Description : The MSA provides 300m obstacle clearance within how many miles radius of the navigation facility at the aerodrome? a. 20nm b. 30nm c. 25nm d. 15nm
Last Answer : c. 25nm
Description : What radius from a terminal VOR is MSA provided? a. 25nm b. 10nm c. 15nm d. 15km
Last Answer : a. 25nm
Description : Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome experiencing radio failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance? a. ... four times the navigation lights d. Switching on and off four times the landing lights
Last Answer : b. The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights
Description : An aircraft flying in the visual circuit at an aerodrome sees a series of red flashes from the control tower. What does this mean? a. Do not land b. Do not land because the aerodrome is unusable c. Give way to other aircraft d. Return for landing and await clearance to land
Last Answer : b. Do not land because the aerodrome is unusable
Description : The range indicated by DME is considered to be accurate within: a. 3% of range b. 1.25% of range c. 0.5nm d. ±0.25nm ±1.25% of range
Last Answer : d. ±0.25nm ±1.25% of range
Description : .Tobacco mosaic virus is a tubular filament of size (a) 300 × 10nm (b) 300 × 5nm (c) 300 × 20nm (d) 700 × 30nm.
Last Answer : (c) 300 × 20nm
Description : To give the best obstacle clearance on take-off, take-off should be made with: a. Flaps partially extended and at best rate of climb speed (Vy) b. Flaps partially extended and at best angle of climb ... at best rate of climb speed (Vy) d. Flaps retracted and at best angle of climb speed (Vx)
Last Answer : d. Flaps retracted and at best angle of climb speed (Vx)
Description : Clearance limit is defined as: a. The flight level to which an aircraft is granted ATC clearance b. The time at which the ATC clearance expires c. The point to which aircraft is granted ATC clearance d. The height below which you will hit the first obstacle
Last Answer : c. The point to which aircraft is granted ATC clearance
Description : The Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) for flights in accordance with IFR within controlled airspace below FL290 is: a. 500 feet (150m) b. 2500 feet (750 m) c. 1000 feet (300m) d. 2000 feet (600m)
Last Answer : c. 1000 feet (300m)
Description : A DISTRESS message differs from an URGENCY message because: a. There is grave and imminent danger which requires immediate assistance b. The aeroplane has suffered damage that endangers the ... suitable aerodrome d. The situation concerns the safety of passengers on board or within sight
Last Answer : a. There is grave and imminent danger which requires immediate assistance
Description : What is the rule concerning level or height the aircraft should maintain when flying IFR outside controlled airspace unless otherwise directed? a. 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8kms of ... planned track d. 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8kms of the planned track
Last Answer : b. 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8kms of the estimated position of the aircraft
Description : If, having tried all normal methods, the ears cannot be cleared in flight, the following action should be taken: a. Ignore and it will go away b. Descend to 10,000ft or MSA – whichever is higher c. Seek medical advice as soon as possible d. Descend as quickly as possible to minimize pain
Last Answer : c. Seek medical advice as soon as possible
Description : An aircraft is allowed to descend below the MSA if: a. The pilot follows the published approach procedures b. The aircraft receives radar vectors c. The pilot has visual contact with the runway and surrounding terrain and is able to maintain visual contact d. All of the above
Last Answer : d. All of the above
Description : A precautionary landing is a procedure that: a. Enables the aeroplane to land at the destination with unserviceabilities that prevent a normal instrument approach being carried out b. Enables a ... not properly lowered d. Is carried out in the event of landing at an alternate aerodrome
Last Answer : b. Enables a landing after the declaration of a state of emergency or urgency
Description : At the alternate aerodrome, the commander of a turbojet engine aeroplane should have a fuel quantity (final reserve) sufficient for flying during: a. 30 minutes at holding flight speed at 1,500 ft b. 45 ... speed at 1,500 ft c. 30 minutes at cruising speed d. 45 minutes at cruising speed
Last Answer : a. 30 minutes at holding flight speed at 1,500 ft
Description : One shall not initiate any flight made in accordance with instrument flight rules unless the available information indicates that the conditions at the aerodrome of predicted destination or, at an ... for aerodrome use d. arrival better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use
Last Answer : c. arrival equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use
Description : When do you not need a destination alternate aerodrome? a. If there is a reasonable certainty that at the ETA at the destination aerodrome and a reasonable time before and after you can expect VMC ... less than 1 hour d. If your operator deems the weather to be suitable for a visual landing
Last Answer : a. If there is a reasonable certainty that at the ETA at the destination aerodrome and a reasonable time before and after you can expect VMC
Description : If you are unable to contact a station on a designated frequency you should: a. Try another appropriate frequency b. Start transmitting blind c. Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome d. Transmit words twice
Last Answer : a. Try another appropriate frequency
Description : If no ICAO identifier has been attributed to an aerodrome, what should be entered in Box 16 of the Flight Plan? a. ZZZZ b. NNNN c. A/N d. A/D XXX
Last Answer : a. ZZZZ
Description : What minimum ground visibility is required to enable a SVFR flight to take off from an aerodrome in a CTR? a. 1000m b. 1500m c. 2000m d. 3000m
Last Answer : b. 1500m
Description : You see a double white cross in a signal square, what does this mean? a. Glider flying in progress b. Tow ropes and banners may be dropped c. Runway unfit for aircraft movement d. Aerodrome unfit for aircraft movement
Last Answer : a. Glider flying in progress
Description : What action should be taken when, during an IFR flight in VMC, you suffer a radio failure? a. Return to the aerodrome from which you departed b. Continue flying in VMC and land as ... there are VMC conditions d. Continue flying at your assigned altitude and start your approach at your ETA
Last Answer : b. Continue flying in VMC and land as soon as possible
