When reporting a frequency the use of the word “DECIMAL” can be omitted: a. When there is no likelihood of confusion b. After the initial call c. Never d. By the ground station only

When reporting a frequency the use of the word “DECIMAL” can be omitted:  
a. When there is no likelihood of confusion  
b. After the initial call  
c. Never  
d. By the ground station only
by

1 Answer

Answer :

c. Never
by

Related questions

When reporting a frequency the use of the word “DECIMAL” can be omitted: a. When there is no likelihood of confusion b. After the initial call c. Never d. By the ground station only

Description : When reporting a frequency the use of the word “DECIMAL” can be omitted: a. When there is no likelihood of confusion b. After the initial call c. Never d. By the ground station only

Last Answer : c. Never

The DME counters are rotating continuously. This indicates that: a. The DME is unserviceable b. The DME is trying to lock onto range c. The DME is trying to lock onto frequency d. The DME is receiving no response from the ground station

Description : The DME counters are rotating continuously. This indicates that: a. The DME is unserviceable b. The DME is trying to lock onto range c. The DME is trying to lock onto frequency d. The DME is receiving no response from the ground station

Last Answer : b. The DME is trying to lock onto range

An aircraft has to communicate with a VHF station at a range of 300nm, if the ground station is situated 2,500ft amsl, which of the following is the lowest altitude at which contact is likely to be made? a. 190ft b. 1,378ft c. 36,100ft d. 84,100ft

Description : An aircraft has to communicate with a VHF station at a range of 300nm, if the ground station is situated 2,500ft amsl, which of the following is the lowest altitude at which contact is likely to be made? a. 190ft b. 1,378ft c. 36,100ft d. 84,100ft

Last Answer : c. 36,100ft

The callsign of a station controlling surface vehicles in the manoeuvring area would be: a. TOWER b. CLEARANCE c. GROUND d. APRON

Description : The callsign of a station controlling surface vehicles in the manoeuvring area would be: a. TOWER b. CLEARANCE c. GROUND d. APRON

Last Answer : c. GROUND

The callsign suffix of a station providing clearance delivery would be: a. CLEARANCE b. GROUND c. DELIVERY d. PRESTO

Description : The callsign suffix of a station providing clearance delivery would be: a. CLEARANCE b. GROUND c. DELIVERY d. PRESTO

Last Answer : c. DELIVERY

If you are unable to contact a station on a designated frequency you should: a. Try another appropriate frequency b. Start transmitting blind c. Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome d. Transmit words twice

Description : If you are unable to contact a station on a designated frequency you should: a. Try another appropriate frequency b. Start transmitting blind c. Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome d. Transmit words twice

Last Answer : a. Try another appropriate frequency

For a flight plan filed before flight, the indicated time of departure is: a. The time overhead the first reporting point after take-off b. The time at which the flight plan is filed c. The estimated off-block time d. The time of take-off

Description : For a flight plan filed before flight, the indicated time of departure is: a. The time overhead the first reporting point after take-off b. The time at which the flight plan is filed c. The estimated off-block time d. The time of take-off

Last Answer : c. The estimated off-block time

DME and VOR are “frequency paired” because: a. The same receiver can be used for both aids b. The VOR transmitter is easily converted to the required DME frequency c. Cockpit workload is reduced d. Both ground transmitter aerials can be placed on the same site if required

Description : DME and VOR are “frequency paired” because: a. The same receiver can be used for both aids b. The VOR transmitter is easily converted to the required DME frequency c. Cockpit workload is reduced d. Both ground transmitter aerials can be placed on the same site if required

Last Answer : c. Cockpit workload is reduced

Who is responsible for reporting acts of unlawful interference? a. The Commander or the Operator b. The ATCU for the airspace in which the event occurred c. Any member of the flight crew d. Any person on board the aeroplane

Description : Who is responsible for reporting acts of unlawful interference? a. The Commander or the Operator b. The ATCU for the airspace in which the event occurred c. Any member of the flight crew d. Any person on board the aeroplane

Last Answer : a. The Commander or the Operato

With reference to Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems: a. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary and has the clearance confirmed by ATC b. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary and has advised ATC of the other aircraft’s proximity c. RAs must never be disregarded d. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary

