With reference to Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems, the difference between TCAS I and II is that: a. TCAS II can provide Traffic Advisories and Resolution Advisories whilst TCAS I can only provide Traffic Advisories b. TCAS II can only be fitted to large aircrafts which carry more than 30 passengers. While TCAS I can be fitted to any aircraft. c. TCAS I can be fitted aircrafts which carry transponders with Mode A only while TCAS II can be fitted to aircrafts whose transponders include either Mode C or Mode S. d. TCAS II can only be to aircraft which are equipped with EFIS

With reference to Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems, the difference between TCAS I and II is  that:  
a. TCAS II can provide Traffic Advisories and Resolution Advisories whilst TCAS I  can only provide Traffic Advisories  
b. TCAS II can only be fitted to large aircrafts which carry more than 30 passengers.  While TCAS I can be fitted to any aircraft.  
c. TCAS I can be fitted aircrafts which carry transponders with Mode A only while TCAS  II can be fitted to aircrafts whose transponders include either Mode C or Mode S.  d. TCAS II can only be to aircraft which are equipped with EFIS
by

1 Answer

Answer :

a. TCAS II can provide Traffic Advisories and Resolution Advisories whilst TCAS I  can only provide Traffic Advisories
by

Related questions

With reference to Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems: a. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary and has the clearance confirmed by ATC b. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary and has advised ATC of the other aircraft’s proximity c. RAs must never be disregarded d. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary

Description : With reference to Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems: a. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation ... pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary

Last Answer : d. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary

If so equipped, when should an aircraft display the anti-collision light? a. Only at night in flight, but not on the ground if being towed b. Whilst taxiing but not whilst being towed c. Only at night with engines running d. At all times on the ground when the engines are running

Description : If so equipped, when should an aircraft display the anti-collision light? a. Only at night in flight, but not on the ground if being towed b. Whilst taxiing but not whilst being towed c. Only at night with engines running d. At all times on the ground when the engines are running

Last Answer : d. At all times on the ground when the engines are running

If so equipped, when should an aircraft display the anti-collision light? a. Only at night in flight, but not on the ground if being towed b. Whilst taxiing but not whilst being towed c. Only at night with engines running d. At all times on the ground when the engines are running

Description : If so equipped, when should an aircraft display the anti-collision light? a. Only at night in flight, but not on the ground if being towed b. Whilst taxiing but not whilst being towed c. Only at night with engines running d. At all times on the ground when the engines are running

Last Answer : d. At all times on the ground when the engines are running

Two aircrafts, one with a sharp wing profile (S) and the other with a thick profile (T), are flying through the same cloud with the same true airspeed. The cloud consists of small supercooled droplets. Which of the following statements is most correct concerning ice accretion? a. Aircraft T experiences more icing than S b. Aircraft S and T experience the same amount of icing c. Neither of the aircrafts accumulate ice due to the small size of droplets d. Aircraft S experiences more icing than T

Description : Two aircrafts, one with a sharp wing profile (S) and the other with a thick profile (T), are flying through the same cloud with the same true airspeed. The cloud consists of small ... aircrafts accumulate ice due to the small size of droplets d. Aircraft S experiences more icing than T

Last Answer : d. Aircraft S experiences more icing than T

When refuelling is being conducted with passengers embarking or disembarking: a. Refuelling is strictly prohibited whilst passengers are embarking or disembarking b. All flight crew must be on board c. Communications shall be maintained by ground crew and qualified crew on board d. The stairs shall be fully extended

Description : When refuelling is being conducted with passengers embarking or disembarking: a. Refuelling is strictly prohibited whilst passengers are embarking or disembarking b. All flight crew must be on board c. ... by ground crew and qualified crew on board d. The stairs shall be fully extended

Last Answer : c. Communications shall be maintained by ground crew and qualified crew on board

Aircrafts are categorized according to their threshold speeds, multiplied by a factor. What aircraft category corresponds to a range of speeds 141kts – 165kts? a. B b. E c. D d. C

Description : Aircrafts are categorized according to their threshold speeds, multiplied by a factor. What aircraft category corresponds to a range of speeds 141kts – 165kts? a. B b. E c. D d. C

Last Answer : d. C

A pilot can improve the probability of detecting other aircrafts by: a. Minimizing the duration of eye rests and making as many eye movements as possible b. Moving the head frequently to alter the apparent motion of any distant object c. Maximizing the time spent looking in each sector to allow the maximum chance of detecting movement d. Maintaining as far as possible a lookout ahead of the aircraft and relying on peripheral vision to detect any movement from the side

