One shall not initiate any flight made in accordance with instrument flight rules unless the available information indicates that the conditions at the aerodrome of predicted destination or, at an aerodrome of alternate destination, are, at the predicted time of: a. take-off equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use b. arrival, and for a reasonable time before and after such a predicted time, equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use c. arrival equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use d. arrival better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use

One shall not initiate any flight made in accordance with instrument flight rules unless the  available information indicates that the conditions at the aerodrome of predicted destination  or, at an aerodrome of alternate destination, are, at the predicted time of:  
a. take-off equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use  b. arrival, and for a reasonable time before and after such a predicted time, equal to or  better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use  
c. arrival equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome  use  
d. arrival better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use
by

1 Answer

Answer :

c. arrival equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome  use
by

Related questions

When do you not need a destination alternate aerodrome? a. If there is a reasonable certainty that at the ETA at the destination aerodrome and a reasonable time before and after you can expect VMC b. If the flight time is less than 6 hours c. If the flight time is less than 1 hour d. If your operator deems the weather to be suitable for a visual landing

Description : When do you not need a destination alternate aerodrome? a. If there is a reasonable certainty that at the ETA at the destination aerodrome and a reasonable time before and after you can expect VMC ... less than 1 hour d. If your operator deems the weather to be suitable for a visual landing

Last Answer : a. If there is a reasonable certainty that at the ETA at the destination aerodrome and a reasonable time before and after you can expect VMC

A precautionary landing is a procedure that: a. Enables the aeroplane to land at the destination with unserviceabilities that prevent a normal instrument approach being carried out b. Enables a landing after the declaration of a state of emergency or urgency c. Enables a landing if it is suspected that the undercarriage is not properly lowered d. Is carried out in the event of landing at an alternate aerodrome

Description : A precautionary landing is a procedure that: a. Enables the aeroplane to land at the destination with unserviceabilities that prevent a normal instrument approach being carried out b. Enables a ... not properly lowered d. Is carried out in the event of landing at an alternate aerodrome

Last Answer : b. Enables a landing after the declaration of a state of emergency or urgency

What minimum ground visibility is required to enable a SVFR flight to take off from an aerodrome in a CTR? a. 1000m b. 1500m c. 2000m d. 3000m

Description : What minimum ground visibility is required to enable a SVFR flight to take off from an aerodrome in a CTR? a. 1000m b. 1500m c. 2000m d. 3000m

Last Answer : b. 1500m

What is the Total Elapsed Time on a VFR flight plan? a. From take-off to overhead destination b. From take-off to overhead destination + 15 mins c. From take-off to landing d. From taxi to arrival on the gate

Description : What is the Total Elapsed Time on a VFR flight plan? a. From take-off to overhead destination b. From take-off to overhead destination + 15 mins c. From take-off to landing d. From taxi to arrival on the gate

Last Answer : a. From take-off to overhead destination

At the alternate aerodrome, the commander of a turbojet engine aeroplane should have a fuel quantity (final reserve) sufficient for flying during: a. 30 minutes at holding flight speed at 1,500 ft b. 45 minutes at holding flight speed at 1,500 ft c. 30 minutes at cruising speed d. 45 minutes at cruising speed

Description : At the alternate aerodrome, the commander of a turbojet engine aeroplane should have a fuel quantity (final reserve) sufficient for flying during: a. 30 minutes at holding flight speed at 1,500 ft b. 45 ... speed at 1,500 ft c. 30 minutes at cruising speed d. 45 minutes at cruising speed

Last Answer : a. 30 minutes at holding flight speed at 1,500 ft

Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig. 4.3.1 Given: Estimated zero fuel mass 50t; estimated landing mass at destination 52t; final reserve fuel 2t; alternate fuel 1t; flight to destination distance 720nm, true course 030, W/V 340/30; cruise: LRC, at FL330 outside air temperature -30C. Find estimated trip fuel and time. a. 4,800kg / 01hr 45min b. 4,400kg / 02hr 02min c. 4,750kg / 02hr 00min d. 4,600kg / 02hr 05min

