The selection of the code 7600 on a transponder indicates: a. Loss of communications b. Distress c. Urgency d. Hijacking

The selection of the code 7600 on a transponder indicates:  
a. Loss of communications  
b. Distress  
c. Urgency  
d. Hijacking
by

1 Answer

Answer :

a. Loss of communications
by

Related questions

The selection of the code 7600 on a transponder indicates: a. Loss of communications b. Distress c. Urgency d. Hijacking

Description : The selection of the code 7600 on a transponder indicates: a. Loss of communications b. Distress c. Urgency d. Hijacking

Last Answer : a. Loss of communications

Which Mode A code must be used to make sure that your aircraft is recognized as an aircraft in distress? a. Code 7500 b. Code 7700 c. Code 7000 d. Code 7600

Description : Which Mode A code must be used to make sure that your aircraft is recognized as an aircraft in distress? a. Code 7500 b. Code 7700 c. Code 7000 d. Code 7600

Last Answer : b. Code 7700

A DISTRESS message differs from an URGENCY message because: a. There is grave and imminent danger which requires immediate assistance b. The aeroplane has suffered damage that endangers the ability to fly c. The aeroplane will not be able to reach a suitable aerodrome d. The situation concerns the safety of passengers on board or within sight

Description : A DISTRESS message differs from an URGENCY message because: a. There is grave and imminent danger which requires immediate assistance b. The aeroplane has suffered damage that endangers the ... suitable aerodrome d. The situation concerns the safety of passengers on board or within sight

Last Answer : a. There is grave and imminent danger which requires immediate assistance

Which Mode A code must be used to make sure that your aircraft is recognized as an aircraft in distress? a. Code 7500 b. Code 7700 c. Code 7000 d. Code 7600

Description : Which Mode A code must be used to make sure that your aircraft is recognized as an aircraft in distress? a. Code 7500 b. Code 7700 c. Code 7000 d. Code 7600

Last Answer : b. Code 7700

A precautionary landing is a procedure that: a. Enables the aeroplane to land at the destination with unserviceabilities that prevent a normal instrument approach being carried out b. Enables a landing after the declaration of a state of emergency or urgency c. Enables a landing if it is suspected that the undercarriage is not properly lowered d. Is carried out in the event of landing at an alternate aerodrome

Description : A precautionary landing is a procedure that: a. Enables the aeroplane to land at the destination with unserviceabilities that prevent a normal instrument approach being carried out b. Enables a ... not properly lowered d. Is carried out in the event of landing at an alternate aerodrome

Last Answer : b. Enables a landing after the declaration of a state of emergency or urgency

An urgency message should include the following information: a. Name of station addressed, aircraft callsign, nature of urgency condition, intention of commander, position, level, heading b. Callsign, position, route, destination, endurance c. Name of station addressed, callsign, present positin, level, ETA destination d. Captain’s number, rank and name

Description : An urgency message should include the following information: a. Name of station addressed, aircraft callsign, nature of urgency condition, intention of commander, position, level, heading b. Callsign ... , callsign, present positin, level, ETA destination d. Captain's number, rank and name

Last Answer : a. Name of station addressed, aircraft callsign, nature of urgency condition, intention of commander, position, level, heading

If a transponder is unserviceable before an IFR departure, then the pilot: a. Has to cancel the flight b. May proceed with the flight with ATC permission c. Has to fly low level only d. Should fly for another company

Description : If a transponder is unserviceable before an IFR departure, then the pilot: a. Has to cancel the flight b. May proceed with the flight with ATC permission c. Has to fly low level only d. Should fly for another company

Last Answer : b. May proceed with the flight with ATC permission

When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall continuously operate this mode: a. Only when directed by ATC b. Unless otherwise directed by ATC c. Only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace d. Regardless of ATC instructions

Description : When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall continuously operate this mode: a. Only when directed by ATC b. Unless otherwise directed by ATC c. Only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace d. Regardless of ATC instructions

Last Answer : b. Unless otherwise directed by ATC

Pilots are not allowed to use the indent function on their SSR, unless: a. They operate outside controlled airspace b. If asked by ATC c. Within controlled airspace d. They operate a transponder with mode C

Description : Pilots are not allowed to use the indent function on their SSR, unless: a. They operate outside controlled airspace b. If asked by ATC c. Within controlled airspace d. They operate a transponder with mode C

Last Answer : b. If asked by ATC

The definition of the DISTRESS condition is that: a. There is concern for the safety of the aircraft or a person on board or other vehicle but there is no need for immediate assistance b. The aircraft is in imminent danger and requires immediate assistance c. The aircraft has crashed d. The aircraft is being hijacked

