59. Priority discharge plans should include which of the following?

59. Priority discharge plans should include which of the
following?
by

1 Answer

Answer :

D. 1 and 2
by

Related questions

Which of the following medications used for the treatment of obesity prevents the absorption of triglycerides? a) Orlistat (Xenical) Orlistat (Xenical) prevents the absorption of triglycerides. Side effects of Xenical may include increased bowel movements, gas with oily discharge, decreased food absorption, decreased bile flow, and decreased absorption of some vitamins. b) bupropion hydrochloride (Wellbutrin) buproprion hydrochloride (Wellbutrin) is an antidepressant medication. c) Sibutramine hydrochoride (Meridia) Sibutramine hydrochloride (Meridia) inhibits the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephine. Meridia decreases appetite. d) Fluoxetine hydrochloride (Prozac) Fluoxetine hydrochloride (Prozac) has not been approved by the FDA for use in the treatment of obesity.

Description : Which of the following medications used for the treatment of obesity prevents the absorption of triglycerides? a) Orlistat (Xenical) Orlistat (Xenical) prevents the absorption of triglycerides. Side effects of ... (Prozac) has not been approved by the FDA for use in the treatment of obesity.

Last Answer : a) Orlistat (Xenical) Orlistat (Xenical) prevents the absorption of triglycerides. Side effects of Xenical may include increased bowel movements, gas with oily discharge, decreased food absorption, decreased bile flow, and decreased absorption of some vitamins.

During a disaster, the nurse sees a victim with a green triage tag. The nurse knows that the person has a) injuries that are minor and treatment can be delayed hours to days. A green triage tag (priority 3 or minimal) indicates injuries that are minor and treatment can be delayed hours to days.

Description : During a disaster, the nurse sees a victim with a green triage tag. The nurse knows that the person has a) injuries that are minor and treatment can be delayed hours to days. A ... or expectant) indicates injuries that are extensive and chances of survival are unlikely even with definitive care.

Last Answer : a) injuries that are minor and treatment can be delayed hours to days. A green triage tag (priority 3 or minimal) indicates injuries that are minor and treatment can be delayed hours to days.

The client complained of abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting with abdominal distention. The nurse anticipates which of the following priority management after referring to the surgeon? A. Gastric decompression B. Possible surgery C. Endoscopy D. Rectal tube insertion

Description : The client complained of abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting with abdominal distention. The nurse anticipates which of the following priority management after referring to the surgeon? A. Gastric decompression B. Possible surgery C. Endoscopy D. Rectal tube insertion

Last Answer : A. Gastric decompression

When the female client reports a frothy yellow-brown vaginal discharge, the nurse suspects the client has a vaginal infection caused by a) trichomonas vaginalis. Trichomonas vaginalis causes a frothy yellow-white or yellow-brown vaginal discharge.

Description : When the female client reports a frothy yellow-brown vaginal discharge, the nurse suspects the client has a vaginal infection caused by a) trichomonas vaginalis. Trichomonas vaginalis causes a ... the external vulva and vaginal walls. d) chlamydia. Chlamydia causes a profuse purulent discharge.

Last Answer : a) trichomonas vaginalis. Trichomonas vaginalis causes a frothy yellow-white or yellow-brown vaginal discharge.

The first step in decontamination is a. Removal of the patient’s clothing and jewelry and then rinsing the patient with water. To be effective, decontamination must include a minimum of two steps. The first step is removal of the patient’s clothing and jewelry and then rinsing the patient with water. The second step consists of a thorough soap and water wash and rinse.

Description : The first step in decontamination is a. Removal of the patient's clothing and jewelry and then rinsing the patient with water. To be effective, decontamination must include a minimum of two steps. The ... the patient with water. The second step consists of a thorough soap and water wash and rinse.

Last Answer : a. Removal of the patient's clothing and jewelry and then rinsing the patient with water. To be effective, decontamination must include a minimum of two steps. The first step is removal of the patient ... the patient with water. The second step consists of a thorough soap and water wash and rinse.

If a person has been exposed to radiation, presenting symptoms, such as nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, diarrhea, or fatigue can be expected to occur within _______ hours after exposure? a) 48 to 72 The prodromal phase (presenting symptoms) of radiation exposure occurs within 48 to 72 hours after exposure. Signs and symptoms include nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, diarrhea, and fatigue. With high-dose radiation exposure, the signs and symptoms may include fever, respiratory distress, and increased excitability.