Description : With reference to Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems: a. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation ... pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary

Last Answer : d. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary

During a straight departure, the initial track is to be: a. Within 5° of runway centre-line b. Within 10 of runway centre-line c. Within 15° of runway centre-line d. Within 25° of runway centre-line

Description : During a straight departure, the initial track is to be: a. Within 5° of runway centre-line b. Within 10 of runway centre-line c. Within 15° of runway centre-line d. Within 25° of runway centre-line

Last Answer : c. Within 15° of runway centre-line

The IRS position can be updated: a. On the ground only b. At designated positions en-route and on the ground c. On the ground and overhead VOR/DME d. At selected waypoints and on the ground

Description : The IRS position can be updated: a. On the ground only b. At designated positions en-route and on the ground c. On the ground and overhead VOR/DME d. At selected waypoints and on the ground

Last Answer : a. On the ground only

If so equipped, when should an aircraft display the anti-collision light? a. Only at night in flight, but not on the ground if being towed b. Whilst taxiing but not whilst being towed c. Only at night with engines running d. At all times on the ground when the engines are running

Description : If so equipped, when should an aircraft display the anti-collision light? a. Only at night in flight, but not on the ground if being towed b. Whilst taxiing but not whilst being towed c. Only at night with engines running d. At all times on the ground when the engines are running

Last Answer : d. At all times on the ground when the engines are running

Which of the following are all errors associated with ADF? a. Selective availability, coastal refraction, night effect b. Night effect, quadrantal error, lane slip c. Mountain effect, station interference, static interference d. Selective availability, coastal refraction, quadrantal error

Description : Which of the following are all errors associated with ADF? a. Selective availability, coastal refraction, night effect b. Night effect, quadrantal error, lane slip c. Mountain effect, station interference, static interference d. Selective availability, coastal refraction, quadrantal error

Last Answer : c. Mountain effect, station interference, static interference

The station pressure used in surface weather charts is: a. QNE b. QFF c. QFE d. QNH

Description : The station pressure used in surface weather charts is: a. QNE b. QFF c. QFE d. QNH

Last Answer : a. QNE

The Q code for the magnetic bearing from a station is: a. QDM b. QDR c. QTE d. QNH

Description : The Q code for the magnetic bearing from a station is: a. QDM b. QDR c. QTE d. QNH

Last Answer : b. QDR

The Q code for TRUE BEARING from a station is: a. QDR b. QFE c. QUJ d. QTE

Description : The Q code for TRUE BEARING from a station is: a. QDR b. QFE c. QUJ d. QTE

Last Answer : d. QTE

An urgency message should include the following information: a. Name of station addressed, aircraft callsign, nature of urgency condition, intention of commander, position, level, heading b. Callsign, position, route, destination, endurance c. Name of station addressed, callsign, present positin, level, ETA destination d. Captain’s number, rank and name

Description : An urgency message should include the following information: a. Name of station addressed, aircraft callsign, nature of urgency condition, intention of commander, position, level, heading b. Callsign ... , callsign, present positin, level, ETA destination d. Captain's number, rank and name

Last Answer : a. Name of station addressed, aircraft callsign, nature of urgency condition, intention of commander, position, level, heading

A hand pump is usually fitted: a. For ground servicing purposes b. Lowering the landing gear in an emergency c. Pressurising the oleo struts in the air d. Retracting the gear after take-off

Description : A hand pump is usually fitted: a. For ground servicing purposes b. Lowering the landing gear in an emergency c. Pressurising the oleo struts in the air d. Retracting the gear after take-off

Last Answer : a. For ground servicing purposes

A pilot who is diagnosed as having an alcohol problem can: a. Continue to fly as an operating pilot whilst he receives treatment b. Never fly again as an operating pilot c. Fly as a pilot only if he is supervised by another pilot d. Return to flying duties as a suitable course of treatment is complete

Description : A pilot who is diagnosed as having an alcohol problem can: a. Continue to fly as an operating pilot whilst he receives treatment b. Never fly again as an operating pilot c. Fly as a ... he is supervised by another pilot d. Return to flying duties as a suitable course of treatment is complete

Last Answer : d. Return to flying duties as a suitable course of treatment is complete

