Which Mode A code must be used to make sure that your aircraft is recognized as an aircraft in distress? a. Code 7500 b. Code 7700 c. Code 7000 d. Code 7600

Which Mode A code must be used to make sure that your aircraft is recognized as an aircraft  in distress?  
a. Code 7500  
b. Code 7700  
c. Code 7000  
d. Code 7600
by

1 Answer

Answer :

b. Code 7700
by

Related questions

Which Mode A code must be used to make sure that your aircraft is recognized as an aircraft in distress? a. Code 7500 b. Code 7700 c. Code 7000 d. Code 7600

Description : Which Mode A code must be used to make sure that your aircraft is recognized as an aircraft in distress? a. Code 7500 b. Code 7700 c. Code 7000 d. Code 7600

Last Answer : b. Code 7700

The selection of the code 7600 on a transponder indicates: a. Loss of communications b. Distress c. Urgency d. Hijacking

Description : The selection of the code 7600 on a transponder indicates: a. Loss of communications b. Distress c. Urgency d. Hijacking

Last Answer : a. Loss of communications

In the event of an act of unlawful interference, which of the following is the correct procedure to be taken by the pilot in command? a. Squawk 7700 if the situation requires and continue the flight as per the ATC clearance received if possible b. Squawk 7500 and broadcast a warning to ATC other traffic on 121.500MHz or the frequency in use whilst maintaining the flight as cleared c. Squawk 7500 (or 7700 if required) and broadcast a warning if the situation forces deviation from the cleared flight plan d. If forced to deviate from the flight plan, climb or descend to altitudes that differ from the normal cruising altitudes by 1000ft

Description : In the event of an act of unlawful interference, which of the following is the correct procedure to be taken by the pilot in command? a. Squawk 7700 if the situation requires and continue ... the flight plan, climb or descend to altitudes that differ from the normal cruising altitudes by 1000ft

Last Answer : c. Squawk 7500 (or 7700 if required) and broadcast a warning if the situation forces deviation from the cleared flight plan

The definition of the DISTRESS condition is that: a. There is concern for the safety of the aircraft or a person on board or other vehicle but there is no need for immediate assistance b. The aircraft is in imminent danger and requires immediate assistance c. The aircraft has crashed d. The aircraft is being hijacked

Description : The definition of the DISTRESS condition is that: a. There is concern for the safety of the aircraft or a person on board or other vehicle but there is no need for immediate assistance ... and requires immediate assistance c. The aircraft has crashed d. The aircraft is being hijacked

Last Answer : b. The aircraft is in imminent danger and requires immediate assistance

The ATC message “DISTRESS TRAFFIC ENDED” signifies that: a. All traffic are to end their transmissions b. All aircraft on the frequency are to change to another frequency c. Normal ATC is resumed after an emergency d. ATC is shutting shop

Description : The ATC message “DISTRESS TRAFFIC ENDED” signifies that: a. All traffic are to end their transmissions b. All aircraft on the frequency are to change to another frequency c. Normal ATC is resumed after an emergency d. ATC is shutting shop

Last Answer : c. Normal ATC is resumed after an emergency

The selection of the code 7600 on a transponder indicates: a. Loss of communications b. Distress c. Urgency d. Hijacking

Description : The selection of the code 7600 on a transponder indicates: a. Loss of communications b. Distress c. Urgency d. Hijacking

Last Answer : a. Loss of communications

With reference to Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems, the difference between TCAS I and II is that: a. TCAS II can provide Traffic Advisories and Resolution Advisories whilst TCAS I can only provide Traffic Advisories b. TCAS II can only be fitted to large aircrafts which carry more than 30 passengers. While TCAS I can be fitted to any aircraft. c. TCAS I can be fitted aircrafts which carry transponders with Mode A only while TCAS II can be fitted to aircrafts whose transponders include either Mode C or Mode S. d. TCAS II can only be to aircraft which are equipped with EFIS

Description : With reference to Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems, the difference between TCAS I and II is that: a. TCAS II can provide Traffic Advisories and Resolution Advisories whilst TCAS I can only provide Traffic ... C or Mode S. d. TCAS II can only be to aircraft which are equipped with EFIS

Last Answer : a. TCAS II can provide Traffic Advisories and Resolution Advisories whilst TCAS I can only provide Traffic Advisories

When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall continuously operate this mode: a. Only when directed by ATC b. Unless otherwise directed by ATC c. Only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace d. Regardless of ATC instructions