Description : The definition of the DISTRESS condition is that: a. There is concern for the safety of the aircraft or a person on board or other vehicle but there is no need for immediate assistance ... and requires immediate assistance c. The aircraft has crashed d. The aircraft is being hijacked

Last Answer : b. The aircraft is in imminent danger and requires immediate assistance

The ATC message “DISTRESS TRAFFIC ENDED” signifies that: a. All traffic are to end their transmissions b. All aircraft on the frequency are to change to another frequency c. Normal ATC is resumed after an emergency d. ATC is shutting shop

Description : The ATC message “DISTRESS TRAFFIC ENDED” signifies that: a. All traffic are to end their transmissions b. All aircraft on the frequency are to change to another frequency c. Normal ATC is resumed after an emergency d. ATC is shutting shop

Last Answer : c. Normal ATC is resumed after an emergency

A DISTRESS message differs from an URGENCY message because: a. There is grave and imminent danger which requires immediate assistance b. The aeroplane has suffered damage that endangers the ability to fly c. The aeroplane will not be able to reach a suitable aerodrome d. The situation concerns the safety of passengers on board or within sight

Description : A DISTRESS message differs from an URGENCY message because: a. There is grave and imminent danger which requires immediate assistance b. The aeroplane has suffered damage that endangers the ability ... suitable aerodrome d. The situation concerns the safety of passengers on board or within sight

Last Answer : a. There is grave and imminent danger which requires immediate assistance

When refuelling is being conducted with passengers embarking or disembarking: a. Refuelling is strictly prohibited whilst passengers are embarking or disembarking b. All flight crew must be on board c. Communications shall be maintained by ground crew and qualified crew on board d. The stairs shall be fully extended

Description : When refuelling is being conducted with passengers embarking or disembarking: a. Refuelling is strictly prohibited whilst passengers are embarking or disembarking b. All flight crew must be on board c. ... by ground crew and qualified crew on board d. The stairs shall be fully extended

Last Answer : c. Communications shall be maintained by ground crew and qualified crew on board

The full range of VHF frequencies used for communications is: a. 3 to 30 MHz b. 88 to 108 MHz c. 108.0 to 139.95 MHz d. 118.0 to 136.975 MHz

Description : The full range of VHF frequencies used for communications is: a. 3 to 30 MHz b. 88 to 108 MHz c. 108.0 to 139.95 MHz d. 118.0 to 136.975 MHz

Last Answer : d. 118.0 to 136.975 MHz

The time given in aeronautical communications is: a. Local mean time b. In minutes only c. UTC d. Daylight saving time

Description : The time given in aeronautical communications is: a. Local mean time b. In minutes only c. UTC d. Daylight saving time

Last Answer : c. UTC

The definition of the instruction “MONITORO” is: a. Listen out on frequency b. Establish communications on frequency c. Watch out for visual signals on frequency d. You are being watched

Description : The definition of the instruction “MONITORO” is: a. Listen out on frequency b. Establish communications on frequency c. Watch out for visual signals on frequency d. You are being watched

Last Answer : a. Listen out on frequency

Readability 2 means that your transmission is: a. Readable but with difficulty b. Readable c. Readable now and then d. Two way communications have been established

Description : Readability 2 means that your transmission is: a. Readable but with difficulty b. Readable c. Readable now and then d. Two way communications have been established

Last Answer : c. Readable now and then

Following a communications failure, the time at which the aircraft should aim to leave the hold is: a. Within 10 minutes of the EAT or ETA b. Within 30 minutes of the EAT or ETA c. EAT or ETA d. Before it runs out of fuel

Description : Following a communications failure, the time at which the aircraft should aim to leave the hold is: a. Within 10 minutes of the EAT or ETA b. Within 30 minutes of the EAT or ETA c. EAT or ETA d. Before it runs out of fuel

Last Answer : c. EAT or ETA

Both the VOR and the ADF in an aircraft are correctly tuned and identified. The indications from both are shown on the RMI illustrated. The information on the RMI indicates: a. That the aircraft is heading 033° (M), is on the 310° radial from the VOR, and bears 050° (M) from the NDB b. That the aircraft is heading 330° (M), is on the 310° radial from the VOR, and bears 050° (M) from the NDB c. That the aircraft is heading 330° (M), is on the 130° radial from the VOR, and bears 050° (M) from the NDB d. That the aircraft is heading 330° (M), is on the 130° radial from the VOR, and bears 230° (M) from the NDB