Description : If a person has been exposed to radiation, presenting symptoms, such as nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, diarrhea, or fatigue can be expected to occur within _______ hours after exposure? ... prodromal phase (presenting symptoms) of radiation exposure occurs within 48 to 72 hours after exposure.

Last Answer : a) 48 to 72 The prodromal phase (presenting symptoms) of radiation exposure occurs within 48 to 72 hours after exposure. Signs and symptoms include nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, ... radiation exposure, the signs and symptoms may include fever, respiratory distress, and increased excitability.

A person suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning a) appears intoxicated. A person suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning appears intoxicated (from cerebral hypoxia). Other signs and symptoms include headache, muscular weakness, palpitation, dizziness, and mental confusion.

Description : A person suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning a) appears intoxicated. A person suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning appears intoxicated (from cerebral hypoxia). Other signs and symptoms include headache, ... pink to cherry red to cynanotic and pale and is not a reliable diagnostic sign.

Last Answer : a) appears intoxicated. A person suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning appears intoxicated (from cerebral hypoxia). Other signs and symptoms include headache, muscular weakness, palpitation, dizziness, and mental confusion.

Which of the following solutions should the nurse anticipate for fluid replacement in the male patient? a) Lactated Ringer’s solution Replacement fluids may include isotonic electrolyte solutions and blood component therapy.

Description : Which of the following solutions should the nurse anticipate for fluid replacement in the male patient? a) Lactated Ringer's solution Replacement fluids may include isotonic electrolyte solutions and ... only to treat severe symptomatic hyponatremia and should be used only in intensive care units.

Last Answer : a) Lactated Ringer’s solution Replacement fluids may include isotonic electrolyte solutions and blood component therapy.

The nurse assesses subtle personality changes, restlessness, irritability, and confusion in a patient who has sustained a fracture. The nurse suspects a) fat embolism syndrome. Cerebral disturbances in the patient with fat embolism syndrome include subtle personality changes, restlessness, irritability, and confusion.

Description : The nurse assesses subtle personality changes, restlessness, irritability, and confusion in a patient who has sustained a fracture. The nurse suspects a) fat embolism syndrome. Cerebral disturbances in ... severe, burning pain, local edema, hyperesthesia, muscle spasms, and vasomotor skin changes.

Last Answer : a) fat embolism syndrome. Cerebral disturbances in the patient with fat embolism syndrome include subtle personality changes, restlessness, irritability, and confusion.

Instructions for the patient with low back pain include which of the following? a) When lifting, avoid overreaching. Instructions for the patient with low back pain should include that when lifting, the patient should avoid overreaching. The patient should also keep the load close to the body, bend the knees and tighten the abdominal muscles, use a wide base of support, and use a back brace to protect the back.

Description : Instructions for the patient with low back pain include which of the following? a) When lifting, avoid overreaching. Instructions for the patient with low back pain should include that when lifting, ... lifting, the patient with low back pain should bend the knees and tighten the abdominal muscles.

Last Answer : a) When lifting, avoid overreaching. Instructions for the patient with low back pain should include that when lifting, the patient should avoid overreaching. The patient should also keep the load close to the ... muscles, use a wide base of support, and use a back brace to protect the back.

The nurse teaches the patient with a high risk for osteoporosis about risk-lowering strategies including which of the following statements? a) Walk or perform weight-bearing exercises out of doors. Risk-lowering strategies for osteoporosis include walking or exercising out of doors, performing a regular weight-bearing exercise regimen, increasing dietary calcium and vitamin D intake, smoking cessation, and consuming alcohol and caffeine consumption in moderation.

Description : The nurse teaches the patient with a high risk for osteoporosis about risk-lowering strategies including which of the following statements? a) Walk or perform weight-bearing exercises out ... alcohol and caffeine consumption in moderation, and performing a regular weight-bearing exercise regimen.

Last Answer : a) Walk or perform weight-bearing exercises out of doors. Risk-lowering strategies for osteoporosis include walking or exercising out of doors, performing a regular weight-bearing exercise ... and vitamin D intake, smoking cessation, and consuming alcohol and caffeine consumption in moderation.

Lifestyle risk factors for osteoporosis include a) lack of exposure to sunshine. Lifestyle risk factors for osteoporosis include lack of exposure to sunshine, low calcium and vitamin D diet, cigarette smoking, use of alcohol and/or caffeine, and lack of weight-bearing exercise.

Description : Lifestyle risk factors for osteoporosis include a) lack of exposure to sunshine. Lifestyle risk factors for osteoporosis include lack of exposure to sunshine, low calcium and vitamin D diet, ... of osteoporosis, low initial bone mass, and contributing co-existing medical conditions and medications.

