Description : An aircraft is attempting to home to a VOR on the 064 radial. The CDI shows 4 dots fly right with a TO indication. At the same time the co-located DME shows a range of 45nm. Where is the aircraft in relation ... right of track b. 3nm right of track c. 6nm left of track d. 3nm left of track
Last Answer : c. 6nm left of track
Description : An aircraft is required to intercept and home to a VOR along the 064 radial. The OBS should be set to: a. 064 to get the correct needle sense and a TO indication b. 244 to get the ... the correct needle sense and a FROM indication d. 244 to get the correct needle sense and a FROM indication
Last Answer : b. 244 to get the correct needle sense and a TO indication
Description : An aircraft wishes to track a VOR along the 274 radial. If variation is 10° W, what should be set on the OBS? a. 274 b. 264 c. 094 d. 084
Last Answer : c. 094
Description : Both the VOR and the ADF in an aircraft are correctly tuned and identified. The indications from both are shown on the RMI illustrated. The information on the RMI indicates: a. That the aircraft is heading 033° (M ... 330° (M), is on the 130° radial from the VOR, and bears 230° (M) from the NDB
Last Answer : d. That the aircraft is heading 330° (M), is on the 130° radial from the VOR, and bears 230° (M) from the NDB
Description : The VOR indications on an RMI whose deviation is not zero: a. Are magnetic b. Are compass c. Are relative d. Must have deviation applied before being used
Last Answer : a. Are magnetic
Description : The DME in an aircraft, cruising at FL210, fails to achieve a lock on a DME at MSL at a range of 210nm. The reason for this is: a. The beacon is saturated b. The aircraft is beyond ... is beyond line of sight range d. The aircraft signal is too weak at the range to trigger a response
Last Answer : c. The aircraft is beyond line of sight range
Description : A basic 2D RNAV system will determine tracking information from: a. Twin DME b. VOR/DME c. Twin VOR d. Any of the above
Last Answer : b. VOR/DME
Description : At a range of 200nm from a VOR, if there is an error of 1°, how far off the centreline is the aircraft? a. 3.5nm b. 1.75nm c. 7nm d. 1nm
Last Answer : a. 3.5nm
Description : What is the recommended technique to counter the loss of airspeed and resultant lift from wind shear? a. Maintain, or increase, pitch attitude and accept the lower-than-normal airspeed ... shaker, and apply maximum power d. Accelerate the aircraft to prevent a stall by sacrificing altitude
Last Answer : c. Avoid overstressing aircraft, pitch to stick shaker, and apply maximum power
Description : How does a pilot react to heavy freezing rain at 2,000ft/AGL, when he is unable to deice nor land? a. He ascends to the cold air layer above b. He continues to fly at the same altitude c. He turns back before the aircraft loses maneuverability d. He descends to the warm air layer below
Last Answer : c. He turns back before the aircraft loses maneuverability
Description : A pilot can improve the probability of detecting other aircrafts by: a. Minimizing the duration of eye rests and making as many eye movements as possible b. Moving the head frequently to ... a lookout ahead of the aircraft and relying on peripheral vision to detect any movement from the side
Last Answer : a. Minimizing the duration of eye rests and making as many eye movements as possible
Description : A type rating is applicable to: a. An aircraft requiring a Certificate of Airworthiness b. An aircraft with a Certificate of Airworthiness issued by the State c. An aircraft that requires multi-pilot operation d. An aircraft that requires additional skills training
Last Answer : c. An aircraft that requires multi-pilot operation
Description : The person having overall responsibility of an aircraft during flight is the: a. Pilot in command b. Operator c. ATC controller if the aircraft is in controlled airspace d. Owner of the aircraft
Last Answer : a. Pilot in command
Description : When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall continuously operate this mode: a. Only when directed by ATC b. Unless otherwise directed by ATC c. Only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace d. Regardless of ATC instructions
Last Answer : b. Unless otherwise directed by ATC
Description : An aircraft is allowed to descend below the MSA if: a. The pilot follows the published approach procedures b. The aircraft receives radar vectors c. The pilot has visual contact with the runway and surrounding terrain and is able to maintain visual contact d. All of the above
Last Answer : d. All of the above
Description : Which statement best describes the operating principle of a constant-speed propeller? a. As throttle setting is changed by the pilot, the prop governor causes pitch angle of the propeller blades to ... the pilot, the RPM of the engines remains constant as the pitch angle of the propeller changes
Last Answer : b. The propeller control regulates the engine RPM and in turn the propeller RPM