Description : Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig. 4.3.1 Given: Estimated zero fuel mass 50t; estimated landing mass at destination 52t; final reserve fuel 2t; alternate fuel 1t; flight to destination distance 720nm, true course 030, W/V ... b. 4,400kg / 02hr 02min c. 4,750kg / 02hr 00min d. 4,600kg / 02hr 05min

Last Answer : a. 4,800kg / 01hr 45min

What action should be taken when, during an IFR flight in VMC, you suffer a radio failure? a. Return to the aerodrome from which you departed b. Continue flying in VMC and land as soon as possible c. Maintain your assigned altitude and land at the nearest aerodrome at which there are VMC conditions d. Continue flying at your assigned altitude and start your approach at your ETA

Description : What action should be taken when, during an IFR flight in VMC, you suffer a radio failure? a. Return to the aerodrome from which you departed b. Continue flying in VMC and land as ... there are VMC conditions d. Continue flying at your assigned altitude and start your approach at your ETA

Last Answer : b. Continue flying in VMC and land as soon as possible

Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome experiencing radio failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance? a. Switching on and off three times the landing lights b. The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights c. Switching on and off four times the navigation lights d. Switching on and off four times the landing lights

Description : Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome experiencing radio failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance? a. ... four times the navigation lights d. Switching on and off four times the landing lights

Last Answer : b. The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights

On receipt of a TCAS RA, your action is to: a. Initiate the required maneuver immediately b. Make a note of the details c. Request a flight clearance deviation from ATC d. Do nothing until a TA is received

Description : On receipt of a TCAS RA, your action is to: a. Initiate the required maneuver immediately b. Make a note of the details c. Request a flight clearance deviation from ATC d. Do nothing until a TA is received

Last Answer : a. Initiate the required maneuver immediately

If no ICAO identifier has been attributed to an aerodrome, what should be entered in Box 16 of the Flight Plan? a. ZZZZ b. NNNN c. A/N d. A/D XXX

Description : If no ICAO identifier has been attributed to an aerodrome, what should be entered in Box 16 of the Flight Plan? a. ZZZZ b. NNNN c. A/N d. A/D XXX

Last Answer : a. ZZZZ

If an ATC clearance is not suitable, the PIC may: a. Offer ATC an acceptable clearance b. Request and if practicable accept an amended clearance c. Demand an alternative clearance and ATC must comply d. Decline the clearance on the grounds that it is not in accordance with the field flight plan

Description : If an ATC clearance is not suitable, the PIC may: a. Offer ATC an acceptable clearance b. Request and if practicable accept an amended clearance c. Demand an alternative clearance and ATC must ... d. Decline the clearance on the grounds that it is not in accordance with the field flight plan

Last Answer : b. Request and if practicable accept an amended clearance

What action should be taken if contact is lost with the runway during a circling approach? a. Descend to Decision Height and if still no contact with the runway, initiate a missed approach b. Land on the instrument runway c. Initiate a missed approach d. Return to the FAF

Description : What action should be taken if contact is lost with the runway during a circling approach? a. Descend to Decision Height and if still no contact with the runway, initiate a missed approach b. Land on the instrument runway c. Initiate a missed approach d. Return to the FAF

Last Answer : c. Initiate a missed approach

What minimum ground visibility is required to enable a SVFR flight to take off from an aerodrome in a CTR? a. 1000m b. 1500m c. 2000m d. 3000m

Description : What minimum ground visibility is required to enable a SVFR flight to take off from an aerodrome in a CTR? a. 1000m b. 1500m c. 2000m d. 3000m

Last Answer : b. 1500m

Operationally significant changes to AIP shall be published in accordance with: a. AIC’s b. AIP Supplements c. AIRAC procedures d. Trigger NOTAMS

