Aircraft A flies in VMC with an ATC clearance within a control area. Aircraft B without ATC  clearance approaches at roughly the same height on a converging heading. Who has the  right of way?  
a. Aircraft A, regardless of the direction from which B approaches  
b. Aircraft B, regardless of the direction from which A approaches  
c. Aircraft A, if B is to the right of him  
d. Aircraft B, if A is to the left of him

1 Answer

Answer :

d. Aircraft B, if A is to the left of him

Related questions

Description : Aircraft A flies in VMC with an ATC clearance within a control area. Aircraft B without ATC clearance approaches at roughly the same height on a converging heading. Who has the right of way? a. Aircraft A, regardless of ... A, if B is to the right of him d. Aircraft B, if A is to the left of him

Last Answer : d. Aircraft B, if A is to the left of him

Description : The transition from IFR to VFR is done: a. On the Captain’s initiative b. Whenever an aircraft in VMC leaves controlled airspace c. If told by ATC d. At the clearance limit, disregarding the weather situation

Last Answer : a. On the Captain’s initiative

Description : The transition from IFR to VFR is done: a. On the Captain’s initiative b. Whenever an aircraft in VMC leaves controlled airspace c. If told by ATC d. At the clearance limit, disregarding the weather situation

Last Answer : a. On the Captain’s initiative

Description : When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall continuously operate this mode: a. Only when directed by ATC b. Unless otherwise directed by ATC c. Only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace d. Regardless of ATC instructions

Last Answer : b. Unless otherwise directed by ATC

Description : Clearance limit is defined as: a. The flight level to which an aircraft is granted ATC clearance b. The time at which the ATC clearance expires c. The point to which aircraft is granted ATC clearance d. The height below which you will hit the first obstacle

Last Answer : c. The point to which aircraft is granted ATC clearance

Description : What is the rule concerning level or height the aircraft should maintain when flying IFR outside controlled airspace unless otherwise directed? a. 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8kms of ... planned track d. 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8kms of the planned track

Last Answer : b. 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8kms of the estimated position of the aircraft

Description : If the track on an instrument departure is published, the pilot is expected to: a. Correct for the correct wind so as to stay within controlled airspace b. Ask ATC for another heading to steer ... proceed with a heading equal to the track d. Ask ATC for permission to correct heading for wind

Last Answer : a. Correct for the correct wind so as to stay within controlled airspace

Description : The transition from IFR to VFR is done: a. On the Captain’s initiative b. Whenever an aircraft in VMC leaves controlled airspace c. If told by ATC d. At the clearance limit, disregarding the weather situation

Last Answer : a. On the Captain’s initiative

Description : The transition from IFR to VFR is done: a. On the Captain’s initiative b. Whenever an aircraft in VMC leaves controlled airspace c. If told by ATC d. At the clearance limit, disregarding the weather situation

Last Answer : a. On the Captain’s initiative

Description : An aircraft is converging from the left. Which light will you see first? a. Red b. Green c. Blue d. White

Last Answer : b. Green

Description : The instruction “ORBIT” from ATC means that the aircraft should: a. Carry out a go around b. Continue with 360 degree turns c. Carry out one 360 degree turn only d. Reverse the direction of the turn

Last Answer : c. Carry out one 360 degree turn only

Description : When the Captain cannot comply with an ATC clearance: a. The Captain must accept the ATC clearance, because it is based on a filed flight plan b. He/she may request an amended clearance and, if ... appropriate ATC must grant him/her that clearance d. He/she may suggest a new clearance to ATC

Last Answer : b. He/she may request an amended clearance and, if executable, he/she will accept that clearance

Description : Cabin altitude in pressured flight is: a. The altitude corresponding to cabin pressure regardless of aircraft height b. Is presented on a second needle on the aircraft altimeter c. ... equals ambient pressure d. Altitude corresponding to cabin pressure in relation to MSL ISA conditions

Last Answer : a. The altitude corresponding to cabin pressure regardless of aircraft height b. Is presented on a second needle on the aircraft altimeter

Description : An aircraft heading 017° (T) has a small island showing on the AWR at 45nm range on the 60° left azimuth line. To obtain a fix from this information you should plot: a. Range 45nm and QTE 060 from ... QTE 317 from the center of the island d. Range 45nm and QTE 137 from the center of the island

Last Answer : d. Range 45nm and QTE 137 from the center of the island

Description : If the angle of attack is increased beyond the critical angle of attack, the wing will no longer produce sufficient lift to support the weight of the aircraft: a. Unless the airspeed is greater ... below the natural horizon d. In which case, the control column should be pulled-back immediately