Description : A pilot can improve the probability of detecting other aircrafts by: a. Minimizing the duration of eye rests and making as many eye movements as possible b. Moving the head frequently to ... a lookout ahead of the aircraft and relying on peripheral vision to detect any movement from the side

Last Answer : a. Minimizing the duration of eye rests and making as many eye movements as possible

The longitudinal separation minimum based on time between aircrafts at the same FL, where there is enough coverage for navigation aids and the preceeding aircraft has a higher true airspeed of 20kts minimum is: a. 3 minutes b. 15 minutes c. 5 minutes d. 10 minutes

Description : The longitudinal separation minimum based on time between aircrafts at the same FL, where there is enough coverage for navigation aids and the preceeding aircraft has a higher true airspeed of 20kts minimum is: a. 3 minutes b. 15 minutes c. 5 minutes d. 10 minutes

Last Answer : c. 5 minutes

In the event of cabin depressurization, the actions of the pilot will be to: a. Immediately commence a diversion to a suitable alternate b. Increase engine power to provide additional airflow to the pressurization systems c. Maintain the aeroplane altitude to prevent further damage to the airframe by over loading of the structure d. Commence a descent to an altitude where the supplemental oxygen supply is sufficient for all crew and passengers

Description : In the event of cabin depressurization, the actions of the pilot will be to: a. Immediately commence a diversion to a suitable alternate b. Increase engine power to provide additional ... a descent to an altitude where the supplemental oxygen supply is sufficient for all crew and passengers

Last Answer : d. Commence a descent to an altitude where the supplemental oxygen supply is sufficient for all crew and passengers

On receipt of a TCAS RA, your action is to: a. Initiate the required maneuver immediately b. Make a note of the details c. Request a flight clearance deviation from ATC d. Do nothing until a TA is received

Description : On receipt of a TCAS RA, your action is to: a. Initiate the required maneuver immediately b. Make a note of the details c. Request a flight clearance deviation from ATC d. Do nothing until a TA is received

Last Answer : a. Initiate the required maneuver immediately

In the event of an act of unlawful interference, which of the following is the correct procedure to be taken by the pilot in command? a. Squawk 7700 if the situation requires and continue the flight as per the ATC clearance received if possible b. Squawk 7500 and broadcast a warning to ATC other traffic on 121.500MHz or the frequency in use whilst maintaining the flight as cleared c. Squawk 7500 (or 7700 if required) and broadcast a warning if the situation forces deviation from the cleared flight plan d. If forced to deviate from the flight plan, climb or descend to altitudes that differ from the normal cruising altitudes by 1000ft

Description : In the event of an act of unlawful interference, which of the following is the correct procedure to be taken by the pilot in command? a. Squawk 7700 if the situation requires and continue ... the flight plan, climb or descend to altitudes that differ from the normal cruising altitudes by 1000ft

Last Answer : c. Squawk 7500 (or 7700 if required) and broadcast a warning if the situation forces deviation from the cleared flight plan

How will an oncoming aircraft on a line of constant bearing appear visually? a. There will be no relative movement and it will appear to be very small until seconds before the collision b. There will be no relative movement and it will appear to be very small until seconds before the aircraft passes close by c. There will be no relative movement and it will appear to be very small until seconds before the aircraft passes above d. There will be no relative movement and it will appear to be very small until seconds before the aircraft passes well clear

Description : How will an oncoming aircraft on a line of constant bearing appear visually? a. There will be no relative movement and it will appear to be very small until seconds before the collision ... relative movement and it will appear to be very small until seconds before the aircraft passes well clear

Last Answer : a. There will be no relative movement and it will appear to be very small until seconds before the collision

When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall continuously operate this mode: a. Only when directed by ATC b. Unless otherwise directed by ATC c. Only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace d. Regardless of ATC instructions

Description : When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall continuously operate this mode: a. Only when directed by ATC b. Unless otherwise directed by ATC c. Only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace d. Regardless of ATC instructions

Last Answer : b. Unless otherwise directed by ATC

The instruction “ORBIT” from ATC means that the aircraft should: a. Carry out a go around b. Continue with 360 degree turns c. Carry out one 360 degree turn only d. Reverse the direction of the turn

Description : The instruction “ORBIT” from ATC means that the aircraft should: a. Carry out a go around b. Continue with 360 degree turns c. Carry out one 360 degree turn only d. Reverse the direction of the turn