Description : Operationally significant changes to AIP shall be published in accordance with: a. AIC’s b. AIP Supplements c. AIRAC procedures d. Trigger NOTAMS

Last Answer : c. AIRAC procedures

What is the Total Elapsed Time on a VFR flight plan? a. From take-off to overhead destination b. From take-off to overhead destination + 15 mins c. From take-off to landing d. From taxi to arrival on the gate

Description : What is the Total Elapsed Time on a VFR flight plan? a. From take-off to overhead destination b. From take-off to overhead destination + 15 mins c. From take-off to landing d. From taxi to arrival on the gate

Last Answer : a. From take-off to overhead destination

When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall continuously operate this mode: a. Only when directed by ATC b. Unless otherwise directed by ATC c. Only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace d. Regardless of ATC instructions

Description : When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall continuously operate this mode: a. Only when directed by ATC b. Unless otherwise directed by ATC c. Only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace d. Regardless of ATC instructions

Last Answer : b. Unless otherwise directed by ATC

A flight is to depart from an airport with runway 09 and 27. Surface wind is 270/05; an inversion is reported at 300 feet with turbulence and wind shear. The wind just above the inversion is 090/30. What is the safest departure procedure? a. Take-off is not possible under these conditions b. Depart on runway 09 with a tailwind c. Depart runway 27 with maximum throttle during the passage through the inversion d. Depart runway 27 with as steep an ascent as possible

Description : A flight is to depart from an airport with runway 09 and 27. Surface wind is 270/05; an inversion is reported at 300 feet with turbulence and wind shear. The wind just above the ... throttle during the passage through the inversion d. Depart runway 27 with as steep an ascent as possible

Last Answer : b. Depart on runway 09 with a tailwind

The Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) for flights in accordance with IFR within controlled airspace below FL290 is: a. 500 feet (150m) b. 2500 feet (750 m) c. 1000 feet (300m) d. 2000 feet (600m)

Description : The Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) for flights in accordance with IFR within controlled airspace below FL290 is: a. 500 feet (150m) b. 2500 feet (750 m) c. 1000 feet (300m) d. 2000 feet (600m)

Last Answer : c. 1000 feet (300m)

If a pilot lands at an aerodrome other than the destination aerodrome specified in the ICAO flight plan, she must ensure that the ATS unit at the destination is informed within a specified time of her planned ETA at destination. The time is:

Description : If a pilot lands at an aerodrome other than the destination aerodrome specified in the ICAO flight plan, she must ensure that the ATS unit at the destination is informed within a specified time of her planned ETA at destination. The time is:

Last Answer : 30 mins

For a flight plan filed before flight, the indicated time of departure is: a. The time overhead the first reporting point after take-off b. The time at which the flight plan is filed c. The estimated off-block time d. The time of take-off

Description : For a flight plan filed before flight, the indicated time of departure is: a. The time overhead the first reporting point after take-off b. The time at which the flight plan is filed c. The estimated off-block time d. The time of take-off

Last Answer : c. The estimated off-block time

True track 215; mountain elevation 11,600ft; local airfield gives QNH as 1035mb; required terrain clearance 1500ft; temperature ISA -15C. Which of the following is the minimum flight level considering the temperature? a. FL150 b. FL140 c. FL120 d. FL110

Description : True track 215; mountain elevation 11,600ft; local airfield gives QNH as 1035mb; required terrain clearance 1500ft; temperature ISA -15C. Which of the following is the minimum flight level considering the temperature? a. FL150 b. FL140 c. FL120 d. FL110

Last Answer : b. FL140

Who checks, before flight, that the aircraft’s weight is such that the flight can be safely made and that any transported cargo is properly distributed and secured? a. The company’s cargo technicians b. The captain c. The mechanic on board, or in his absence the co-pilot d. The operator

Description : Who checks, before flight, that the aircraft’s weight is such that the flight can be safely made and that any transported cargo is properly distributed and secured? a. The company’s cargo technicians b. The captain c. The mechanic on board, or in his absence the co-pilot d. The operator