Last Answer : b. Regardless of airspeed or pitch attitude

Description : An aeroplane is starting a non-precision approach with an MDH of 250ft and minimum visibility of 800 meters. ATC gives threshold, mid-runway and final third RVRs. When may the approach be started? ... than 800m. RVR is for precision approaches only. d. When threshold RVR is greater than 800m

Last Answer : d. When threshold RVR is greater than 800m

Description : An aircraft flying in the visual circuit at an aerodrome sees a series of red flashes from the control tower. What does this mean? a. Do not land b. Do not land because the aerodrome is unusable c. Give way to other aircraft d. Return for landing and await clearance to land

Last Answer : b. Do not land because the aerodrome is unusable

Description : When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall continuously operate this mode: a. Only when directed by ATC b. Unless otherwise directed by ATC c. Only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace d. Regardless of ATC instructions

Last Answer : b. Unless otherwise directed by ATC

Description : In the event of an act of unlawful interference, which of the following is the correct procedure to be taken by the pilot in command? a. Squawk 7700 if the situation requires and continue ... the flight plan, climb or descend to altitudes that differ from the normal cruising altitudes by 1000ft

Last Answer : c. Squawk 7500 (or 7700 if required) and broadcast a warning if the situation forces deviation from the cleared flight plan

Description : With reference to Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems: a. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation ... pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary

Last Answer : d. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary

Description : On receipt of a TCAS RA, your action is to: a. Initiate the required maneuver immediately b. Make a note of the details c. Request a flight clearance deviation from ATC d. Do nothing until a TA is received

Last Answer : a. Initiate the required maneuver immediately

Description : If an ATC clearance is not suitable, the PIC may: a. Offer ATC an acceptable clearance b. Request and if practicable accept an amended clearance c. Demand an alternative clearance and ATC must ... d. Decline the clearance on the grounds that it is not in accordance with the field flight plan

Last Answer : b. Request and if practicable accept an amended clearance

Description : The response to general call from ATC is for the aircraft to: a. Respond in alphabetic order b. Respond in numerical order c. Give no response d. Request a repeat of the message

Last Answer : c. Give no response

Description : The ATC message “DISTRESS TRAFFIC ENDED” signifies that: a. All traffic are to end their transmissions b. All aircraft on the frequency are to change to another frequency c. Normal ATC is resumed after an emergency d. ATC is shutting shop

Last Answer : c. Normal ATC is resumed after an emergency

Description : The message “CHECK” to an aircraft means that you should: a. Confirm that you received and understood the last message b. Pass the required information to ATC c. Stay where you are d. Examine a system or procedure

Last Answer : d. Examine a system or procedure

Description : The person having overall responsibility of an aircraft during flight is the: a. Pilot in command b. Operator c. ATC controller if the aircraft is in controlled airspace d. Owner of the aircraft

Last Answer : a. Pilot in command

Description : Both the VOR and the ADF in an aircraft are correctly tuned and identified. The indications from both are shown on the RMI illustrated. The information on the RMI indicates: a. That the aircraft is heading 033° (M ... 330° (M), is on the 130° radial from the VOR, and bears 230° (M) from the NDB

Last Answer : d. That the aircraft is heading 330° (M), is on the 130° radial from the VOR, and bears 230° (M) from the NDB

Description : Both the VOR and the ADF in an aircraft are correctly tuned and identified. The indications from both are shown on the RMI illustrated. The information on the RMI indicates: a. That the aircraft is heading 033° (M ... 330° (M), is on the 130° radial from the VOR, and bears 230° (M) from the NDB

Last Answer : d. That the aircraft is heading 330° (M), is on the 130° radial from the VOR, and bears 230° (M) from the NDB

Description : An urgency message should include the following information: a. Name of station addressed, aircraft callsign, nature of urgency condition, intention of commander, position, level, heading b. Callsign ... , callsign, present positin, level, ETA destination d. Captain's number, rank and name

Last Answer : a. Name of station addressed, aircraft callsign, nature of urgency condition, intention of commander, position, level, heading

Description : Clearance limit is defined as: a. The flight level to which an aircraft is granted ATC clearance b. The time at which the ATC clearance expires c. The point to which aircraft is granted ATC clearance d. The height below which you will hit the first obstacle

Last Answer : c. The point to which aircraft is granted ATC clearance

Description : An aircraft is attempting to home to a VOR on the 064 radial. The CDI shows 4 dots fly right with a TO indication. At the same time the co-located DME shows a range of 45nm. Where is the aircraft in relation ... right of track b. 3nm right of track c. 6nm left of track d. 3nm left of track

Last Answer : c. 6nm left of track

Description : You make a diversion from the route given in the flight plan and land at an uncontrolled airfield. Within what time after landing should you inform ATC? a. 10 mins b. 20 mins c. 30 mins d. 45 mins