Last Answer : c. Carry out one 360 degree turn only

After an accident, the operator of an aeroplane equipped with a flight recorder must keep the original recordings for a minimum period of: a. 30 days b. 90 days c. 45 days d. 60 days

Description : After an accident, the operator of an aeroplane equipped with a flight recorder must keep the original recordings for a minimum period of: a. 30 days b. 90 days c. 45 days d. 60 days

Last Answer : d. 60 days

The ATC message “DISTRESS TRAFFIC ENDED” signifies that: a. All traffic are to end their transmissions b. All aircraft on the frequency are to change to another frequency c. Normal ATC is resumed after an emergency d. ATC is shutting shop

Description : The ATC message “DISTRESS TRAFFIC ENDED” signifies that: a. All traffic are to end their transmissions b. All aircraft on the frequency are to change to another frequency c. Normal ATC is resumed after an emergency d. ATC is shutting shop

Last Answer : c. Normal ATC is resumed after an emergency

Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome experiencing radio failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance? a. Switching on and off three times the landing lights b. The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights c. Switching on and off four times the navigation lights d. Switching on and off four times the landing lights

Description : Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome experiencing radio failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance? a. ... four times the navigation lights d. Switching on and off four times the landing lights

Last Answer : b. The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights

Which Mode A code must be used to make sure that your aircraft is recognized as an aircraft in distress? a. Code 7500 b. Code 7700 c. Code 7000 d. Code 7600

Description : Which Mode A code must be used to make sure that your aircraft is recognized as an aircraft in distress? a. Code 7500 b. Code 7700 c. Code 7000 d. Code 7600

Last Answer : b. Code 7700

When an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference has landed in a Contracting State, it shall notify by the most expeditious means of the State of Registry and the State of the Operator of the landing and, in addition, shall similarly transmit all other relevant information to: a. Each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each State whose citizens were detained as hostages, each State whose citizens were known to be on board and ICAO b. ICAO only c. Each State whose citizens were known to be on board only d. ICAO and each State whose citizens were known to be on board only

Description : When an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference has landed in a Contracting State, it shall notify by the most expeditious means of the State of Registry and the State of the Operator of the landing and, ... on board only d. ICAO and each State whose citizens were known to be on board only

Last Answer : a. Each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each State whose citizens were detained as hostages, each State whose citizens were known to be on board and ICAO

An urgency message should include the following information: a. Name of station addressed, aircraft callsign, nature of urgency condition, intention of commander, position, level, heading b. Callsign, position, route, destination, endurance c. Name of station addressed, callsign, present positin, level, ETA destination d. Captain’s number, rank and name

Description : An urgency message should include the following information: a. Name of station addressed, aircraft callsign, nature of urgency condition, intention of commander, position, level, heading b. Callsign ... , callsign, present positin, level, ETA destination d. Captain's number, rank and name

Last Answer : a. Name of station addressed, aircraft callsign, nature of urgency condition, intention of commander, position, level, heading

A pilot who is diagnosed as having an alcohol problem can: a. Continue to fly as an operating pilot whilst he receives treatment b. Never fly again as an operating pilot c. Fly as a pilot only if he is supervised by another pilot d. Return to flying duties as a suitable course of treatment is complete

Description : A pilot who is diagnosed as having an alcohol problem can: a. Continue to fly as an operating pilot whilst he receives treatment b. Never fly again as an operating pilot c. Fly as a ... he is supervised by another pilot d. Return to flying duties as a suitable course of treatment is complete

Last Answer : d. Return to flying duties as a suitable course of treatment is complete

Who checks, before flight, that the aircraft’s weight is such that the flight can be safely made and that any transported cargo is properly distributed and secured? a. The company’s cargo technicians b. The captain c. The mechanic on board, or in his absence the co-pilot d. The operator

Description : Who checks, before flight, that the aircraft’s weight is such that the flight can be safely made and that any transported cargo is properly distributed and secured? a. The company’s cargo technicians b. The captain c. The mechanic on board, or in his absence the co-pilot d. The operator

Last Answer : b. The captain

During a general briefing at the pre-flight stage, the captain should emphasize: a. The complete delegation of all duties b. The importance of crew coordination c. The priority of departing on schedule d. The avoidance of inadequate handling of controls

Description : During a general briefing at the pre-flight stage, the captain should emphasize: a. The complete delegation of all duties b. The importance of crew coordination c. The priority of departing on schedule d. The avoidance of inadequate handling of controls