Last Answer : b. The captain

When does a pilot apply the limitations of the MEL? a. At parking before commencement of taxi b. Prior to take-off c. At any time in flight d. Any time up to coming to a complete stop and applying the parking brake

Description : When does a pilot apply the limitations of the MEL? a. At parking before commencement of taxi b. Prior to take-off c. At any time in flight d. Any time up to coming to a complete stop and applying the parking brake

Last Answer : d. Any time up to coming to a complete stop and applying the parking brake

If you are unable to contact a station on a designated frequency you should: a. Try another appropriate frequency b. Start transmitting blind c. Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome d. Transmit words twice

Description : If you are unable to contact a station on a designated frequency you should: a. Try another appropriate frequency b. Start transmitting blind c. Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome d. Transmit words twice

Last Answer : a. Try another appropriate frequency

The MSA provides 300m obstacle clearance within how many miles radius of the navigation facility at the aerodrome? a. 20nm b. 30nm c. 25nm d. 15nm

Description : The MSA provides 300m obstacle clearance within how many miles radius of the navigation facility at the aerodrome? a. 20nm b. 30nm c. 25nm d. 15nm

Last Answer : c. 25nm

An aircraft flying in the visual circuit at an aerodrome sees a series of red flashes from the control tower. What does this mean? a. Do not land b. Do not land because the aerodrome is unusable c. Give way to other aircraft d. Return for landing and await clearance to land

Description : An aircraft flying in the visual circuit at an aerodrome sees a series of red flashes from the control tower. What does this mean? a. Do not land b. Do not land because the aerodrome is unusable c. Give way to other aircraft d. Return for landing and await clearance to land

Last Answer : b. Do not land because the aerodrome is unusable

You see a double white cross in a signal square, what does this mean? a. Glider flying in progress b. Tow ropes and banners may be dropped c. Runway unfit for aircraft movement d. Aerodrome unfit for aircraft movement

Description : You see a double white cross in a signal square, what does this mean? a. Glider flying in progress b. Tow ropes and banners may be dropped c. Runway unfit for aircraft movement d. Aerodrome unfit for aircraft movement

Last Answer : a. Glider flying in progress

A DISTRESS message differs from an URGENCY message because: a. There is grave and imminent danger which requires immediate assistance b. The aeroplane has suffered damage that endangers the ability to fly c. The aeroplane will not be able to reach a suitable aerodrome d. The situation concerns the safety of passengers on board or within sight

Description : A DISTRESS message differs from an URGENCY message because: a. There is grave and imminent danger which requires immediate assistance b. The aeroplane has suffered damage that endangers the ... suitable aerodrome d. The situation concerns the safety of passengers on board or within sight

Last Answer : a. There is grave and imminent danger which requires immediate assistance

When refuelling is being conducted with passengers embarking or disembarking: a. Refuelling is strictly prohibited whilst passengers are embarking or disembarking b. All flight crew must be on board c. Communications shall be maintained by ground crew and qualified crew on board d. The stairs shall be fully extended

Description : When refuelling is being conducted with passengers embarking or disembarking: a. Refuelling is strictly prohibited whilst passengers are embarking or disembarking b. All flight crew must be on board c. ... by ground crew and qualified crew on board d. The stairs shall be fully extended

Last Answer : c. Communications shall be maintained by ground crew and qualified crew on board

Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig. 4.3.6 Given: Distance to alternate 400nm Landing mass at alternate 50,000kg Headwind component 25kt The alternate fuel required is: a. 2550kg b. 2800kg c. 2900kg d. 2650kg

Description : Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig. 4.3.6 Given: Distance to alternate 400nm Landing mass at alternate 50,000kg Headwind component 25kt The alternate fuel required is: a. 2550kg b. 2800kg c. 2900kg d. 2650kg