Description : A flight is planned from L to M, distance 850 nm. Wind component out is 35 kt(TWC), TAS 450kt. Mean fuel flow out is 2500kg/hr, mean fuel flow inbound is 1900kg/hr and the fuel available is 6000kg. The time ... 30 min, 660nm b. 1hr 30 min, 616nm c. 1hr 15 min, 606nm d. 1hr 16 min, 616nm
Last Answer : d. 1hr 16 min, 616nm
Description : Which of the following would give the best indication of speed? a. A VOR on the flight plan route b. A VOR off the flight plan route c. A DME on the flight plan route d. A DME off the flight plan route
Last Answer : c. A DME on the flight plan route
Description : In a Doppler VOR (DVOR) the reference signal is _____, the bearing signal is ______ and the direction of rotation of the bearing signal is ______. a. AM, FM, anti-clockwise b. AM, FM, clockwise c. FM, AM, anti-clockwise d. FM, AM, clockwise
Last Answer : a. AM, FM, anti-clockwise
Description : DME and VOR are “frequency paired” because: a. The same receiver can be used for both aids b. The VOR transmitter is easily converted to the required DME frequency c. Cockpit workload is reduced d. Both ground transmitter aerials can be placed on the same site if required
Last Answer : c. Cockpit workload is reduced
Description : The IRS position can be updated: a. On the ground only b. At designated positions en-route and on the ground c. On the ground and overhead VOR/DME d. At selected waypoints and on the ground
Last Answer : a. On the ground only
Description : The frequency on which ATIS can be found is: a. Discrete VHF or VOR frequency b. Discrete VHF only c. VOR frequency only d. Any ATC frequency
Last Answer : a. Discrete VHF or VOR frequency
Description : What radius from a terminal VOR is MSA provided? a. 25nm b. 10nm c. 15nm d. 15km
Last Answer : a. 25nm
Description : Shortly after take-off, the altitude of the aeroplane suffers an abrupt pitch-up and IAS rapidly decreases followed quickly by a decrease in altitude. Engine indications are normal. You should suspect what ... to gain airspeed d. Local clear air turbulence; reduce speed to VRA and ride it out
Last Answer : b. Loss of head wind or an increase in tail wind; apply full power
Description : The visual and aural indications obtained when overflying an ILS middle marker are: a. Continuous low pitched dashes with synchronized blue light b. Continuous high pitched dots with synchronized amber ... dots and dashes with amber light d. One letter in Morse with synchronized white light
Last Answer : c. Alternating medium pitch dots and dashes with amber light
Description : How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time? a. Shallow the bank and increase airspeed b. Steeper bank and increase airspeed c. Steeper bank and decrease airspeed
Last Answer : c. Steeper bank and decrease airspeed
Description : t higher elevation airports the pilot should know that indicated airspeed: a. will be unchanged but ground speed will be faster b. will be higher but ground speed will be unchanged c. should be increased to compensate for the thinner air d. should be higher to obtain a higher landing speed
Last Answer : a. will be unchanged but ground speed will be faster
Description : By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the aeroplane’s: a. Lift and airspeed, but not drag b. Lift, gross weight and drag c. Lift, airspeed and drag d. Lift and drag, but not airspeed
Last Answer : c. Lift, airspeed and drag
Description : The purpose of a trim tab is: a. To assist the pilot in initiating movement of the controls b. To zero the load on the pilot controls in the flight attitude required c. To provide feel to the controls at high speed d. To increase the effectiveness of the controls
Last Answer : b. To zero the load on the pilot controls in the flight attitude required
Description : In the event of cabin depressurization, the actions of the pilot will be to: a. Immediately commence a diversion to a suitable alternate b. Increase engine power to provide additional ... a descent to an altitude where the supplemental oxygen supply is sufficient for all crew and passengers
Last Answer : d. Commence a descent to an altitude where the supplemental oxygen supply is sufficient for all crew and passengers
Description : In the event of an act of unlawful interference, which of the following is the correct procedure to be taken by the pilot in command? a. Squawk 7700 if the situation requires and continue ... the flight plan, climb or descend to altitudes that differ from the normal cruising altitudes by 1000ft
Last Answer : c. Squawk 7500 (or 7700 if required) and broadcast a warning if the situation forces deviation from the cleared flight plan
Description : When does a pilot apply the limitations of the MEL? a. At parking before commencement of taxi b. Prior to take-off c. At any time in flight d. Any time up to coming to a complete stop and applying the parking brake
Last Answer : d. Any time up to coming to a complete stop and applying the parking brake
Description : What is the currency requirement for a pilot? a. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type within the last 90 days b. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same ... 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type or approved simulator within the last 60 days
