitude d. Reduced to sea level

Description : The isobars drawn on a surface weather chart represent lines of equal pressure: a. At flight level b. At height of observatory c. At a determined density altitude d. Reduced to sea level

Last Answer : d. Reduced to sea level

What is normally the most effective measure to reduce or avoid CAT effects? a. Change of flight level b. Change of course c. Increase of speed d. Decrease of speed

Description : What is normally the most effective measure to reduce or avoid CAT effects? a. Change of flight level b. Change of course c. Increase of speed d. Decrease of speed

Last Answer : a. Change of flight level

How do you calculate the lowest usable flight level? a. Lowest QNH and lowest negative temperature below ISA b. Lowest QNH and highest negative temperature below ISA c. Highest QNH and highest temperature above ISA d. Highest QNH and lowest temperature

Description : How do you calculate the lowest usable flight level? a. Lowest QNH and lowest negative temperature below ISA b. Lowest QNH and highest negative temperature below ISA c. Highest QNH and highest temperature above ISA d. Highest QNH and lowest temperature

Last Answer : a. Lowest QNH and lowest negative temperature below ISA

A pilot suffering from decompression sickness should: a. Descend to a lower level where the symptoms will disappear and continue the flight at this or a lower level b. Decrease the cabin pressure to relieve the symptoms c. Continue the flight at a lower altitude and carry out exercises to relieve the pain in the affected site d. Land as soon as possible and seek medical assistance

Description : A pilot suffering from decompression sickness should: a. Descend to a lower level where the symptoms will disappear and continue the flight at this or a lower level b. Decrease the cabin pressure ... the pain in the affected site d. Land as soon as possible and seek medical assistance

Last Answer : d. Land as soon as possible and seek medical assistance

During a general briefing at the pre-flight stage, the captain should emphasize: a. The complete delegation of all duties b. The importance of crew coordination c. The priority of departing on schedule d. The avoidance of inadequate handling of controls

Description : During a general briefing at the pre-flight stage, the captain should emphasize: a. The complete delegation of all duties b. The importance of crew coordination c. The priority of departing on schedule d. The avoidance of inadequate handling of controls

Last Answer : b. The importance of crew coordination

Discussing private matters in the cockpit: a. Decreases the captain’s role in leadership b. Should be avoided in flight c. Can improve team spirit d. Is appropriate at any stage of the flight

Description : Discussing private matters in the cockpit: a. Decreases the captain’s role in leadership b. Should be avoided in flight c. Can improve team spirit d. Is appropriate at any stage of the flight

Last Answer : c. Can improve team spirit

Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig. 4.3.1 Given: Estimated zero fuel mass 50t; estimated landing mass at destination 52t; final reserve fuel 2t; alternate fuel 1t; flight to destination distance 720nm, true course 030, W/V 340/30; cruise: LRC, at FL330 outside air temperature -30C. Find estimated trip fuel and time. a. 4,800kg / 01hr 45min b. 4,400kg / 02hr 02min c. 4,750kg / 02hr 00min d. 4,600kg / 02hr 05min

Description : Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig. 4.3.1 Given: Estimated zero fuel mass 50t; estimated landing mass at destination 52t; final reserve fuel 2t; alternate fuel 1t; flight to destination distance 720nm, true course 030, W/V ... b. 4,400kg / 02hr 02min c. 4,750kg / 02hr 00min d. 4,600kg / 02hr 05min

Last Answer : a. 4,800kg / 01hr 45min

A flight is planned from L to M, distance 850 nm. Wind component out is 35 kt(TWC), TAS 450kt. Mean fuel flow out is 2500kg/hr, mean fuel flow inbound is 1900kg/hr and the fuel available is 6000kg. The time and distance to PSR is: a. 1hr 30 min, 660nm b. 1hr 30 min, 616nm c. 1hr 15 min, 606nm d. 1hr 16 min, 616nm

Description : A flight is planned from L to M, distance 850 nm. Wind component out is 35 kt(TWC), TAS 450kt. Mean fuel flow out is 2500kg/hr, mean fuel flow inbound is 1900kg/hr and the fuel available is 6000kg. The time ... 30 min, 660nm b. 1hr 30 min, 616nm c. 1hr 15 min, 606nm d. 1hr 16 min, 616nm

Last Answer : d. 1hr 16 min, 616nm

True track 215; mountain elevation 11,600ft; local airfield gives QNH as 1035mb; required terrain clearance 1500ft; temperature ISA -15C. Which of the following is the minimum flight level considering the temperature? a. FL150 b. FL140 c. FL120 d. FL110

Description : True track 215; mountain elevation 11,600ft; local airfield gives QNH as 1035mb; required terrain clearance 1500ft; temperature ISA -15C. Which of the following is the minimum flight level considering the temperature? a. FL150 b. FL140 c. FL120 d. FL110

Last Answer : b. FL140

For a flight plan filed before flight, the indicated time of departure is: a. The time overhead the first reporting point after take-off b. The time at which the flight plan is filed c. The estimated off-block time d. The time of take-off

Description : For a flight plan filed before flight, the indicated time of departure is: a. The time overhead the first reporting point after take-off b. The time at which the flight plan is filed c. The estimated off-block time d. The time of take-off

Last Answer : c. The estimated off-block time

What is the Total Elapsed Time on a VFR flight plan? a. From take-off to overhead destination b. From take-off to overhead destination + 15 mins c. From take-off to landing d. From taxi to arrival on the gate

Description : What is the Total Elapsed Time on a VFR flight plan? a. From take-off to overhead destination b. From take-off to overhead destination + 15 mins c. From take-off to landing d. From taxi to arrival on the gate

Last Answer : a. From take-off to overhead destination

Maximum endurance: a. Can be achieved in level unaccelerated flight with minimum fuel consumption b. Can be achieved by flying at the best rate of climb speed in straight and level flight c. Can be achieved in a steady climb d. Can be achieved by flying at the absolute ceiling

Description : Maximum endurance: a. Can be achieved in level unaccelerated flight with minimum fuel consumption b. Can be achieved by flying at the best rate of climb speed in straight and level flight c. Can be achieved in a steady climb d. Can be achieved by flying at the absolute ceiling

Last Answer : a. Can be achieved in level unaccelerated flight with minimum fuel consumption