Last Answer : b. 2800kg

In flight, it is possible to: i. File an IFR flight plan ii. Modify an active flight plan iii. Cancel a VFR flight plan iv. Close a VFR flight plan (rules of the air ann2 3.3.5) a. i and ii b. i, ii, iii and iv c. ii, iii and iv d. i and iv

Description : In flight, it is possible to: i. File an IFR flight plan ii. Modify an active flight plan iii. Cancel a VFR flight plan iv. Close a VFR flight plan (rules of the air ann2 3.3.5) a. i and ii b. i, ii, iii and iv c. ii, iii and iv d. i and iv

Last Answer : b. i, ii, iii and iv

DOM 33,510kt; Traffic load 7,600kg; Trip fuel 2040kg; Final reserve 983kg Alternative fuel 1100kg; Contingency 5% of trip fuel Which of the following is correct? a. Estimated landing mass at destination 43,193kg b. Estimated landing mass at destination 43,295kg c. Estimated take-off mass 43,295kg d. Estimated take-off mass 45,233kg

Description : DOM 33,510kt; Traffic load 7,600kg; Trip fuel 2040kg; Final reserve 983kg Alternative fuel 1100kg; Contingency 5% of trip fuel Which of the following is correct? a. Estimated landing mass at destination ... 43,295kg c. Estimated take-off mass 43,295kg d. Estimated take-off mass 45,233kg

Last Answer : b. Estimated landing mass at destination 43,295kg

After an accident, the operator of an aeroplane equipped with a flight recorder must keep the original recordings for a minimum period of: a. 30 days b. 90 days c. 45 days d. 60 days

Description : After an accident, the operator of an aeroplane equipped with a flight recorder must keep the original recordings for a minimum period of: a. 30 days b. 90 days c. 45 days d. 60 days

Last Answer : d. 60 days

For a controlled flight before departure, a flight plan must be filed at least: a. 50 minutes before off-block time b. 60 minutes before departure c. 10 minutes before departure d. 30 minutes before off-block time

Description : For a controlled flight before departure, a flight plan must be filed at least: a. 50 minutes before off-block time b. 60 minutes before departure c. 10 minutes before departure d. 30 minutes before off-block time

Last Answer : b. 60 minutes before departure

A precision Approach Procedure is defined as: a. An approach using bearing, elevation and distance information b. An approach with a crew of at least 2 pilots trained for such operations c. An instrument approach procedure utilizing azimuth and glide path information provided by an ILS or a PAR

Description : A precision Approach Procedure is defined as: a. An approach using bearing, elevation and distance information b. An approach with a crew of at least 2 pilots trained for such ... An instrument approach procedure utilizing azimuth and glide path information provided by an ILS or a PAR

Last Answer : c. An instrument approach procedure utilizing azimuth and glide path information provided by an ILS or a PAR

Your reply to the message “REPORT FLIGHT CONDITIONS” should be: a. VFR/IFR b. SMOOTH/TURBULENT c. NOT BAD/SO SO d. VMC/IMC

Description : Your reply to the message “REPORT FLIGHT CONDITIONS” should be: a. VFR/IFR b. SMOOTH/TURBULENT c. NOT BAD/SO SO d. VMC/IMC

Last Answer : d. VMC/IMC

Cabin altitude in pressured flight is: a. The altitude corresponding to cabin pressure regardless of aircraft height b. Is presented on a second needle on the aircraft altimeter c. Altitude at which cabin pressure equals ambient pressure d. Altitude corresponding to cabin pressure in relation to MSL ISA conditions

Description : Cabin altitude in pressured flight is: a. The altitude corresponding to cabin pressure regardless of aircraft height b. Is presented on a second needle on the aircraft altimeter c. ... equals ambient pressure d. Altitude corresponding to cabin pressure in relation to MSL ISA conditions

Last Answer : a. The altitude corresponding to cabin pressure regardless of aircraft height b. Is presented on a second needle on the aircraft altimeter