Description : When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall continuously operate this mode: a. Only when directed by ATC b. Unless otherwise directed by ATC c. Only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace d. Regardless of ATC instructions

Last Answer : b. Unless otherwise directed by ATC

A DISTRESS message differs from an URGENCY message because: a. There is grave and imminent danger which requires immediate assistance b. The aeroplane has suffered damage that endangers the ability to fly c. The aeroplane will not be able to reach a suitable aerodrome d. The situation concerns the safety of passengers on board or within sight

Description : A DISTRESS message differs from an URGENCY message because: a. There is grave and imminent danger which requires immediate assistance b. The aeroplane has suffered damage that endangers the ... suitable aerodrome d. The situation concerns the safety of passengers on board or within sight

Last Answer : a. There is grave and imminent danger which requires immediate assistance

An aircraft flying over the sea between 4500ft and 9000ft AMSL and outside CAS. To continue under VFR the meteorological conditions must remain: a. 2000ft horizontally and 1000ft vertically from cloud with visibility of 8km b. 1500m horizontally and 1000ft vertically from cloud with visibility of 5km c. 1500m horizontally and 1000m vertically from cloud with visibility of 5km d. Clear of cloud and in sight of the surface with visibility of 5km

Description : An aircraft flying over the sea between 4500ft and 9000ft AMSL and outside CAS. To continue under VFR the meteorological conditions must remain: a. 2000ft horizontally and 1000ft vertically from cloud with ... visibility of 5km d. Clear of cloud and in sight of the surface with visibility of 5km

Last Answer : b. 1500m horizontally and 1000ft vertically from cloud with visibility of 5km

7000-7500 Taka Phone ?

Last Answer : : You can buy the Symhony i97 phone for Rs. Ram 2GB Rom 16GB Cemara 8/13 The phone supports 4G

The length of India's coastline is about: [SBI 2013] (a) 5900 km (b) 6100 km (c) 7000 km (d) 7500 km

Description : The length of India's coastline is about: [SBI 2013] (a) 5900 km (b) 6100 km (c) 7000 km (d) 7500 km

Last Answer : Ans: (d)

How much kg of sugarcane seed is required for sowing one hectare ? (a) 7000 – 7500 kg (b) 5500 – 6000 kg (c) 8000 – 8500 kg (d) 5200 – 5500 kg

Description : How much kg of sugarcane seed is required for sowing one hectare ? (a) 7000 – 7500 kg (b) 5500 – 6000 kg (c) 8000 – 8500 kg (d) 5200 – 5500 kg

Last Answer : (a) 7000 – 7500 kg

When given instructions to set a mode/code, a pilot shall: a. Only use the word “wilco” b. Only read back the code c. Only use the word “roger” d. Read back mode and code

Description : When given instructions to set a mode/code, a pilot shall: a. Only use the word “wilco” b. Only read back the code c. Only use the word “roger” d. Read back mode and code

Last Answer : d. Read back mode and code

If the weight of an aircraft is increased the maximum gliding range: a. Decreases b. Increases c. Remains the same, and rate of descent is unchanged d. Remains the same, but rate of descent increases

Description : If the weight of an aircraft is increased the maximum gliding range: a. Decreases b. Increases c. Remains the same, and rate of descent is unchanged d. Remains the same, but rate of descent increases

Last Answer : d. Remains the same, but rate of descent increases

An aircraft has a L/D ratio of 15:1 at 50kts in calm air. What would the L/D ratio be with a direct headwind of 25kts? a. 30:1 b. 15:1 c. 25:1 d. 7.5:1

Description : An aircraft has a L/D ratio of 15:1 at 50kts in calm air. What would the L/D ratio be with a direct headwind of 25kts? a. 30:1 b. 15:1 c. 25:1 d. 7.5:1

Last Answer : b. 15:1

What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect? a. A decrease in parasite drag permitting a lower angle of attack b. An increase induced drag and a requirement for a higher angle of attack c. An increase in dynamic stability d. A decrease in induced drag requiring a smaller angle of attack

Description : What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect? a. A decrease in parasite drag permitting a lower angle of attack b. An increase induced drag and a requirement ... increase in dynamic stability d. A decrease in induced drag requiring a smaller angle of attack

Last Answer : b. An increase induced drag and a requirement for a higher angle of attack