Last Answer : c. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type or approved simulator within the last 90 days
Description : Who checks, before flight, that the aircraft’s weight is such that the flight can be safely made and that any transported cargo is properly distributed and secured? a. The company’s cargo technicians b. The captain c. The mechanic on board, or in his absence the co-pilot d. The operator
Last Answer : b. The captain
Description : To act as co-pilot for take-off or landing, you must have: a. Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 90 days b. Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 30 days c. Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 60 days d. Been at the controls for landing in the same type recently
Last Answer : a. Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 90 days
Description : With reference to Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems: a. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation ... pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary
Last Answer : d. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary
Description : A sensation of tumbling and dizziness when a pilot makes movement of his/her head during a tight turn are symptoms of: a. The Occulogyral Effect b. Flicker-vertigo c. Pilot’s Vertigo d. Nystagmus
Last Answer : c. Pilot’s Vertigo
Description : What are the personality traits of a good pilot? a. Reliable and stable b. Stable and extraverted c. Reliable and extraverted d. Reliable, calm and extraverted
Last Answer : b. Stable and extraverted
Description : What should the pilot rely on if disoriented in IMC? a. Vision b. Turning head to recover from disorientation c. Sense of balance d. Instruments
Last Answer : d. Instruments
Description : A pilot who is diagnosed as having an alcohol problem can: a. Continue to fly as an operating pilot whilst he receives treatment b. Never fly again as an operating pilot c. Fly as a ... he is supervised by another pilot d. Return to flying duties as a suitable course of treatment is complete
Last Answer : d. Return to flying duties as a suitable course of treatment is complete
Description : A pilot suffering from decompression sickness should: a. Descend to a lower level where the symptoms will disappear and continue the flight at this or a lower level b. Decrease the cabin pressure ... the pain in the affected site d. Land as soon as possible and seek medical assistance
Last Answer : d. Land as soon as possible and seek medical assistance
Description : Disorientation is more likely when the pilot is: 1. flying in VMC 2. frequently changing between inside and outside references 3. flying from IMC to VMC 4. approaching over still water at night a. 1, 2 & ... 1, 2 & 4 only are correct c. 1, 2, 3 & 4 are correct d. 1 only is correct
Last Answer : b. 1, 2 & 4 only are correct
Description : A pilot suffering from hyperventilation during final approach in poor weather can combat the effects by: a. Go on 100% oxygen and go around b. Land regardless of the weather c. Regulate depth and rate of breathing d. Declare a mayday
Last Answer : c. Regulate depth and rate of breathing
Description : The co-pilot is responsible for monitoring the implementation of the Commander’s decision. a. True b. False
Last Answer : b. False
Description : With regards to procedures, a pilot is advised to: a. Memorize all procedures as carefully as possible b. Memorize immediate actions and subsequent actions c. Memorize immediate actions and refer to check list for subsequent actions
Last Answer : c. Memorize immediate actions and refer to check list for subsequent actions
Description : What is the absolute time a pilot should stop drinking before flying? a. 6 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcohol that has been consumed b. 24 hours but it depends upon the amount of ... that has been consumed d. 8 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcohol that has been consumed
Last Answer : d. 8 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcohol that has been consumed
Description : When approaching a wet runway, with the risk of hydroplaning, what technique should the pilot adapt? a. Positive touchdown, full reverse and brakes as soon as possible b. Smoothest possible ... touchdown, full reverse and only brakes below VP d. Normal landing, full reverse brakes at VP
Last Answer : c. Positive touchdown, full reverse and only brakes below VP
Description : If a transponder is unserviceable before an IFR departure, then the pilot: a. Has to cancel the flight b. May proceed with the flight with ATC permission c. Has to fly low level only d. Should fly for another company
Last Answer : b. May proceed with the flight with ATC permission
Description : When given instructions to set a mode/code, a pilot shall: a. Only use the word “wilco” b. Only read back the code c. Only use the word “roger” d. Read back mode and code
Last Answer : d. Read back mode and code