When a TREND is included at the end of a METAR, the trend is a forecast valid for: a. 1 hour after the time of observation b. 2 hours after the time of observation c. 2 hours after it was issued d. 1 hour after it was issued

When a TREND is included at the end of a METAR, the trend is a forecast valid for:  
a. 1 hour after the time of observation  
b. 2 hours after the time of observation  
c. 2 hours after it was issued  
d. 1 hour after it was issued
by

1 Answer

Answer :

b. 2 hours after the time of observation
by

Related questions

When a TREND is included at the end of a METAR, the trend is a forecast valid for: a. 1 hour after the time of observation b. 2 hours after the time of observation c. 2 hours after it was issued d. 1 hour after it was issued

Description : When a TREND is included at the end of a METAR, the trend is a forecast valid for:  a. 1 hour after the time of observation  b. 2 hours after the time of observation  c. 2 hours after it was issued  d. 1 hour after it was issued

Last Answer : b. 2 hours after the time of observation

Where are icing conditions on route specified? a. TAF and METAR b. METAR and SIGMET c. SWC (sig. weather chart) and SIGMET d. SPECI and TREND

Description : Where are icing conditions on route specified? a. TAF and METAR b. METAR and SIGMET c. SWC (sig. weather chart) and SIGMET d. SPECI and TREND

Last Answer : c. SWC (sig. weather chart) and SIGMET

Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the METAR? 00000KT 0200 R14/0800U R16/P1500U FZFG VV001 m03/m03 Q1022 BECMG 0800 = a. Meteorological visibility 200m, RVR for runway 16 1500m, temperature -3°C, vertical visibility 100m b. Meteorological visibility 200ft, RVR for runway 16 more than 1500m, vertical visibility 100ft, fog with hoar frost c. Meteorological visibility for runway 14 800m, fog with hoar frost, RVR for runway 16 more than 1500m d. RVR for runway 14 800m, vertical visibility 100ft, calm, meteorological visibility improving to 800m in the next 2 hours

Description : Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the METAR? 00000KT 0200 R14/0800U R16/P1500U FZFG VV001 m03/m03 Q1022 BECMG 0800 = a. Meteorological visibility 200m, RVR for ... 14 800m, vertical visibility 100ft, calm, meteorological visibility improving to 800m in the next 2 hours

Last Answer : d. RVR for runway 14 800m, vertical visibility 100ft, calm, meteorological visibility improving to 800m in the next 2 hours

When a state renders valid a license issued by another Contracting State, as an alternative to issuance of its own license, the validity shall: a. Not extend beyond 15 days after the validity of the license b. Not extend beyond the period of validity of the license c. Be at the discretion of the Contracting State rendering it valid d. Be at the discretion of ICAO

Description : When a state renders valid a license issued by another Contracting State, as an alternative to issuance of its own license, the validity shall: a. Not extend beyond 15 days after the validity of ... at the discretion of the Contracting State rendering it valid d. Be at the discretion of ICAO

Last Answer : b. Not extend beyond the period of validity of the license

The code “BECMG FM 1100 –RASH” in a METAR means: a. From 1100UTC, the cessation of rain showers b. Becoming from 1100UTC slight rain showers c. Becoming from 1100UTC rain showers d. Becoming from 1100UTC till 0000UTC slight rain showers

Description : The code “BECMG FM 1100 –RASH” in a METAR means: a. From 1100UTC, the cessation of rain showers b. Becoming from 1100UTC slight rain showers c. Becoming from 1100UTC rain showers d. Becoming from 1100UTC till 0000UTC slight rain showers

Last Answer : b. Becoming from 1100UTC slight rain showers

In which weather report would you expect to find information about icing conditions on the runway? a. GAFOR b. TAF c. METAR d. SIGMET

Description : In which weather report would you expect to find information about icing conditions on the runway? a. GAFOR b. TAF c. METAR d. SIGMET

Last Answer : c. METAR

Refer to the following TAF for Zurich LSZH 261019 20018G30KT 9999 –RA SCT050 BKN080 TEMPO 23012KT 6000 –DZ BKN015 BKN030 BECMG 1518 23020G35KT 4000 RA OVC010= The lowest visibility forecast at ETA Zurich 1430 UTC is: a. 6km b. 6nm c. 4km d. 10km