The frequency on which ATIS can be found is: a. Discrete VHF or VOR frequency b. Discrete VHF only c. VOR frequency only d. Any ATC frequency

Description : The frequency on which ATIS can be found is: a. Discrete VHF or VOR frequency b. Discrete VHF only c. VOR frequency only d. Any ATC frequency

Last Answer : a. Discrete VHF or VOR frequency

The ATC message “DISTRESS TRAFFIC ENDED” signifies that: a. All traffic are to end their transmissions b. All aircraft on the frequency are to change to another frequency c. Normal ATC is resumed after an emergency d. ATC is shutting shop

Description : The ATC message “DISTRESS TRAFFIC ENDED” signifies that: a. All traffic are to end their transmissions b. All aircraft on the frequency are to change to another frequency c. Normal ATC is resumed after an emergency d. ATC is shutting shop

Last Answer : c. Normal ATC is resumed after an emergency

The response to general call from ATC is for the aircraft to: a. Respond in alphabetic order b. Respond in numerical order c. Give no response d. Request a repeat of the message

Description : The response to general call from ATC is for the aircraft to: a. Respond in alphabetic order b. Respond in numerical order c. Give no response d. Request a repeat of the message

Last Answer : c. Give no response

What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect? a. A decrease in parasite drag permitting a lower angle of attack b. An increase induced drag and a requirement for a higher angle of attack c. An increase in dynamic stability d. A decrease in induced drag requiring a smaller angle of attack

Description : What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect? a. A decrease in parasite drag permitting a lower angle of attack b. An increase induced drag and a requirement ... increase in dynamic stability d. A decrease in induced drag requiring a smaller angle of attack

Last Answer : b. An increase induced drag and a requirement for a higher angle of attack

t higher elevation airports the pilot should know that indicated airspeed: a. will be unchanged but ground speed will be faster b. will be higher but ground speed will be unchanged c. should be increased to compensate for the thinner air d. should be higher to obtain a higher landing speed

Description : t higher elevation airports the pilot should know that indicated airspeed: a. will be unchanged but ground speed will be faster b. will be higher but ground speed will be unchanged c. should be increased to compensate for the thinner air d. should be higher to obtain a higher landing speed

Last Answer : a. will be unchanged but ground speed will be faster

When refuelling is being conducted with passengers embarking or disembarking: a. Refuelling is strictly prohibited whilst passengers are embarking or disembarking b. All flight crew must be on board c. Communications shall be maintained by ground crew and qualified crew on board d. The stairs shall be fully extended

Description : When refuelling is being conducted with passengers embarking or disembarking: a. Refuelling is strictly prohibited whilst passengers are embarking or disembarking b. All flight crew must be on board c. ... by ground crew and qualified crew on board d. The stairs shall be fully extended

Last Answer : c. Communications shall be maintained by ground crew and qualified crew on board

Which of the following conditions is worst with regard to wake vortex turbulence? a. Lights winds near the surface b. Strong winds near the surface c. Marked vertical wind shear d. Marked atmospheric turbulence near the ground

Description : Which of the following conditions is worst with regard to wake vortex turbulence? a. Lights winds near the surface b. Strong winds near the surface c. Marked vertical wind shear d. Marked atmospheric turbulence near the ground

Last Answer : a. Lights winds near the surface

The illusion that the aircraft is taxiing too fast can be caused by: a. Snow and a tailwind b. Snow and a headwind c. Rain and a headwind d. An unaccustomed high distance of the cockpit from the ground

Description : The illusion that the aircraft is taxiing too fast can be caused by: a. Snow and a tailwind b. Snow and a headwind c. Rain and a headwind d. An unaccustomed high distance of the cockpit from the ground

Last Answer : c. Rain and a headwind

Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig. 4.2 & 4.5.3.2 Estimated take-off mass 57,000kg; ground distance 150nm; temperature ISA -10C; cruise at M0.74. What is the optimum cruise altitude and TAS? a. 25,000ft & 445kt b. 33,000ft & 420kt c. 25,000ft & 435kt d. 33,000ft & 430kt