An urgency message should include the following information: a. Name of station addressed, aircraft callsign, nature of urgency condition, intention of commander, position, level, heading b. Callsign, position, route, destination, endurance c. Name of station addressed, callsign, present positin, level, ETA destination d. Captain’s number, rank and name

Description : An urgency message should include the following information: a. Name of station addressed, aircraft callsign, nature of urgency condition, intention of commander, position, level, heading b. Callsign ... , callsign, present positin, level, ETA destination d. Captain's number, rank and name

Last Answer : a. Name of station addressed, aircraft callsign, nature of urgency condition, intention of commander, position, level, heading

Maximum endurance: a. Can be achieved in level unaccelerated flight with minimum fuel consumption b. Can be achieved by flying at the best rate of climb speed in straight and level flight c. Can be achieved in a steady climb d. Can be achieved by flying at the absolute ceiling

Description : Maximum endurance: a. Can be achieved in level unaccelerated flight with minimum fuel consumption b. Can be achieved by flying at the best rate of climb speed in straight and level flight c. Can be achieved in a steady climb d. Can be achieved by flying at the absolute ceiling

Last Answer : a. Can be achieved in level unaccelerated flight with minimum fuel consumption

A flight is planned from L to M, distance 850 nm. Wind component out is 35 kt(TWC), TAS 450kt. Mean fuel flow out is 2500kg/hr, mean fuel flow inbound is 1900kg/hr and the fuel available is 6000kg. The time and distance to PSR is: a. 1hr 30 min, 660nm b. 1hr 30 min, 616nm c. 1hr 15 min, 606nm d. 1hr 16 min, 616nm

Description : A flight is planned from L to M, distance 850 nm. Wind component out is 35 kt(TWC), TAS 450kt. Mean fuel flow out is 2500kg/hr, mean fuel flow inbound is 1900kg/hr and the fuel available is 6000kg. The time ... 30 min, 660nm b. 1hr 30 min, 616nm c. 1hr 15 min, 606nm d. 1hr 16 min, 616nm

Last Answer : d. 1hr 16 min, 616nm

At a fuel check you have 60 US gallons (USG) of usable fuel remaining. Alternative fuel required is 12USG. The flight time remaining is 1 hour 35 mins. What is the highest consumption rate acceptable? a. 33.0 USG/Hr b. 37.9 USG/Hr c. 30.3 USG/Hr d. 21.3 USG/Hr

Description : At a fuel check you have 60 US gallons (USG) of usable fuel remaining. Alternative fuel required is 12USG. The flight time remaining is 1 hour 35 mins. What is the highest consumption rate acceptable? a. 33.0 USG/Hr b. 37.9 USG/Hr c. 30.3 USG/Hr d. 21.3 USG/Hr

Last Answer : c. 30.3 USG/Hr

When does the engine High Pressure fuel shut off valve close? a. After a booster pump failure b. When the engine fuel switch is selected ‘ON’ during engine start c. When flight idle is selected d. When the engine fuel switch is selected ‘OFF’ during engine shut-down

Description : When does the engine High Pressure fuel shut off valve close? a. After a booster pump failure b. When the engine fuel switch is selected ‘ON’ during engine start c. When flight idle is selected d. When the engine fuel switch is selected ‘OFF’ during engine shut-down

Last Answer : d. When the engine fuel switch is selected ‘OFF’ during engine shut-down

In the event of an act of unlawful interference, which of the following is the correct procedure to be taken by the pilot in command? a. Squawk 7700 if the situation requires and continue the flight as per the ATC clearance received if possible b. Squawk 7500 and broadcast a warning to ATC other traffic on 121.500MHz or the frequency in use whilst maintaining the flight as cleared c. Squawk 7500 (or 7700 if required) and broadcast a warning if the situation forces deviation from the cleared flight plan d. If forced to deviate from the flight plan, climb or descend to altitudes that differ from the normal cruising altitudes by 1000ft

Description : In the event of an act of unlawful interference, which of the following is the correct procedure to be taken by the pilot in command? a. Squawk 7700 if the situation requires and continue ... the flight plan, climb or descend to altitudes that differ from the normal cruising altitudes by 1000ft