An aircraft has a stalling speed in level flight of 70kt IAS. In a 60° balanced turn, the stalling speed would be: a. 76kt b. 84kt c. 99kt d. 140kt

Description : An aircraft has a stalling speed in level flight of 70kt IAS. In a 60° balanced turn, the stalling speed would be: a. 76kt b. 84kt c. 99kt d. 140kt

Last Answer : c. 99kt

If flaps are lowered during the take-off run: a. The lift would not change until the aircraft is airborne b. The lift would increase when the flaps are lowered c. The lift would decrease d. The acceleration would increase

Description : If flaps are lowered during the take-off run: a. The lift would not change until the aircraft is airborne b. The lift would increase when the flaps are lowered c. The lift would decrease d. The acceleration would increase

Last Answer : b. The lift would increase when the flaps are lowered

What is the recommended technique to counter the loss of airspeed and resultant lift from wind shear? a. Maintain, or increase, pitch attitude and accept the lower-than-normal airspeed indications b. Lower the pitch attitude and regain lost airspeed c. Avoid overstressing aircraft, pitch to stick shaker, and apply maximum power d. Accelerate the aircraft to prevent a stall by sacrificing altitude

Description : What is the recommended technique to counter the loss of airspeed and resultant lift from wind shear? a. Maintain, or increase, pitch attitude and accept the lower-than-normal airspeed ... shaker, and apply maximum power d. Accelerate the aircraft to prevent a stall by sacrificing altitude

Last Answer : c. Avoid overstressing aircraft, pitch to stick shaker, and apply maximum power

A constant rate of climb in an aeroplane is determined by: a. Wind speed b. The aircraft weight c. Excess engine power d. Excess airspeed

Description : A constant rate of climb in an aeroplane is determined by: a. Wind speed b. The aircraft weight c. Excess engine power d. Excess airspeed

Last Answer : c. Excess engine power

If the angle of attack is increased beyond the critical angle of attack, the wing will no longer produce sufficient lift to support the weight of the aircraft: a. Unless the airspeed is greater than the normal stall speed b. Regardless of airspeed or pitch attitude c. Unless the pitch attitude is on or below the natural horizon d. In which case, the control column should be pulled-back immediately

Description : If the angle of attack is increased beyond the critical angle of attack, the wing will no longer produce sufficient lift to support the weight of the aircraft: a. Unless the airspeed is greater ... below the natural horizon d. In which case, the control column should be pulled-back immediately

Last Answer : b. Regardless of airspeed or pitch attitude

Aircrafts are categorized according to their threshold speeds, multiplied by a factor. What aircraft category corresponds to a range of speeds 141kts – 165kts? a. B b. E c. D d. C

Description : Aircrafts are categorized according to their threshold speeds, multiplied by a factor. What aircraft category corresponds to a range of speeds 141kts – 165kts? a. B b. E c. D d. C

Last Answer : d. C

What is the minimum visibility for a Cat A aircraft during a circling approach? a. 1500m b. 1600m c. 2400m d. 3600m

Description : What is the minimum visibility for a Cat A aircraft during a circling approach? a. 1500m b. 1600m c. 2400m d. 3600m

Last Answer : a. 1500m

An aircraft has to communicate with a VHF station at a range of 300nm, if the ground station is situated 2,500ft amsl, which of the following is the lowest altitude at which contact is likely to be made? a. 190ft b. 1,378ft c. 36,100ft d. 84,100ft

Description : An aircraft has to communicate with a VHF station at a range of 300nm, if the ground station is situated 2,500ft amsl, which of the following is the lowest altitude at which contact is likely to be made? a. 190ft b. 1,378ft c. 36,100ft d. 84,100ft

Last Answer : c. 36,100ft

An aircraft is required to intercept and home to a VOR along the 064 radial. The OBS should be set to: a. 064 to get the correct needle sense and a TO indication b. 244 to get the correct needle sense and a TO indication c. 064 to get the correct needle sense and a FROM indication d. 244 to get the correct needle sense and a FROM indication

Description : An aircraft is required to intercept and home to a VOR along the 064 radial. The OBS should be set to: a. 064 to get the correct needle sense and a TO indication b. 244 to get the ... the correct needle sense and a FROM indication d. 244 to get the correct needle sense and a FROM indication