Last Answer : b. The importance of crew coordination

From a pre-flight briefing you know a jet stream is at 31,000ft whilst you are at FL270. You experience moderate CAT. What would be the best course of action? a. Stay level b. Descend c. Climb d. Reduce speed

Description : From a pre-flight briefing you know a jet stream is at 31,000ft whilst you are at FL270. You experience moderate CAT. What would be the best course of action? a. Stay level b. Descend c. Climb d. Reduce speed

Last Answer : b. Descend

An aircraft has a L/D ratio of 15:1 at 50kts in calm air. What would the L/D ratio be with a direct headwind of 25kts? a. 30:1 b. 15:1 c. 25:1 d. 7.5:1

Description : An aircraft has a L/D ratio of 15:1 at 50kts in calm air. What would the L/D ratio be with a direct headwind of 25kts? a. 30:1 b. 15:1 c. 25:1 d. 7.5:1

Last Answer : b. 15:1

Following a communications failure, the time at which the aircraft should aim to leave the hold is: a. Within 10 minutes of the EAT or ETA b. Within 30 minutes of the EAT or ETA c. EAT or ETA d. Before it runs out of fuel

Description : Following a communications failure, the time at which the aircraft should aim to leave the hold is: a. Within 10 minutes of the EAT or ETA b. Within 30 minutes of the EAT or ETA c. EAT or ETA d. Before it runs out of fuel

Last Answer : c. EAT or ETA

If it is suspected that a bomb is on board an aeroplane, the measures that should be taken are designed to: a. Disable the device b. Find out what will trigger the device c. Prevent knowledge of the device on board getting to the passengers d. Locate and move the device to the ‘least risk’ location and apply as much padding as possible

Description : If it is suspected that a bomb is on board an aeroplane, the measures that should be taken are designed to: a. Disable the device b. Find out what will trigger the device c. Prevent ... d. Locate and move the device to the least risk' location and apply as much padding as possible

Last Answer : d. Locate and move the device to the ‘least risk’ location and apply as much padding as possible

One way in which passengers can be reassured during an emergency is: a. To regularly see members of the flight crew calmly moving about the cabin in a relaxed manner b. For the captain or first officer to keep a running commentary going over the PA c. For the cabin staff to ensure the passengers are aware of what is happening and that they are complying with instructions d. For the cabin staff to direct passengers’ attention to the emergency passenger brief cards and make sure that they have read them

Description : One way in which passengers can be reassured during an emergency is: a. To regularly see members of the flight crew calmly moving about the cabin in a relaxed manner b. For the ... to direct passengers' attention to the emergency passenger brief cards and make sure that they have read them

Last Answer : c. For the cabin staff to ensure the passengers are aware of what is happening and that they are complying with instructions

During a slow decompression, passengers will occur: a. The cabin temperature will fall as pressure reduces b. Body cavities (sinuses, ears, etc.) will become pressurised and may require assistance in venting c. As soon as the pressure falls, the oxygen drop-out system will operate d. No contra effects, as slow decompression has no effect on the human body

Description : During a slow decompression, passengers will occur: a. The cabin temperature will fall as pressure reduces b. Body cavities (sinuses, ears, etc.) will become pressurised and may require assistance in ... will operate d. No contra effects, as slow decompression has no effect on the human body

Last Answer : b. Body cavities (sinuses, ears, etc.) will become pressurised and may require assistance in venting

A DISTRESS message differs from an URGENCY message because: a. There is grave and imminent danger which requires immediate assistance b. The aeroplane has suffered damage that endangers the ability to fly c. The aeroplane will not be able to reach a suitable aerodrome d. The situation concerns the safety of passengers on board or within sight

Description : A DISTRESS message differs from an URGENCY message because: a. There is grave and imminent danger which requires immediate assistance b. The aeroplane has suffered damage that endangers the ... suitable aerodrome d. The situation concerns the safety of passengers on board or within sight

Last Answer : a. There is grave and imminent danger which requires immediate assistance

A hand pump is usually fitted: a. For ground servicing purposes b. Lowering the landing gear in an emergency c. Pressurising the oleo struts in the air d. Retracting the gear after take-off

Description : A hand pump is usually fitted: a. For ground servicing purposes b. Lowering the landing gear in an emergency c. Pressurising the oleo struts in the air d. Retracting the gear after take-off

Last Answer : a. For ground servicing purposes

How many hours in advance of departure time should a flight plan be filed in the case of flights into areas subject to air traffic flow management (ATFM)? a. 3.00 hrs b. 0.30 hrs c. 1.00 hr d. 0.10 hr