Description : Both the VOR and the ADF in an aircraft are correctly tuned and identified. The indications from both are shown on the RMI illustrated. The information on the RMI indicates: a. That the aircraft is heading 033° (M ... 330° (M), is on the 130° radial from the VOR, and bears 230° (M) from the NDB

Last Answer : d. That the aircraft is heading 330° (M), is on the 130° radial from the VOR, and bears 230° (M) from the NDB

The DME counters are rotating continuously. This indicates that: a. The DME is unserviceable b. The DME is trying to lock onto range c. The DME is trying to lock onto frequency d. The DME is receiving no response from the ground station

Description : The DME counters are rotating continuously. This indicates that: a. The DME is unserviceable b. The DME is trying to lock onto range c. The DME is trying to lock onto frequency d. The DME is receiving no response from the ground station

Last Answer : b. The DME is trying to lock onto range

Both the VOR and the ADF in an aircraft are correctly tuned and identified. The indications from both are shown on the RMI illustrated. The information on the RMI indicates: a. That the aircraft is heading 033° (M), is on the 310° radial from the VOR, and bears 050° (M) from the NDB b. That the aircraft is heading 330° (M), is on the 310° radial from the VOR, and bears 050° (M) from the NDB c. That the aircraft is heading 330° (M), is on the 130° radial from the VOR, and bears 050° (M) from the NDB d. That the aircraft is heading 330° (M), is on the 130° radial from the VOR, and bears 230° (M) from the NDB

Description : Both the VOR and the ADF in an aircraft are correctly tuned and identified. The indications from both are shown on the RMI illustrated. The information on the RMI indicates: a. That the aircraft is heading 033° (M ... 330° (M), is on the 130° radial from the VOR, and bears 230° (M) from the NDB

Last Answer : d. That the aircraft is heading 330° (M), is on the 130° radial from the VOR, and bears 230° (M) from the NDB

The LED indicator on the emergency torch is flashing at 4 seconds intervals. This indicates: a. The battery is charging b. The torch is serviceable c. The battery needs replacing d. The filament is broken

Description : The LED indicator on the emergency torch is flashing at 4 seconds intervals. This indicates: a. The battery is charging b. The torch is serviceable c. The battery needs replacing d. The filament is broken

Last Answer : b. The torch is serviceable

The satellite communications channels in a transponder are defined by the A. LNA B. bandpass filter C. mixer D. input signals

Description : The satellite communications channels in a transponder are defined by the A. LNA B. bandpass filter C. mixer D. input signals

Last Answer : B. bandpass filter

The key electronic component in a communications satellite is the A. telemetry equipment B. on-board computer C. command and control system D. transponder

Description : The key electronic component in a communications satellite is the A. telemetry equipment B. on-board computer C. command and control system D. transponder

Last Answer : D. transponder

Which of the following is the basic component of a communications satellite receiver? A. On-board computer B. Reflector C. Telemetry D. Transponder

Description : Which of the following is the basic component of a communications satellite receiver? A. On-board computer B. Reflector C. Telemetry D. Transponder

Last Answer : D. Transponder

What satellite subsystem monitors onboard conditions such as temperature and battery voltage and transmits this data back to a ground station for analysis? A. Communications subsystem B. AKM C. TTC D. Transponder

Description : What satellite subsystem monitors onboard conditions such as temperature and battery voltage and transmits this data back to a ground station for analysis? A. Communications subsystem B. AKM C. TTC D. Transponder

Last Answer : C. TTC

What is the quardband between transponder channels in the commercial C-band for satellite communications? A. 6 MHz B. 36 MHz C. 4 MHz D. 2 MHz

Description : What is the quardband between transponder channels in the commercial C-band for satellite communications? A. 6 MHz B. 36 MHz C. 4 MHz D. 2 MHz

Last Answer : C. 4 MHz

Which of the following frequencies is normally used for distress and safety communications? A. 4209.5 kHz B. 490 kHz C. 518 kHz D. 2174.5 kHz

Description : Which of the following frequencies is normally used for distress and safety communications? A. 4209.5 kHz B. 490 kHz C. 518 kHz D. 2174.5 kHz

Last Answer : D. 2174.5 kHz

An automated ship-to-shore distress alerting system using satellites and advanced terrestrial communications systems. A. GPS B. Iridium system C. INMARSAT D. GMDSS

Description : An automated ship-to-shore distress alerting system using satellites and advanced terrestrial communications systems. A. GPS B. Iridium system C. INMARSAT D. GMDSS