Description : Refer to the following TAF for Zurich LSZH 261019 20018G30KT 9999 –RA SCT050 BKN080 TEMPO 23012KT 6000 –DZ BKN015 BKN030 BECMG 1518 23020G35KT 4000 RA OVC010= The lowest visibility forecast at ETA Zurich 1430 UTC is: a. 6km b. 6nm c. 4km d. 10km

Last Answer : a. 6km

TAFs are usually valid for: a. For the period indicated in the TAF itself b. For 18 hours c. For 24 hours d. For 8 hours

Description : TAFs are usually valid for: a. For the period indicated in the TAF itself b. For 18 hours c. For 24 hours d. For 8 hours

Last Answer : a. For the period indicated in the TAF itself

When do you not need a destination alternate aerodrome? a. If there is a reasonable certainty that at the ETA at the destination aerodrome and a reasonable time before and after you can expect VMC b. If the flight time is less than 6 hours c. If the flight time is less than 1 hour d. If your operator deems the weather to be suitable for a visual landing

Description : When do you not need a destination alternate aerodrome? a. If there is a reasonable certainty that at the ETA at the destination aerodrome and a reasonable time before and after you can expect VMC ... less than 1 hour d. If your operator deems the weather to be suitable for a visual landing

Last Answer : a. If there is a reasonable certainty that at the ETA at the destination aerodrome and a reasonable time before and after you can expect VMC

Where are icing conditions on route specified? a. TAF and METAR b. METAR and SIGMET c. SWC (sig. weather chart) and SIGMET d. SPECI and TREND

Description : Where are icing conditions on route specified? a. TAF and METAR  b. METAR and SIGMET  c. SWC (sig. weather chart) and SIGMET  d. SPECI and TREND

Last Answer : c. SWC (sig. weather chart) and SIGMET 

A type rating is applicable to: a. An aircraft requiring a Certificate of Airworthiness b. An aircraft with a Certificate of Airworthiness issued by the State c. An aircraft that requires multi-pilot operation d. An aircraft that requires additional skills training

Description : A type rating is applicable to: a. An aircraft requiring a Certificate of Airworthiness b. An aircraft with a Certificate of Airworthiness issued by the State c. An aircraft that requires multi-pilot operation d. An aircraft that requires additional skills training

Last Answer : c. An aircraft that requires multi-pilot operation

What is the coldest time of the day? a. 1hr before sunrise b. 1/2 hr before sunrise c. At exact moment of sunrise d. 1/2 hour after sunrise

Description : What is the coldest time of the day? a. 1hr before sunrise b. 1/2 hr before sunrise c. At exact moment of sunrise d. 1/2 hour after sunrise

Last Answer : d. 1/2 hour after sunrise

In an artesian aquifer, the draw downs in two observation wells at distances 100 m, and 200 m were found same after one hour and x hours respectively. The value of x, is (A) 2 hours (B) 4 hours (C) 9 hours (D) 16 hours

Description : In an artesian aquifer, the draw downs in two observation wells at distances 100 m, and 200 m  were found same after one hour and x hours respectively. The value of x, is  (A) 2 hours  (B) 4 hours  (C) 9 hours  (D) 16 hours 

Last Answer : (B) 4 hours

At a fuel check you have 60 US gallons (USG) of usable fuel remaining. Alternative fuel required is 12USG. The flight time remaining is 1 hour 35 mins. What is the highest consumption rate acceptable? a. 33.0 USG/Hr b. 37.9 USG/Hr c. 30.3 USG/Hr d. 21.3 USG/Hr

Description : At a fuel check you have 60 US gallons (USG) of usable fuel remaining. Alternative fuel required is 12USG. The flight time remaining is 1 hour 35 mins. What is the highest consumption rate acceptable? a. 33.0 USG/Hr b. 37.9 USG/Hr c. 30.3 USG/Hr d. 21.3 USG/Hr

Last Answer : c. 30.3 USG/Hr

VOLMETs are updated a. Every hour b. 4 times a day c. 2 times a day d. Every half hour

Description : VOLMETs are updated a. Every hour b. 4 times a day c. 2 times a day d. Every half hour