Last Answer : b. 244 to get the correct needle sense and a TO indication

Both the VOR and the ADF in an aircraft are correctly tuned and identified. The indications from both are shown on the RMI illustrated. The information on the RMI indicates: a. That the aircraft is heading 033° (M), is on the 310° radial from the VOR, and bears 050° (M) from the NDB b. That the aircraft is heading 330° (M), is on the 310° radial from the VOR, and bears 050° (M) from the NDB c. That the aircraft is heading 330° (M), is on the 130° radial from the VOR, and bears 050° (M) from the NDB d. That the aircraft is heading 330° (M), is on the 130° radial from the VOR, and bears 230° (M) from the NDB

Description : Both the VOR and the ADF in an aircraft are correctly tuned and identified. The indications from both are shown on the RMI illustrated. The information on the RMI indicates: a. That the aircraft is heading 033° (M ... 330° (M), is on the 130° radial from the VOR, and bears 230° (M) from the NDB

Last Answer : d. That the aircraft is heading 330° (M), is on the 130° radial from the VOR, and bears 230° (M) from the NDB

At a range of 200nm from a VOR, if there is an error of 1°, how far off the centreline is the aircraft? a. 3.5nm b. 1.75nm c. 7nm d. 1nm

Description : At a range of 200nm from a VOR, if there is an error of 1°, how far off the centreline is the aircraft? a. 3.5nm b. 1.75nm c. 7nm d. 1nm

Last Answer : a. 3.5nm

The DME in an aircraft, cruising at FL210, fails to achieve a lock on a DME at MSL at a range of 210nm. The reason for this is: a. The beacon is saturated b. The aircraft is beyond the maximum usable range for DME c. The aircraft is beyond line of sight range d. The aircraft signal is too weak at the range to trigger a response

Description : The DME in an aircraft, cruising at FL210, fails to achieve a lock on a DME at MSL at a range of 210nm. The reason for this is: a. The beacon is saturated b. The aircraft is beyond ... is beyond line of sight range d. The aircraft signal is too weak at the range to trigger a response

Last Answer : c. The aircraft is beyond line of sight range

Both the VOR and the ADF in an aircraft are correctly tuned and identified. The indications from both are shown on the RMI illustrated. The information on the RMI indicates: a. That the aircraft is heading 033° (M), is on the 310° radial from the VOR, and bears 050° (M) from the NDB b. That the aircraft is heading 330° (M), is on the 310° radial from the VOR, and bears 050° (M) from the NDB c. That the aircraft is heading 330° (M), is on the 130° radial from the VOR, and bears 050° (M) from the NDB d. That the aircraft is heading 330° (M), is on the 130° radial from the VOR, and bears 230° (M) from the NDB

Description : Both the VOR and the ADF in an aircraft are correctly tuned and identified. The indications from both are shown on the RMI illustrated. The information on the RMI indicates: a. That the aircraft is heading 033° (M ... 330° (M), is on the 130° radial from the VOR, and bears 230° (M) from the NDB

Last Answer : d. That the aircraft is heading 330° (M), is on the 130° radial from the VOR, and bears 230° (M) from the NDB

An aircraft is attempting to home to a VOR on the 064 radial. The CDI shows 4 dots fly right with a TO indication. At the same time the co-located DME shows a range of 45nm. Where is the aircraft in relation to the required track? a. 6nm right of track b. 3nm right of track c. 6nm left of track d. 3nm left of track

Description : An aircraft is attempting to home to a VOR on the 064 radial. The CDI shows 4 dots fly right with a TO indication. At the same time the co-located DME shows a range of 45nm. Where is the aircraft in relation ... right of track b. 3nm right of track c. 6nm left of track d. 3nm left of track

Last Answer : c. 6nm left of track

An aircraft wishes to track a VOR along the 274 radial. If variation is 10° W, what should be set on the OBS? a. 274 b. 264 c. 094 d. 084

Description : An aircraft wishes to track a VOR along the 274 radial. If variation is 10° W, what should be set on the OBS? a. 274 b. 264 c. 094 d. 084

Last Answer : c. 094

An aircraft heading 017° (T) has a small island showing on the AWR at 45nm range on the 60° left azimuth line. To obtain a fix from this information you should plot: a. Range 45nm and QTE 060 from the center of the island b. Range 45nm and QTE 240 from the center of the island c. Range 45nm and QTE 317 from the center of the island d. Range 45nm and QTE 137 from the center of the island

Description : An aircraft heading 017° (T) has a small island showing on the AWR at 45nm range on the 60° left azimuth line. To obtain a fix from this information you should plot: a. Range 45nm and QTE 060 from ... QTE 317 from the center of the island d. Range 45nm and QTE 137 from the center of the island