Description : How many hours in advance of departure time should a flight plan be filed in the case of flights into areas subject to air traffic flow management (ATFM)? a. 3.00 hrs b. 0.30 hrs c. 1.00 hr d. 0.10 hr

Last Answer : a. 3.00 hrs

Some large A.C. motors are equipped with with heaters. These could be ___________. I. resistance heaters bolted directly to the frame II. low voltage windings embedded in the motor windings A. I only B. II only C. either I or II D. neither I or II

Description : Some large A.C. motors are equipped with with heaters. These could be ___________. I. resistance heaters bolted directly to the frame II. low voltage windings embedded in the motor windings A. I only B. II only C. either I or II D. neither I or II

Last Answer : Answer: C

The time between the collision of two aircraft on a collision course is called_______ a) Differential time b) Tau c) Traffic Time d) Collision Time

Description : The time between the collision of two aircraft on a collision course is called_______ a) Differential time b) Tau c) Traffic Time d) Collision Time

Last Answer : b) Tau

If you switch on the anti-collision light in IMC, what are the likely effects? a. Depth perception increases b. You can suffer from dizziness and disorientation c. You can suffer from Color Illusion d. Binocular vision is affected

Description : If you switch on the anti-collision light in IMC, what are the likely effects? a. Depth perception increases b. You can suffer from dizziness and disorientation c. You can suffer from Color Illusion d. Binocular vision is affected

Last Answer : b. You can suffer from dizziness and disorientation

At an aircraft taxiing speed of 10mph, the anti-skid braking system is: a. Inoperative b. Operative c. Operative only on the nosewheel brakes d. Operative only on the main wheel brakes

Description : At an aircraft taxiing speed of 10mph, the anti-skid braking system is: a. Inoperative b. Operative c. Operative only on the nosewheel brakes d. Operative only on the main wheel brakes

Last Answer : a. Inoperative

Two aircrafts, one with a sharp wing profile (S) and the other with a thick profile (T), are flying through the same cloud with the same true airspeed. The cloud consists of small supercooled droplets. Which of the following statements is most correct concerning ice accretion? a. Aircraft T experiences more icing than S b. Aircraft S and T experience the same amount of icing c. Neither of the aircrafts accumulate ice due to the small size of droplets d. Aircraft S experiences more icing than T

Description : Two aircrafts, one with a sharp wing profile (S) and the other with a thick profile (T), are flying  through the same cloud with the same true airspeed. The cloud consists of small  ... aircrafts accumulate ice due to the small size of droplets  d. Aircraft S experiences more icing than T

Last Answer : d. Aircraft S experiences more icing than T

What is the recommended technique to counter the loss of airspeed and resultant lift from wind shear? a. Maintain, or increase, pitch attitude and accept the lower-than-normal airspeed indications b. Lower the pitch attitude and regain lost airspeed c. Avoid overstressing aircraft, pitch to stick shaker, and apply maximum power d. Accelerate the aircraft to prevent a stall by sacrificing altitude

Description : What is the recommended technique to counter the loss of airspeed and resultant lift from wind shear? a. Maintain, or increase, pitch attitude and accept the lower-than-normal airspeed ... shaker, and apply maximum power d. Accelerate the aircraft to prevent a stall by sacrificing altitude

Last Answer : c. Avoid overstressing aircraft, pitch to stick shaker, and apply maximum power

If the angle of attack is increased beyond the critical angle of attack, the wing will no longer produce sufficient lift to support the weight of the aircraft: a. Unless the airspeed is greater than the normal stall speed b. Regardless of airspeed or pitch attitude c. Unless the pitch attitude is on or below the natural horizon d. In which case, the control column should be pulled-back immediately

Description : If the angle of attack is increased beyond the critical angle of attack, the wing will no longer produce sufficient lift to support the weight of the aircraft: a. Unless the airspeed is greater ... below the natural horizon d. In which case, the control column should be pulled-back immediately

Last Answer : b. Regardless of airspeed or pitch attitude

An aircraft is flying at constant indicated altitude over a warm airmass. The altimeter reading will be: a. Correct b. Greater than the real altitude c. Less than the real altitude d. Oscillating around the correct altitude

Description : An aircraft is flying at constant indicated altitude over a warm airmass. The altimeter reading will be: a. Correct b. Greater than the real altitude c. Less than the real altitude d. Oscillating around the correct altitude