Last Answer : d. Every half hour

Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the METAR? 00000KT 0200 R14/0800U R16/P1500U FZFG VV001 m03/m03 Q1022 BECMG 0800 = a. Meteorological visibility 200m, RVR for runway 16 1500m, temperature -3°C, vertical visibility 100m b. Meteorological visibility 200ft, RVR for runway 16 more than 1500m, vertical visibility 100ft, fog with hoar frost c. Meteorological visibility for runway 14 800m, fog with hoar frost, RVR for runway 16 more than 1500m d. RVR for runway 14 800m, vertical visibility 100ft, calm, meteorological visibility improving to 800m in the next 2 hours

Description : Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the METAR?   00000KT 0200 R14/0800U R16/P1500U FZFG VV001 m03/m03 Q1022 BECMG 0800 =  a. Meteorological visibility 200m, RVR for ... 800m, vertical visibility 100ft, calm, meteorological visibility  improving to 800m in the next 2 hours

Last Answer : d. RVR for runway 14 800m, vertical visibility 100ft, calm, meteorological visibility  improving to 800m in the next 2 hours

What is the absolute time a pilot should stop drinking before flying? a. 6 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcohol that has been consumed b. 24 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcohol that has been consumed c. 12 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcohol that has been consumed d. 8 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcohol that has been consumed

Description : What is the absolute time a pilot should stop drinking before flying? a. 6 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcohol that has been consumed b. 24 hours but it depends upon the amount of ... that has been consumed d. 8 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcohol that has been consumed

Last Answer : d. 8 hours but it depends upon the amount of alcohol that has been consumed

How many hours in advance of departure time should a flight plan be filed in the case of flights into areas subject to air traffic flow management (ATFM)? a. 3.00 hrs b. 0.30 hrs c. 1.00 hr d. 0.10 hr

Description : How many hours in advance of departure time should a flight plan be filed in the case of flights into areas subject to air traffic flow management (ATFM)? a. 3.00 hrs b. 0.30 hrs c. 1.00 hr d. 0.10 hr

Last Answer : a. 3.00 hrs

The ATC message “DISTRESS TRAFFIC ENDED” signifies that: a. All traffic are to end their transmissions b. All aircraft on the frequency are to change to another frequency c. Normal ATC is resumed after an emergency d. ATC is shutting shop

Description : The ATC message “DISTRESS TRAFFIC ENDED” signifies that: a. All traffic are to end their transmissions b. All aircraft on the frequency are to change to another frequency c. Normal ATC is resumed after an emergency d. ATC is shutting shop

Last Answer : c. Normal ATC is resumed after an emergency

BIRMINGHAM EGBB/BHX SA0850 280850 18014kt 9999 SCT024 BKN030 BKN045 12/08 Q1011 = FC0600 280600Z 280816 190015G27kt 9999 BKN025 TEMPO 0812 5000 – DZ BKN012 BECMG 1214 19022G37 = FT0400 280434Z 281212 19022G37 9999 BKN025 TEMPO 1902 5000 RA BKN010 BECMG 2201 25007kt Refer to weather information for Birmingham above. What is the total time for which the weather is forecast? a. 9 hours b. 18 hours c. 24 hours d. 28 hours

Description : BIRMINGHAM EGBB/BHX SA0850 280850 18014kt 9999 SCT024 BKN030 BKN045 12/08 Q1011 = FC0600 280600Z 280816 190015G27kt 9999 BKN025 TEMPO 0812 5000 - DZ BKN012 BECMG 1214 19022G37 = FT0400 280434Z 281212 19022G37 9999 ... weather is forecast? a. 9 hours b. 18 hours c. 24 hours d. 28 hours

Last Answer : d. 28 hours

It’s raining at midnight, but the forecast for tomorrow and the next day is clear. Will there be sunny weather in 48 hours? -Riddles

Description : It’s raining at midnight, but the forecast for tomorrow and the next day is clear. Will there be sunny weather in 48 hours? -Riddles

Last Answer : no sun in the sky hope it helps you

Given below are some characteristics of reasoning. Select the code that states a characteristic which is not of deductive reasoning: (A) The conclusion must be based on observation and experiment (B) The conclusion should be supported by the premise/premises (C) The conclusion must follow from the premise/premises necessarily (D) The argument may be valid or invalid

Description : Given below are some characteristics of reasoning. Select the code that states a characteristic which is not of deductive reasoning: (A) The conclusion must be based on observation and experiment ( ... must follow from the premise/premises necessarily (D) The argument may be valid or invalid