Last Answer : d. Range 45nm and QTE 137 from the center of the island

An aircraft is tracking inbound to a VOR beacon on the 105 radial. The setting the pilot should put on the OBS and the CDI indications are: a. 285, TO b. 105, TO c. 285, FROM d. 105, FROM

Description : An aircraft is tracking inbound to a VOR beacon on the 105 radial. The setting the pilot should put on the OBS and the CDI indications are: a. 285, TO b. 105, TO c. 285, FROM d. 105, FROM

Last Answer : a. 285, TO

Two aircrafts, one with a sharp wing profile (S) and the other with a thick profile (T), are flying through the same cloud with the same true airspeed. The cloud consists of small supercooled droplets. Which of the following statements is most correct concerning ice accretion? a. Aircraft T experiences more icing than S b. Aircraft S and T experience the same amount of icing c. Neither of the aircrafts accumulate ice due to the small size of droplets d. Aircraft S experiences more icing than T

Description : Two aircrafts, one with a sharp wing profile (S) and the other with a thick profile (T), are flying through the same cloud with the same true airspeed. The cloud consists of small ... aircrafts accumulate ice due to the small size of droplets d. Aircraft S experiences more icing than T

Last Answer : d. Aircraft S experiences more icing than T

How does a pilot react to heavy freezing rain at 2,000ft/AGL, when he is unable to deice nor land? a. He ascends to the cold air layer above b. He continues to fly at the same altitude c. He turns back before the aircraft loses maneuverability d. He descends to the warm air layer below

Description : How does a pilot react to heavy freezing rain at 2,000ft/AGL, when he is unable to deice nor land? a. He ascends to the cold air layer above b. He continues to fly at the same altitude c. He turns back before the aircraft loses maneuverability d. He descends to the warm air layer below

Last Answer : c. He turns back before the aircraft loses maneuverability

A pilot can improve the probability of detecting other aircrafts by: a. Minimizing the duration of eye rests and making as many eye movements as possible b. Moving the head frequently to alter the apparent motion of any distant object c. Maximizing the time spent looking in each sector to allow the maximum chance of detecting movement d. Maintaining as far as possible a lookout ahead of the aircraft and relying on peripheral vision to detect any movement from the side

Description : A pilot can improve the probability of detecting other aircrafts by: a. Minimizing the duration of eye rests and making as many eye movements as possible b. Moving the head frequently to ... a lookout ahead of the aircraft and relying on peripheral vision to detect any movement from the side

Last Answer : a. Minimizing the duration of eye rests and making as many eye movements as possible

The illusion that the aircraft is taxiing too fast can be caused by: a. Snow and a tailwind b. Snow and a headwind c. Rain and a headwind d. An unaccustomed high distance of the cockpit from the ground

Description : The illusion that the aircraft is taxiing too fast can be caused by: a. Snow and a tailwind b. Snow and a headwind c. Rain and a headwind d. An unaccustomed high distance of the cockpit from the ground

Last Answer : c. Rain and a headwind

What visual technique should be used when searching for an aircraft? a. Sweep from side to side with the eyes covering the whole field of vision b. Search the sky portion by portion starting on the left c. Pinpoint 10° segments of the sky and confirm before passing onto another d. Use a succession of small and rapid eye movements

Description : What visual technique should be used when searching for an aircraft? a. Sweep from side to side with the eyes covering the whole field of vision b. Search the sky portion by portion starting ... the sky and confirm before passing onto another d. Use a succession of small and rapid eye movements

Last Answer : c. Pinpoint 10° segments of the sky and confirm before passing onto another

How will an oncoming aircraft on a line of constant bearing appear visually? a. There will be no relative movement and it will appear to be very small until seconds before the collision b. There will be no relative movement and it will appear to be very small until seconds before the aircraft passes close by c. There will be no relative movement and it will appear to be very small until seconds before the aircraft passes above d. There will be no relative movement and it will appear to be very small until seconds before the aircraft passes well clear

Description : How will an oncoming aircraft on a line of constant bearing appear visually? a. There will be no relative movement and it will appear to be very small until seconds before the collision ... relative movement and it will appear to be very small until seconds before the aircraft passes well clear

Last Answer : a. There will be no relative movement and it will appear to be very small until seconds before the collision