Description : Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig. 4.2 & 4.5.3.2 Estimated take-off mass 57,000kg; ground distance 150nm; temperature ISA -10C; cruise at M0.74. What is the optimum cruise altitude and TAS? a. 25,000ft & 445kt b. 33,000ft & 420kt c. 25,000ft & 435kt d. 33,000ft & 430kt

Last Answer : c. 25,000ft & 435kt

What minimum ground visibility is required to enable a SVFR flight to take off from an aerodrome in a CTR? a. 1000m b. 1500m c. 2000m d. 3000m

Description : What minimum ground visibility is required to enable a SVFR flight to take off from an aerodrome in a CTR? a. 1000m b. 1500m c. 2000m d. 3000m

Last Answer : b. 1500m

When would the negative differential limits be reached/exceeded? a. Rapid descent when AC descends below cabin altitude b. During ground pressure testing c. Rapid ascent when aircraft climbs d. When changing to manual operation

Description : When would the negative differential limits be reached/exceeded? a. Rapid descent when AC descends below cabin altitude b. During ground pressure testing c. Rapid ascent when aircraft climbs d. When changing to manual operation

Last Answer : a. Rapid descent when AC descends below cabin altitude

In the event of an act of unlawful interference, which of the following is the correct procedure to be taken by the pilot in command? a. Squawk 7700 if the situation requires and continue the flight as per the ATC clearance received if possible b. Squawk 7500 and broadcast a warning to ATC other traffic on 121.500MHz or the frequency in use whilst maintaining the flight as cleared c. Squawk 7500 (or 7700 if required) and broadcast a warning if the situation forces deviation from the cleared flight plan d. If forced to deviate from the flight plan, climb or descend to altitudes that differ from the normal cruising altitudes by 1000ft

Description : In the event of an act of unlawful interference, which of the following is the correct procedure to be taken by the pilot in command? a. Squawk 7700 if the situation requires and continue ... the flight plan, climb or descend to altitudes that differ from the normal cruising altitudes by 1000ft

Last Answer : c. Squawk 7500 (or 7700 if required) and broadcast a warning if the situation forces deviation from the cleared flight plan

The frequency band of the ILS glidepath is: a. UHF b. VHF c. SHF d. VLF

Description : The frequency band of the ILS glidepath is: a. UHF b. VHF c. SHF d. VLF

Last Answer : a. UHF

Which frequency band is a wavelength of 1200m? a. UHF b. LF c. HF d. MF

Description : Which frequency band is a wavelength of 1200m? a. UHF b. LF c. HF d. MF

Last Answer : b. LF

A typical DME frequency is: a. 1000 MHz b. 1300 MHz c. 1000 kHz d. 1575 MHz

Description : A typical DME frequency is: a. 1000 MHz b. 1300 MHz c. 1000 kHz d. 1575 MHz

Last Answer : a. 1000 MHz

In what frequency band is the ATIS normally broadcasted? a. LF b. HF c. ADF d. VHF

Description : In what frequency band is the ATIS normally broadcasted? a. LF b. HF c. ADF d. VHF

Last Answer : d. VHF

The correct readback of the frequency 123.725 on 25 kHz spacing is: a. 123.725 b. 123.7 c. 12372 d. 123.72

Description : The correct readback of the frequency 123.725 on 25 kHz spacing is: a. 123.725 b. 123.7 c. 12372 d. 123.72

Last Answer : a. 123.725

The minimum content of a readback of the message from ATC “X-CD CHANGE FREQUENCY TO STEPHENVILLE TOWER 118.7” is: a. 118.7 b. CHANGING FREQUENCY X-CD c. TO STEPHENVILLE X-CD d. 118.7 X-CD

Description : The minimum content of a readback of the message from ATC “X-CD CHANGE FREQUENCY TO STEPHENVILLE TOWER 118.7” is: a. 118.7 b. CHANGING FREQUENCY X-CD c. TO STEPHENVILLE X-CD d. 118.7 X-CD

Last Answer : d. 118.7 X-CD

The definition of the instruction “MONITORO” is: a. Listen out on frequency b. Establish communications on frequency c. Watch out for visual signals on frequency d. You are being watched

Description : The definition of the instruction “MONITORO” is: a. Listen out on frequency b. Establish communications on frequency c. Watch out for visual signals on frequency d. You are being watched