Last Answer : (A) The conclusion must be based on observation and experiment

When a state renders valid a license issued by another Contracting State, as an alternative to issuance of its own license, the validity shall: a. Not extend beyond 15 days after the validity of the license b. Not extend beyond the period of validity of the license c. Be at the discretion of the Contracting State rendering it valid d. Be at the discretion of ICAO

Description : When a state renders valid a license issued by another Contracting State, as an alternative to issuance of its own license, the validity shall: a. Not extend beyond 15 days after the validity of ... Be at the discretion of the Contracting State rendering it valid d. Be at the discretion of ICAO

Last Answer : b. Not extend beyond the period of validity of the license

For a flight plan filed before flight, the indicated time of departure is: a. The time overhead the first reporting point after take-off b. The time at which the flight plan is filed c. The estimated off-block time d. The time of take-off

Description : For a flight plan filed before flight, the indicated time of departure is: a. The time overhead the first reporting point after take-off b. The time at which the flight plan is filed c. The estimated off-block time d. The time of take-off

Last Answer : c. The estimated off-block time

You make a diversion from the route given in the flight plan and land at an uncontrolled airfield. Within what time after landing should you inform ATC? a. 10 mins b. 20 mins c. 30 mins d. 45 mins

Description : You make a diversion from the route given in the flight plan and land at an uncontrolled airfield. Within what time after landing should you inform ATC? a. 10 mins b. 20 mins c. 30 mins d. 45 mins

Last Answer : c. 30 mins

After an act of unlawful interference a report is to be made. When and to whom? a. Within 10 days and to the Authority of the State of Registry b. Immediately and to the Authority of the State of the airspace in which the event occurred c. Without delay, to the designated local authority and the Authority of the State of Registration d. Without delay, to the designated local authority and the Authority of the State of the Operator

Description : After an act of unlawful interference a report is to be made. When and to whom? a. Within 10 days and to the Authority of the State of Registry b. Immediately and to the Authority of ... d. Without delay, to the designated local authority and the Authority of the State of the Operator

Last Answer : d. Without delay, to the designated local authority and the Authority of the State of the Operator

A precautionary landing is a procedure that: a. Enables the aeroplane to land at the destination with unserviceabilities that prevent a normal instrument approach being carried out b. Enables a landing after the declaration of a state of emergency or urgency c. Enables a landing if it is suspected that the undercarriage is not properly lowered d. Is carried out in the event of landing at an alternate aerodrome

Description : A precautionary landing is a procedure that: a. Enables the aeroplane to land at the destination with unserviceabilities that prevent a normal instrument approach being carried out b. Enables a ... not properly lowered d. Is carried out in the event of landing at an alternate aerodrome

Last Answer : b. Enables a landing after the declaration of a state of emergency or urgency

Shortly after take-off, the altitude of the aeroplane suffers an abrupt pitch-up and IAS rapidly decreases followed quickly by a decrease in altitude. Engine indications are normal. You should suspect what and what should you do? a. Marked temperature drop; apply full power b. Loss of head wind or an increase in tail wind; apply full power c. Incipient engine failure (ignore instruments); lower the nose to gain airspeed d. Local clear air turbulence; reduce speed to VRA and ride it out

Description : Shortly after take-off, the altitude of the aeroplane suffers an abrupt pitch-up and IAS rapidly decreases followed quickly by a decrease in altitude. Engine indications are normal. You should suspect what ... to gain airspeed d. Local clear air turbulence; reduce speed to VRA and ride it out

Last Answer : b. Loss of head wind or an increase in tail wind; apply full power

After an accident, the operator of an aeroplane equipped with a flight recorder must keep the original recordings for a minimum period of: a. 30 days b. 90 days c. 45 days d. 60 days

Description : After an accident, the operator of an aeroplane equipped with a flight recorder must keep the original recordings for a minimum period of: a. 30 days b. 90 days c. 45 days d. 60 days

Last Answer : d. 60 days

After flying for 16 minutes at 100kt TAS with a 20kt tail wind, you have to return to the airfield of departure. You will arrive after: a. 10 min 40 sec b. 20 min c. 24 min d. 16 min

Description : After flying for 16 minutes at 100kt TAS with a 20kt tail wind, you have to return to the airfield of departure. You will arrive after: a. 10 min 40 sec b. 20 min c. 24 min d. 16 min

Last Answer : c. 24 min

When reporting a frequency the use of the word “DECIMAL” can be omitted: a. When there is no likelihood of confusion b. After the initial call c. Never d. By the ground station only