Last Answer : c. 30 mins

Description : Pilots are not allowed to use the indent function on their SSR, unless: a. They operate outside controlled airspace b. If asked by ATC c. Within controlled airspace d. They operate a transponder with mode C

Last Answer : b. If asked by ATC

Description : What are the VMC limits for Class B airspace? a. 8km flight visibility, clear of cloud and in sight of the surface b. 8km flight visibility, 1000ft vertically and 1500m horizontally from ... . 5km flight visibility, 1000ft vertically and 1500m horizontally from cloud d. The same as Class D

Last Answer : d. The same as Class D

Description : In an area of converging air a. Clouds cannot be formed b. Clouds can be formed c. Convective clouds can be dissolved d. Stratified clouds can be dissolved

Last Answer : b. Clouds can be formed

Description : Except when cleared by an ATC unit, a VFR flight cannot enter or leave a Control Zone when the cloud base is lower than: a. 1000 feet and less than 8km visibility b. 2000 feet and less than 5km visibility c. 1500 feet or less than 5km visibility d. 1000 feet and less than 5km visibility

Last Answer : c. 1500 feet or less than 5km visibility

Description : An aircraft climbs from an airfield, elevation 1500ft, QNH 1023mb, to FL75. What height does the aircraft have to climb? (Assume 1mb=30ft) a. 6600 ft b. 7800 ft c. 6300 ft d. 6000 ft

Last Answer : c. 6300 ft

Description : What is the rule concerning level or height the aircraft should maintain when flying IFR outside controlled airspace unless otherwise directed? a. 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8kms of the ... planned track d. 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8kms of the planned track

Last Answer : b. 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8kms of the estimated position of the aircraft

Description : The MSA provides 300m obstacle clearance within how many miles radius of the navigation facility at the aerodrome? a. 20nm b. 30nm c. 25nm d. 15nm

Last Answer : c. 25nm

Description : Following a communications failure, the time at which the aircraft should aim to leave the hold is: a. Within 10 minutes of the EAT or ETA b. Within 30 minutes of the EAT or ETA c. EAT or ETA d. Before it runs out of fuel

Last Answer : c. EAT or ETA

Description : When do you not need a destination alternate aerodrome? a. If there is a reasonable certainty that at the ETA at the destination aerodrome and a reasonable time before and after you can expect VMC ... less than 1 hour d. If your operator deems the weather to be suitable for a visual landing

Last Answer : a. If there is a reasonable certainty that at the ETA at the destination aerodrome and a reasonable time before and after you can expect VMC

Description : Disorientation is more likely when the pilot is: 1. flying in VMC 2. frequently changing between inside and outside references 3. flying from IMC to VMC 4. approaching over still water at night a. 1, 2 & ... 1, 2 & 4 only are correct c. 1, 2, 3 & 4 are correct d. 1 only is correct

Last Answer : b. 1, 2 & 4 only are correct

Description : Your reply to the message “REPORT FLIGHT CONDITIONS” should be: a. VFR/IFR b. SMOOTH/TURBULENT c. NOT BAD/SO SO d. VMC/IMC

Last Answer : d. VMC/IMC

Description : What action should be taken when, during an IFR flight in VMC, you suffer a radio failure? a. Return to the aerodrome from which you departed b. Continue flying in VMC and land as ... there are VMC conditions d. Continue flying at your assigned altitude and start your approach at your ETA

Last Answer : b. Continue flying in VMC and land as soon as possible

Description : What visual technique should be used when searching for an aircraft? a. Sweep from side to side with the eyes covering the whole field of vision b. Search the sky portion by portion starting ... the sky and confirm before passing onto another d. Use a succession of small and rapid eye movements

Last Answer : c. Pinpoint 10° segments of the sky and confirm before passing onto another

Description : You have been intercepted in the airspace of a foreign contracting state. What is the signal for ‘clear to proceed’ from the intercepting aircraft? a. Rocking wings b. Flashing lights c. Cut across track d. Breaking turn up and left

Last Answer : d. Breaking turn up and left

Description : Lowering the flaps during a landing approach: a. Increases the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed b. Decreases the angle of descent without increasing power c. Eliminates floating d. Permits approaches at a higher indicated airspeed

Last Answer : a. Increases the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed

Description : In the event of a precautionary landing, who is responsible for alerting the emergency services? a. ATC b. The Commander c. The local constabulary d. The Operations Dispatcher

Last Answer : a. ATC

Description : ATC will only report wind as gusting if: a. Gust speed exceeds mean speed by >15kts b. Gusts to over 25kts c. Gusts exceed mean speed by 10kts d. Gusts to under 25kts

Last Answer : c. Gusts exceed mean speed by 10kts