Last Answer : D. GMDSS

The code “BECMG FM 1100 –RASH” in a METAR means: a. From 1100UTC, the cessation of rain showers b. Becoming from 1100UTC slight rain showers c. Becoming from 1100UTC rain showers d. Becoming from 1100UTC till 0000UTC slight rain showers

Description : The code “BECMG FM 1100 –RASH” in a METAR means: a. From 1100UTC, the cessation of rain showers b. Becoming from 1100UTC slight rain showers c. Becoming from 1100UTC rain showers d. Becoming from 1100UTC till 0000UTC slight rain showers

Last Answer : b. Becoming from 1100UTC slight rain showers

The Q code for the magnetic bearing from a station is: a. QDM b. QDR c. QTE d. QNH

Description : The Q code for the magnetic bearing from a station is: a. QDM b. QDR c. QTE d. QNH

Last Answer : b. QDR

The Q code on which height is based on: a. QNH b. QFF c. QFE d. QUJ

Description : The Q code on which height is based on: a. QNH b. QFF c. QFE d. QUJ

Last Answer : c. QFE

The Q code for TRUE BEARING from a station is: a. QDR b. QFE c. QUJ d. QTE

Description : The Q code for TRUE BEARING from a station is: a. QDR b. QFE c. QUJ d. QTE

Last Answer : d. QTE

When given instructions to set a mode/code, a pilot shall: a. Only use the word “wilco” b. Only read back the code c. Only use the word “roger” d. Read back mode and code

Description : When given instructions to set a mode/code, a pilot shall: a. Only use the word “wilco” b. Only read back the code c. Only use the word “roger” d. Read back mode and code

Last Answer : d. Read back mode and code

Which wind-shear condition results in a loss of airspeed? a. Decreasing headwind or tailwind b. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind c. Decreasing headwind and increasing tailwind d. Increasing headwind or tailwind

Description : Which wind-shear condition results in a loss of airspeed? a. Decreasing headwind or tailwind b. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind c. Decreasing headwind and increasing tailwind d. Increasing headwind or tailwind

Last Answer : c. Decreasing headwind and increasing tailwind

What is the recommended technique to counter the loss of airspeed and resultant lift from wind shear? a. Maintain, or increase, pitch attitude and accept the lower-than-normal airspeed indications b. Lower the pitch attitude and regain lost airspeed c. Avoid overstressing aircraft, pitch to stick shaker, and apply maximum power d. Accelerate the aircraft to prevent a stall by sacrificing altitude

Description : What is the recommended technique to counter the loss of airspeed and resultant lift from wind shear? a. Maintain, or increase, pitch attitude and accept the lower-than-normal airspeed ... shaker, and apply maximum power d. Accelerate the aircraft to prevent a stall by sacrificing altitude

Last Answer : c. Avoid overstressing aircraft, pitch to stick shaker, and apply maximum power

Shortly after take-off, the altitude of the aeroplane suffers an abrupt pitch-up and IAS rapidly decreases followed quickly by a decrease in altitude. Engine indications are normal. You should suspect what and what should you do? a. Marked temperature drop; apply full power b. Loss of head wind or an increase in tail wind; apply full power c. Incipient engine failure (ignore instruments); lower the nose to gain airspeed d. Local clear air turbulence; reduce speed to VRA and ride it out

Description : Shortly after take-off, the altitude of the aeroplane suffers an abrupt pitch-up and IAS rapidly decreases followed quickly by a decrease in altitude. Engine indications are normal. You should suspect what ... to gain airspeed d. Local clear air turbulence; reduce speed to VRA and ride it out

Last Answer : b. Loss of head wind or an increase in tail wind; apply full power

The most obvious sign of an individual suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning is: a. Muscular impairment b. Cyanosis of the lips and fingernails c. Sensory loss, particularly tunnelling of vision d. Cherry red lips and flushed cheeks

Description : The most obvious sign of an individual suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning is: a. Muscular impairment b. Cyanosis of the lips and fingernails c. Sensory loss, particularly tunnelling of vision d. Cherry red lips and flushed cheeks

Last Answer : d. Cherry red lips and flushed cheeks

The effects of carbon monoxide: a. Increases with altitude b. Decreases with altitude c. Increases with increase of density d. Decreases with pressure loss

Description : The effects of carbon monoxide: a. Increases with altitude b. Decreases with altitude c. Increases with increase of density d. Decreases with pressure loss

Last Answer : a. Increases with altitude

Maximum Differential pressure: a. Is the maximum authorized pressure difference between the inside of the fuselage and the atmospheric ambient pressure b. Is the absolute pressure provided by the vacuum pump c. Is the pressure loss over a given time limit d. Is the absolute pressure the cabin pressure ducting is designed to carry

Description : Maximum Differential pressure: a. Is the maximum authorized pressure difference between the inside of the fuselage and the atmospheric ambient pressure b. Is the absolute pressure provided by the ... time limit d. Is the absolute pressure the cabin pressure ducting is designed to carry

Last Answer : a. Is the maximum authorized pressure difference between the inside of the fuselage and the atmospheric ambient pressure

Why does Yahoo keep hijacking my stuff?