Description : When reporting a frequency the use of the word “DECIMAL” can be omitted: a. When there is no likelihood of confusion b. After the initial call c. Never d. By the ground station only

Last Answer : c. Never

A hand pump is usually fitted: a. For ground servicing purposes b. Lowering the landing gear in an emergency c. Pressurising the oleo struts in the air d. Retracting the gear after take-off

Description : A hand pump is usually fitted: a. For ground servicing purposes b. Lowering the landing gear in an emergency c. Pressurising the oleo struts in the air d. Retracting the gear after take-off

Last Answer : a. For ground servicing purposes

A shuttle valve will: a. Allow the accumulator to be emptied after engine shut down b. Reduce pump loading when normal system pressure is reached c. Automatically switched to a more appropriate source of hydraulic supply d. Operate on a rising pressure, higher than the Full Flow relief valve

Description : A shuttle valve will: a. Allow the accumulator to be emptied after engine shut down b. Reduce pump loading when normal system pressure is reached c. Automatically switched to a more appropriate source of hydraulic supply d. Operate on a rising pressure, higher than the Full Flow relief valve

Last Answer : c. Automatically switched to a more appropriate source of hydraulic supply

When does the engine High Pressure fuel shut off valve close? a. After a booster pump failure b. When the engine fuel switch is selected ‘ON’ during engine start c. When flight idle is selected d. When the engine fuel switch is selected ‘OFF’ during engine shut-down

Description : When does the engine High Pressure fuel shut off valve close? a. After a booster pump failure b. When the engine fuel switch is selected ‘ON’ during engine start c. When flight idle is selected d. When the engine fuel switch is selected ‘OFF’ during engine shut-down

Last Answer : d. When the engine fuel switch is selected ‘OFF’ during engine shut-down

When smoke appears in the cockpit, after donning the oxygen mask the pilot should select: a. Normal b. 100% c. Diluter d. Emergency

Description : When smoke appears in the cockpit, after donning the oxygen mask the pilot should select: a. Normal b. 100% c. Diluter d. Emergency

Last Answer : d. Emergency

The element of the audit planning process most likely to be agreed upon with the client before implementation of the audit strategy is the determination of the a. Procedures to be undertaken to discover litigation, claims, and assessments. b. Timing of inventory observation procedures to be performed. c. Evidence to be gathered to provide asufficient basis for the auditor's opinion.d. Pending legal matters to be included inthe inquiry of the client's attorney.

Description : The element of the audit planning process most likely to be agreed upon with the client before implementation of the audit strategy is the determination of the a. Procedures to be undertaken to discover ... opinion. d. Pending legal matters to be included in the inquiry of the client's attorney.

Last Answer : Timing of inventory observation procedures to be performed

The element of the audit planning process most likely to be agreed upon with the client before implementation of the audit strategy is the determination of the a. Timing of inventory observation procedures to be performedb. Evidence to be gathered to provide asufficient basis for the auditor's opinion.c. Procedures to be undertaken to discoverlitigation, claims, and assessments.d. Pending legal matters to be included inthe inquiry of the client's attorney

Description : The element of the audit planning process most likely to be agreed upon with the client before implementation of the audit strategy is the determination of the a. Timing of inventory observation ... assessments. d. Pending legal matters to be included in the inquiry of the client's attorney

Last Answer : Timing of inventory observation procedures to be performed.

Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the nurse to take when the patient demonstrates subcutaneous emphysema along the suture line or chest dressing 2 hours after chest surgery? a) Record the observation. Subcutaneous emphysema occurs after chest surgery as the air that is located within the pleural cavity is expelled through the tissue opening created by the surgical procedure.

Description : Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the nurse to take when the patient demonstrates subcutaneous emphysema along the suture line or chest dressing 2 hours after chest ... finding to the physician immediately. Subcutaneous emphysema results from air entering the tissue planes.

Last Answer : a) Record the observation. Subcutaneous emphysema occurs after chest surgery as the air that is located within the pleural cavity is expelled through the tissue opening created by the surgical procedure.