Last Answer : c. Squawk 7500 (or 7700 if required) and broadcast a warning if the situation forces deviation from the cleared flight plan

Which of the following is an obligation of being an ICAO contracting state? a. ICAO must be informed about all new flight crew licenses and any suspended validity of such licenses b. ICAO must be informed about differences from the standards detailed in any of the annexes to the Chicago convention c. ICAO must approve the pricing of tickets on international airline connections d. ICAO must be informed about changes to national regulations

Description : Which of the following is an obligation of being an ICAO contracting state? a. ICAO must be informed about all new flight crew licenses and any suspended validity of such licenses ... of tickets on international airline connections d. ICAO must be informed about changes to national regulations

Last Answer : b. ICAO must be informed about differences from the standards detailed in any of the annexes to the Chicago convention

The purpose of a trim tab is: a. To assist the pilot in initiating movement of the controls b. To zero the load on the pilot controls in the flight attitude required c. To provide feel to the controls at high speed d. To increase the effectiveness of the controls

Description : The purpose of a trim tab is: a. To assist the pilot in initiating movement of the controls b. To zero the load on the pilot controls in the flight attitude required c. To provide feel to the controls at high speed d. To increase the effectiveness of the controls

Last Answer : b. To zero the load on the pilot controls in the flight attitude required

A Flight Data Recorder is required in aeroplanes over: a. 20,000kg b. 5,700kg c. 10,000kg d. 7,000kg

Description : A Flight Data Recorder is required in aeroplanes over: a. 20,000kg b. 5,700kg c. 10,000kg d. 7,000kg

Last Answer : b. 5,700kg

What is required for an IFR flight in advisory airspace? a. No flight plan required b. Flight plan required and PIC must notify of any changes regardless if wanting advisory service or not c. Flight plan required but PIC need not notify of any changes d. A flight plan is only required if advisory service is required

Description : What is required for an IFR flight in advisory airspace? a. No flight plan required b. Flight plan required and PIC must notify of any changes regardless if wanting advisory service or not c ... need not notify of any changes d. A flight plan is only required if advisory service is required

Last Answer : b. Flight plan required and PIC must notify of any changes regardless if wanting advisory service or not

A controlled flight is required to inform the concerned ATC unit when the average TAS at cruising level deviates or is expected to deviate compared to that given TAS in the Flight Plan by at least plus or minus: a. 10% b. 3% c. 5% d. 2%

Description : A controlled flight is required to inform the concerned ATC unit when the average TAS at cruising level deviates or is expected to deviate compared to that given TAS in the Flight Plan by at least plus or minus: a. 10% b. 3% c. 5% d. 2%

Last Answer : d. 2%

If the angle of attack is increased beyond the critical angle of attack, the wing will no longer produce sufficient lift to support the weight of the aircraft: a. Unless the airspeed is greater than the normal stall speed b. Regardless of airspeed or pitch attitude c. Unless the pitch attitude is on or below the natural horizon d. In which case, the control column should be pulled-back immediately

Description : If the angle of attack is increased beyond the critical angle of attack, the wing will no longer produce sufficient lift to support the weight of the aircraft: a. Unless the airspeed is greater ... below the natural horizon d. In which case, the control column should be pulled-back immediately

Last Answer : b. Regardless of airspeed or pitch attitude

Which statement is true regarding the opposing forces acting on an aeroplane in steady-state level flight? a. Thrust is greater than drag and weight and lift are equal b. These forces are equal c. Thrust is greater than drag and lift is greater than weight d. Thrust is slightly greater than lift, but the drag and weight are equal

Description : Which statement is true regarding the opposing forces acting on an aeroplane in steady-state level flight? a. Thrust is greater than drag and weight and lift are equal b. These forces are equal ... greater than weight d. Thrust is slightly greater than lift, but the drag and weight are equal

Last Answer : b. These forces are equal