Last Answer : a. Listen out on frequency

The definition of the phrase “STANDBY” is: a. Consider the transmission as not sent b. Proceed with your message c. Wait and I will call you d. Hold your present position

Description : The definition of the phrase “STANDBY” is: a. Consider the transmission as not sent b. Proceed with your message c. Wait and I will call you d. Hold your present position

Last Answer : c. Wait and I will call you

An example of a general call is: a. STOP IMMEDIATELY I SAY AGAIN STOP IMMEDAITELY b. BRAKING ACTION UNRELIABLE c. ALL STATIONS d. GOOD DAY

Description : An example of a general call is: a. STOP IMMEDIATELY I SAY AGAIN STOP IMMEDAITELY b. BRAKING ACTION UNRELIABLE c. ALL STATIONS d. GOOD DAY

Last Answer : c. ALL STATIONS

When given instructions to set a mode/code, a pilot shall: a. Only use the word “wilco” b. Only read back the code c. Only use the word “roger” d. Read back mode and code

Description : When given instructions to set a mode/code, a pilot shall: a. Only use the word “wilco” b. Only read back the code c. Only use the word “roger” d. Read back mode and code

Last Answer : d. Read back mode and code

The name in three letters is under the ground, if the middle letter is omitted, it hangs on the tree ?

Description : The name in three letters is under the ground, if the middle letter is omitted, it hangs on the tree ?

Last Answer : North coal which is under the ground , except for the middle letter banana which is hanging on the tree.

What is required for an IFR flight in advisory airspace? a. No flight plan required b. Flight plan required and PIC must notify of any changes regardless if wanting advisory service or not c. Flight plan required but PIC need not notify of any changes d. A flight plan is only required if advisory service is required

Description : What is required for an IFR flight in advisory airspace? a. No flight plan required b. Flight plan required and PIC must notify of any changes regardless if wanting advisory service or not c ... need not notify of any changes d. A flight plan is only required if advisory service is required

Last Answer : b. Flight plan required and PIC must notify of any changes regardless if wanting advisory service or not

When entering a steep turn, an IVSI is likely to show: a. No change in altitude b. A slight climb c. A slight descent d. A slight descent at high airspeed only

Description : When entering a steep turn, an IVSI is likely to show: a. No change in altitude b. A slight climb c. A slight descent d. A slight descent at high airspeed only

Last Answer : b. A slight climb

If you are repeating a word or a message for clarity then you should use the phrase: a. WORDS TWICE b. I REPEAT c. I SAY AGAIN d. DITTO

Description : If you are repeating a word or a message for clarity then you should use the phrase: a. WORDS TWICE b. I REPEAT c. I SAY AGAIN d. DITTO

Last Answer : c. I SAY AGAIN

When making a blind transmission you should: a. Transmit the message twice b. Transmit each word twice c. Repeat the message on 121.5 MHz d. Wait for visual signals

Description : When making a blind transmission you should: a. Transmit the message twice b. Transmit each word twice c. Repeat the message on 121.5 MHz d. Wait for visual signals

Last Answer : a. Transmit the message twice

The angle of attack of a fixed pitch propeller: a. Depends on forward speed only b. Depends on forward speed and engine rotational speed c. Depends on engine rotational speed only d. Is constant for a fixed pitch propeller

Description : The angle of attack of a fixed pitch propeller: a. Depends on forward speed only b. Depends on forward speed and engine rotational speed c. Depends on engine rotational speed only d. Is constant for a fixed pitch propeller

Last Answer : b. Depends on forward speed and engine rotational speed

An aeroplane is starting a non-precision approach with an MDH of 250ft and minimum visibility of 800 meters. ATC gives threshold, mid-runway and final third RVRs. When may the approach be started? a. When threshold and mid-runway RVRs are greater than 800m b. When all 3 RVRs are greater than 800m c. When the met viz is greater than 800m. RVR is for precision approaches only. d. When threshold RVR is greater than 800m

Description : An aeroplane is starting a non-precision approach with an MDH of 250ft and minimum visibility of 800 meters. ATC gives threshold, mid-runway and final third RVRs. When may the approach be started? ... than 800m. RVR is for precision approaches only. d. When threshold RVR is greater than 800m

Last Answer : d. When threshold RVR is greater than 800m