The code “BECMG FM 1100 –RASH” in a METAR means: a. From 1100UTC, the cessation of rain showers b. Becoming from 1100UTC slight rain showers

Description : The code “BECMG FM 1100 –RASH” in a METAR means:  a. From 1100UTC, the cessation of rain showers  b. Becoming from 1100UTC slight rain showers  c. Becoming from 1100UTC rain showers  d. Becoming from 1100UTC till 0000UTC slight rain showers

Last Answer : b. Becoming from 1100UTC slight rain showers

Existing accountant, as defined in the Code of Ethics, means a. A professional accountant employed in industry, commerce, the public sector or education. b. Those persons who hold a valid certificate issued by the Board of Accountancy. c. A professional accountant in public practice currently holding an audit appointment or carrying out accounting, taxation, consulting or similar professional services for a client. d. A sole proprietor, or each partner or person occupying a position similar to that of a partner and each staff in a practice providing professional services

Description : Existing accountant, as defined in the Code of Ethics, means a. A professional accountant employed in industry, commerce, the public sector or education. b. Those persons who hold a valid ... a position similar to that of a partner and each staff in a practice providing professional services

Last Answer : A professional accountant in public practice currently holding an audit appointment or carrying out accounting, taxation, consulting or similar professional services for a client.

Without the consent of the client, a CPA should not disclose confidential information contained in working papers to a: a. Voluntary quality control review board. b. CPA firm that has purchased the CPA’s accounting practice. c. National court that has issued a valid subpoena. d. Disciplinary body created under statute.

Description : Without the consent of the client, a CPA should not disclose confidential information contained in working papers to a: a. Voluntary quality control review board. b. CPA firm that has purchased the ... . c. National court that has issued a valid subpoena. d. Disciplinary body created under statute.

Last Answer : CPA firm that has purchased the CPA’s accounting practice.

This refers to those persons who hold a valid certificate issued by the Board of Accountancy. a. Senior accounting practitioner. b. Professional accountant. c. Professional accountant in public practice. d. Audit associate.

Description : This refers to those persons who hold a valid certificate issued by the Board of Accountancy. a. Senior accounting practitioner. b. Professional accountant. c. Professional accountant in public practice. d. Audit associate.

Last Answer : Professional accountant.

How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time? a. Shallow the bank and increase airspeed b. Steeper bank and increase airspeed c. Steeper bank and decrease airspeed

Description : How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time? a. Shallow the bank and increase airspeed b. Steeper bank and increase airspeed c. Steeper bank and decrease airspeed

Last Answer : c. Steeper bank and decrease airspeed

When does a pilot apply the limitations of the MEL? a. At parking before commencement of taxi b. Prior to take-off c. At any time in flight d. Any time up to coming to a complete stop and applying the parking brake

Description : When does a pilot apply the limitations of the MEL? a. At parking before commencement of taxi b. Prior to take-off c. At any time in flight d. Any time up to coming to a complete stop and applying the parking brake

Last Answer : d. Any time up to coming to a complete stop and applying the parking brake

An aircraft is attempting to home to a VOR on the 064 radial. The CDI shows 4 dots fly right with a TO indication. At the same time the co-located DME shows a range of 45nm. Where is the aircraft in relation to the required track? a. 6nm right of track b. 3nm right of track c. 6nm left of track d. 3nm left of track

Description : An aircraft is attempting to home to a VOR on the 064 radial. The CDI shows 4 dots fly right with a TO indication. At the same time the co-located DME shows a range of 45nm. Where is the aircraft in relation ... right of track b. 3nm right of track c. 6nm left of track d. 3nm left of track

Last Answer : c. 6nm left of track

A pilot can improve the probability of detecting other aircrafts by: a. Minimizing the duration of eye rests and making as many eye movements as possible b. Moving the head frequently to alter the apparent motion of any distant object c. Maximizing the time spent looking in each sector to allow the maximum chance of detecting movement d. Maintaining as far as possible a lookout ahead of the aircraft and relying on peripheral vision to detect any movement from the side

Description : A pilot can improve the probability of detecting other aircrafts by: a. Minimizing the duration of eye rests and making as many eye movements as possible b. Moving the head frequently to ... a lookout ahead of the aircraft and relying on peripheral vision to detect any movement from the side

Last Answer : a. Minimizing the duration of eye rests and making as many eye movements as possible

What is the time of useful consciousness at 20,000 feet (moderate activity)? a. 5 minutes b. 1 minute c. 10 minutes d. 30 seconds

Description : What is the time of useful consciousness at 20,000 feet (moderate activity)? a. 5 minutes b. 1 minute c. 10 minutes d. 30 seconds

Last Answer : a. 5 minutes