Description : Why does Yahoo keep hijacking my stuff?

Last Answer : Which browser are you using?

How to put an end to e-mail addess hijacking and friends being spammed?

Description : How to put an end to e-mail addess hijacking and friends being spammed?

Last Answer : it’s a virus so she needs to clean it up pronto using antivirus software. AVG is a good free package I have used.

How to deal with browser hijacking?

Description : How to deal with browser hijacking?

Last Answer : Get MalwareBytes, run a full scan, and remove anything that it comes up with.

What is the attack called “evil twin” a) Rogue access point b) ARP poisoning c) Session hijacking d) MAC spoofing

Description : What is the attack called “evil twin” a) Rogue access point b) ARP poisoning c) Session hijacking d) MAC spoofing

Last Answer : a) Rogue access point

What is the attack called “evil twin”?  Rogue access point  ARP poisoning  Session hijacking  MAC spoofing

Description : What is the attack called “evil twin”?  Rogue access point  ARP poisoning  Session hijacking  MAC spoofing

Last Answer :  MAC spoofing

If a person has been exposed to radiation, presenting symptoms, such as nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, diarrhea, or fatigue can be expected to occur within _______ hours after exposure? a) 48 to 72 The prodromal phase (presenting symptoms) of radiation exposure occurs within 48 to 72 hours after exposure. Signs and symptoms include nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, diarrhea, and fatigue. With high-dose radiation exposure, the signs and symptoms may include fever, respiratory distress, and increased excitability.

Description : If a person has been exposed to radiation, presenting symptoms, such as nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, diarrhea, or fatigue can be expected to occur within _______ hours after exposure? ... prodromal phase (presenting symptoms) of radiation exposure occurs within 48 to 72 hours after exposure.

Last Answer : a) 48 to 72 The prodromal phase (presenting symptoms) of radiation exposure occurs within 48 to 72 hours after exposure. Signs and symptoms include nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, ... radiation exposure, the signs and symptoms may include fever, respiratory distress, and increased excitability.

What is the wavelength of visible spectrum? (1) 1300 A° -3000 A° (2) 3900 A° - 7600 A° (3) 7800 A° - 8000 A° (4) 8500 A° - 9800 A°

Description : What is the wavelength of visible spectrum? (1) 1300 A° -3000 A° (2) 3900 A° - 7600 A° (3) 7800 A° - 8000 A° (4) 8500 A° - 9800 A°

Last Answer : (2) 3900 A° - 7600 A° Explanation: The visible spectrum is the portion of the electromagnetic spectrum that is visible to (can be detected by) the human eye. Electromagnetic radiation in this range of wavelengths ... from about 390 to 750 nm in terms of angstrom it is in between 3900 - 7600 A°.

Mr. Sathyan invested Rs.20, 000/- with rate of interest@20 p.c.p.a. The interest was compounded half yearly for first one year and in the next year it was compounded yearly. What will be the total interest earned at the end of two years? a) Rs.7600 b) Rs. 9040 c) Rs. 8750 d) Rs. 6900

Description : Mr. Sathyan invested Rs.20, 000/- with rate of interest@20 p.c.p.a. The interest was compounded half yearly for first one year and in the next year it was compounded yearly. What will be the total interest earned at the end of two years? a) Rs.7600 b) Rs. 9040 c) Rs. 8750 d) Rs. 6900

Last Answer : Total interest = 20000 × 110/100 × 110/100 × 120/100 - 20000 = 29040 - 20000= Rs. 9040 Answer: b)

The owner of a TV shop charges his customer 20% more than the CP. If a customer paid Rs. 10800 for a TV, then find its original price? (a) Rs. 9300 (b) Rs. 8600 (c) Rs. 9800 (d) Rs. 7600 (e) None of the above

Description : The owner of a TV shop charges his customer 20% more than the CP. If a customer paid Rs. 10800 for a TV, then find its original price? (a) Rs. 9300 (b) Rs. 8600 (c) Rs. 9800 (d) Rs. 7600 (e) None of the above

Last Answer : (e) None of the above