An aircraft climbs from an airfield, elevation 1500ft, QNH 1023mb, to FL75. What height does the aircraft have to climb? (Assume 1mb=30ft) a. 6600 ft b. 7800 ft c. 6300 ft d. 6000 ft

Description : An aircraft climbs from an airfield, elevation 1500ft, QNH 1023mb, to FL75. What height does the aircraft have to climb? (Assume 1mb=30ft) a. 6600 ft b. 7800 ft c. 6300 ft d. 6000 ft

Last Answer : c. 6300 ft

If a jet engine fails during take-off before V1: a. The take-off can be continued or aborted b. The take-off should be aborted c. The take-off should be continued d. The take-off may be continued if the aircraft speed is above VMCG and lies between VGO and VSTOP

Description : If a jet engine fails during take-off before V1: a. The take-off can be continued or aborted b. The take-off should be aborted c. The take-off should be continued d. The take-off may be continued if the aircraft speed is above VMCG and lies between VGO and VSTOP

Last Answer : b. The take-off should be aborted

The instruction “ORBIT” from ATC means that the aircraft should: a. Carry out a go around b. Continue with 360 degree turns c. Carry out one 360 degree turn only d. Reverse the direction of the turn

Description : The instruction “ORBIT” from ATC means that the aircraft should: a. Carry out a go around b. Continue with 360 degree turns c. Carry out one 360 degree turn only d. Reverse the direction of the turn

Last Answer : c. Carry out one 360 degree turn only

An urgency message should include the following information: a. Name of station addressed, aircraft callsign, nature of urgency condition, intention of commander, position, level, heading b. Callsign, position, route, destination, endurance c. Name of station addressed, callsign, present positin, level, ETA destination d. Captain’s number, rank and name

Description : An urgency message should include the following information: a. Name of station addressed, aircraft callsign, nature of urgency condition, intention of commander, position, level, heading b. Callsign ... , callsign, present positin, level, ETA destination d. Captain's number, rank and name

Last Answer : a. Name of station addressed, aircraft callsign, nature of urgency condition, intention of commander, position, level, heading

The response to general call from ATC is for the aircraft to: a. Respond in alphabetic order b. Respond in numerical order c. Give no response d. Request a repeat of the message

Description : The response to general call from ATC is for the aircraft to: a. Respond in alphabetic order b. Respond in numerical order c. Give no response d. Request a repeat of the message

Last Answer : c. Give no response

Following a communications failure, the time at which the aircraft should aim to leave the hold is: a. Within 10 minutes of the EAT or ETA b. Within 30 minutes of the EAT or ETA c. EAT or ETA d. Before it runs out of fuel

Description : Following a communications failure, the time at which the aircraft should aim to leave the hold is: a. Within 10 minutes of the EAT or ETA b. Within 30 minutes of the EAT or ETA c. EAT or ETA d. Before it runs out of fuel

Last Answer : c. EAT or ETA

The message “CHECK” to an aircraft means that you should: a. Confirm that you received and understood the last message b. Pass the required information to ATC c. Stay where you are d. Examine a system or procedure

Description : The message “CHECK” to an aircraft means that you should: a. Confirm that you received and understood the last message b. Pass the required information to ATC c. Stay where you are d. Examine a system or procedure

Last Answer : d. Examine a system or procedure

Clearance limit is defined as: a. The flight level to which an aircraft is granted ATC clearance b. The time at which the ATC clearance expires c. The point to which aircraft is granted ATC clearance d. The height below which you will hit the first obstacle

Description : Clearance limit is defined as: a. The flight level to which an aircraft is granted ATC clearance b. The time at which the ATC clearance expires c. The point to which aircraft is granted ATC clearance d. The height below which you will hit the first obstacle

Last Answer : c. The point to which aircraft is granted ATC clearance

When an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference has landed in a Contracting State, it shall notify by the most expeditious means of the State of Registry and the State of the Operator of the landing and, in addition, shall similarly transmit all other relevant information to: a. Each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each State whose citizens were detained as hostages, each State whose citizens were known to be on board and ICAO b. ICAO only c. Each State whose citizens were known to be on board only d. ICAO and each State whose citizens were known to be on board only

Description : When an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference has landed in a Contracting State, it shall notify by the most expeditious means of the State of Registry and the State of the Operator of the landing and, ... on board only d. ICAO and each State whose citizens were known to be on board only

Last Answer : a. Each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each State whose citizens were detained as hostages, each State whose citizens were known to be on board and ICAO