Last Answer : c. Less than the real altitude

If the weight of an aircraft is increased the maximum gliding range: a. Decreases b. Increases c. Remains the same, and rate of descent is unchanged d. Remains the same, but rate of descent increases

Description : If the weight of an aircraft is increased the maximum gliding range: a. Decreases b. Increases c. Remains the same, and rate of descent is unchanged d. Remains the same, but rate of descent increases

Last Answer : d. Remains the same, but rate of descent increases

What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect? a. A decrease in parasite drag permitting a lower angle of attack b. An increase induced drag and a requirement for a higher angle of attack c. An increase in dynamic stability d. A decrease in induced drag requiring a smaller angle of attack

Description : What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect? a. A decrease in parasite drag permitting a lower angle of attack b. An increase induced drag and a requirement ... increase in dynamic stability d. A decrease in induced drag requiring a smaller angle of attack

Last Answer : b. An increase induced drag and a requirement for a higher angle of attack

An aircraft has a stalling speed in level flight of 70kt IAS. In a 60° balanced turn, the stalling speed would be: a. 76kt b. 84kt c. 99kt d. 140kt

Description : An aircraft has a stalling speed in level flight of 70kt IAS. In a 60° balanced turn, the stalling speed would be: a. 76kt b. 84kt c. 99kt d. 140kt

Last Answer : c. 99kt

If flaps are lowered during the take-off run: a. The lift would not change until the aircraft is airborne b. The lift would increase when the flaps are lowered c. The lift would decrease d. The acceleration would increase

Description : If flaps are lowered during the take-off run: a. The lift would not change until the aircraft is airborne b. The lift would increase when the flaps are lowered c. The lift would decrease d. The acceleration would increase

Last Answer : b. The lift would increase when the flaps are lowered

A constant rate of climb in an aeroplane is determined by: a. Wind speed b. The aircraft weight c. Excess engine power d. Excess airspeed

Description : A constant rate of climb in an aeroplane is determined by: a. Wind speed b. The aircraft weight c. Excess engine power d. Excess airspeed

Last Answer : c. Excess engine power

What is the minimum visibility for a Cat A aircraft during a circling approach? a. 1500m b. 1600m c. 2400m d. 3600m

Description : What is the minimum visibility for a Cat A aircraft during a circling approach? a. 1500m b. 1600m c. 2400m d. 3600m

Last Answer : a. 1500m

An aircraft has to communicate with a VHF station at a range of 300nm, if the ground station is situated 2,500ft amsl, which of the following is the lowest altitude at which contact is likely to be made? a. 190ft b. 1,378ft c. 36,100ft d. 84,100ft

Description : An aircraft has to communicate with a VHF station at a range of 300nm, if the ground station is situated 2,500ft amsl, which of the following is the lowest altitude at which contact is likely to be made? a. 190ft b. 1,378ft c. 36,100ft d. 84,100ft

Last Answer : c. 36,100ft

An aircraft is required to intercept and home to a VOR along the 064 radial. The OBS should be set to: a. 064 to get the correct needle sense and a TO indication b. 244 to get the correct needle sense and a TO indication c. 064 to get the correct needle sense and a FROM indication d. 244 to get the correct needle sense and a FROM indication

Description : An aircraft is required to intercept and home to a VOR along the 064 radial. The OBS should be set to: a. 064 to get the correct needle sense and a TO indication b. 244 to get the ... the correct needle sense and a FROM indication d. 244 to get the correct needle sense and a FROM indication

Last Answer : b. 244 to get the correct needle sense and a TO indication

Both the VOR and the ADF in an aircraft are correctly tuned and identified. The indications from both are shown on the RMI illustrated. The information on the RMI indicates: a. That the aircraft is heading 033° (M), is on the 310° radial from the VOR, and bears 050° (M) from the NDB b. That the aircraft is heading 330° (M), is on the 310° radial from the VOR, and bears 050° (M) from the NDB c. That the aircraft is heading 330° (M), is on the 130° radial from the VOR, and bears 050° (M) from the NDB d. That the aircraft is heading 330° (M), is on the 130° radial from the VOR, and bears 230° (M) from the NDB

Description : Both the VOR and the ADF in an aircraft are correctly tuned and identified. The indications from both are shown on the RMI illustrated. The information on the RMI indicates: a. That the aircraft is heading 033° (M ... 330° (M), is on the 130° radial from the VOR, and bears 230° (M) from the NDB

Last Answer : d. That the aircraft is heading 330° (M), is on the 130° radial from the VOR, and bears 230° (M) from the NDB