Description : Aircraft A flies in VMC with an ATC clearance within a control area. Aircraft B without ATC clearance approaches at roughly the same height on a converging heading. Who has the right of way? a. Aircraft A, regardless ... , if B is to the right of him d. Aircraft B, if A is to the left of him
Last Answer : d. Aircraft B, if A is to the left of him
Description : What is required for navigation in IMC? a. Radio equipment and equipment for guidance until visual point b. Anti-icing equipment c. A serviceable weather radar d. One VHF box and one HF box
Last Answer : a. Radio equipment and equipment for guidance until visual point
Description : The longitudinal separation minimum based on time between aircrafts at the same FL, where there is enough coverage for navigation aids and the preceeding aircraft has a higher true airspeed of 20kts minimum is: a. 3 minutes b. 15 minutes c. 5 minutes d. 10 minutes
Last Answer : c. 5 minutes
Description : In the event of an act of unlawful interference, which of the following is the correct procedure to be taken by the pilot in command? a. Squawk 7700 if the situation requires and continue ... the flight plan, climb or descend to altitudes that differ from the normal cruising altitudes by 1000ft
Last Answer : c. Squawk 7500 (or 7700 if required) and broadcast a warning if the situation forces deviation from the cleared flight plan
Description : With reference to Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems: a. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation ... pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary
Last Answer : d. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary
Description : On receipt of a TCAS RA, your action is to: a. Initiate the required maneuver immediately b. Make a note of the details c. Request a flight clearance deviation from ATC d. Do nothing until a TA is received
Last Answer : a. Initiate the required maneuver immediately
Description : True track 215; mountain elevation 11,600ft; local airfield gives QNH as 1035mb; required terrain clearance 1500ft; temperature ISA -15C. Which of the following is the minimum flight level considering the temperature? a. FL150 b. FL140 c. FL120 d. FL110
Last Answer : b. FL140
Description : The callsign of a station controlling surface vehicles in the manoeuvring area would be: a. TOWER b. CLEARANCE c. GROUND d. APRON
Last Answer : c. GROUND
Description : The term “DISREGARD” means: a. Ignore b. Cancel the last clearance c. You have not been cleared d. Pay no attention to what I say
Last Answer : a. Ignore
Description : The term “RECLEARED” means that: a. Your last clearance is confirmed b. Your last clearance has been cancelled c. You may proceed as you please d. A change has been made to your last clearance and this new clearance supersedes your previous clearance
Last Answer : d. A change has been made to your last clearance and this new clearance supersedes your previous clearance
Description : The callsign suffix of a station providing clearance delivery would be: a. CLEARANCE b. GROUND c. DELIVERY d. PRESTO
Last Answer : c. DELIVERY
Description : If an ATC clearance is not suitable, the PIC may: a. Offer ATC an acceptable clearance b. Request and if practicable accept an amended clearance c. Demand an alternative clearance and ATC must ... d. Decline the clearance on the grounds that it is not in accordance with the field flight plan
Last Answer : b. Request and if practicable accept an amended clearance
Description : The transition from IFR to VFR is done: a. On the Captain’s initiative b. Whenever an aircraft in VMC leaves controlled airspace c. If told by ATC d. At the clearance limit, disregarding the weather situation
Last Answer : a. On the Captain’s initiative
Description : When the Captain cannot comply with an ATC clearance: a. The Captain must accept the ATC clearance, because it is based on a filed flight plan b. He/she may request an amended clearance and, if ... appropriate ATC must grant him/her that clearance d. He/she may suggest a new clearance to ATC
Last Answer : b. He/she may request an amended clearance and, if executable, he/she will accept that clearance
Description : Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome experiencing radio failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance? a. ... off four times the navigation lights d. Switching on and off four times the landing lights
Description : How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time? a. Shallow the bank and increase airspeed b. Steeper bank and increase airspeed c. Steeper bank and decrease airspeed
Last Answer : c. Steeper bank and decrease airspeed
Description : To cover the greatest distance when gliding, the gliding speed must be: a. Near to the stalling speed b. As high as possible within VNE limits c. About 30% faster than Vmd d. The one that gives the highest L/D ratio
Last Answer : d. The one that gives the highest L/D ratio
Description : After an act of unlawful interference a report is to be made. When and to whom? a. Within 10 days and to the Authority of the State of Registry b. Immediately and to the Authority of ... d. Without delay, to the designated local authority and the Authority of the State of the Operator
Last Answer : d. Without delay, to the designated local authority and the Authority of the State of the Operator
Description : What is the currency requirement for a pilot? a. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type within the last 90 days b. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same ... 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type or approved simulator within the last 60 days
Last Answer : c. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type or approved simulator within the last 90 days
Description : Where do you find the majority of the air within the atmosphere? a. Troposphere b. Stratosphere c. Tropopause d. Mesosphere
Last Answer : a. Troposphere
Description : You make a diversion from the route given in the flight plan and land at an uncontrolled airfield. Within what time after landing should you inform ATC? a. 10 mins b. 20 mins c. 30 mins d. 45 mins
Last Answer : c. 30 mins
Description : Following a communications failure, the time at which the aircraft should aim to leave the hold is: a. Within 10 minutes of the EAT or ETA b. Within 30 minutes of the EAT or ETA c. EAT or ETA d. Before it runs out of fuel
Last Answer : c. EAT or ETA
Description : During a straight departure, the initial track is to be: a. Within 5° of runway centre-line b. Within 10 of runway centre-line c. Within 15° of runway centre-line d. Within 25° of runway centre-line
Last Answer : c. Within 15° of runway centre-line