Last Answer : a) lack of exposure to sunshine. Lifestyle risk factors for osteoporosis include lack of exposure to sunshine, low calcium and vitamin D diet, cigarette smoking, use of alcohol and/or caffeine, and lack of weight-bearing exercise.

Which of the following is an indicator of neurovascular compromise? a) Capillary refill more than 3 seconds Capillary refill more than 3 seconds is an indicator of neurovascular compromise. Other indicators include cool skin temperature, pale or cyanotic color, weakness, paralysis, paresthesia, unrelenting pain, pain on passive stretch, and absence of feeling.

Description : Which of the following is an indicator of neurovascular compromise? a) Capillary refill more than 3 seconds Capillary refill more than 3 seconds is an indicator of neurovascular compromise. Other ... d) Pain on active stretch. Pain on passive stretch is an indicator of neurovascular compromise.

Last Answer : a) Capillary refill more than 3 seconds Capillary refill more than 3 seconds is an indicator of neurovascular compromise. Other indicators include cool skin temperature, pale or cyanotic color, weakness, paralysis, paresthesia, unrelenting pain, pain on passive stretch, and absence of feeling.

Diminished range of motion, loss of flexibility, stiffness, and loss of height are history and physical findings associated with agerelated changes of the a) joints. History and physical findings associated with age-related changes of the joints include diminished range of motion, loss of flexibility, stiffness, and loss of height.

Description : Diminished range of motion, loss of flexibility, stiffness, and loss of height are history and physical findings associated with agerelated changes of the a) joints. History and physical ... resolves with rest, crepitus, joint swelling/enlargement, and degenerative joint disease (osteoarthritis).

Last Answer : a) joints. History and physical findings associated with age-related changes of the joints include diminished range of motion, loss of flexibility, stiffness, and loss of height.

Degenerative neurologic disorders include which of the following? a) Huntington’s disease Huntington’s disease is a chronic, progressive, degenerative neurologic hereditary disease of the nervous system that results in progressive involuntary choreiform movement and dementia.

Description : Degenerative neurologic disorders include which of the following? a) Huntington's disease Huntington's disease is a chronic, progressive, degenerative neurologic hereditary disease of the nervous system that results in ... the bone. d) Glioma Malignant glioma is the most common type of brain tumor.

Last Answer : a) Huntington’s disease Huntington’s disease is a chronic, progressive, degenerative neurologic hereditary disease of the nervous system that results in progressive involuntary choreiform movement and dementia.

Which of the following reflects basic nursing measures in the care of the patient with viral encephalitis? a) Providing comfort measures Providing comfort measures directed at the headache, include dimmed lights, limited noise, and analgesics are the basic nursing measures in the care of the patient with a viral encephalitis.

Description : Which of the following reflects basic nursing measures in the care of the patient with viral encephalitis? a) Providing comfort measures Providing comfort measures directed at the headache, include ... output to alert the nurse to the presence of renal complications related to acyclovir therapy.

Last Answer : a) Providing comfort measures Providing comfort measures directed at the headache, include dimmed lights, limited noise, and analgesics are the basic nursing measures in the care of the patient with a viral encephalitis.

Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury include which of the following? a) Age over 65 years Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury include brain contusion with subdural hematoma, skull fracture, loss of consciousness or amnesia of 1 day or more, and age over 65 years.

Description : Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury include which of the following? a) Age over 65 years Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post ... is a risk factor that increases the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury

Last Answer : a) Age over 65 years Risk factors that increase the likelihood of post-traumatic seizures following a head injury include brain contusion with subdural hematoma, skull fracture, loss of consciousness or amnesia of 1 day or more, and age over 65 years.

Which of the following findings in the patient who has sustained a head injury indicate increasing intracranial pressure (ICP)? a) Widened pulse pressure Additional signs of increasing ICP include increasing systolic blood pressure, bradycardia, rapid respirations, and rapid rise in body temperature.

Description : Which of the following findings in the patient who has sustained a head injury indicate increasing intracranial pressure (ICP)? a) Widened pulse pressure Additional signs of increasing ICP ... regarded as unfavorable because hyperthermia may indicate brain stem damage, a poor prognostic sign.

Last Answer : a) Widened pulse pressure Additional signs of increasing ICP include increasing systolic blood pressure, bradycardia, rapid respirations, and rapid rise in body temperature.

Later signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) later include which of the following? a) Projectile vomiting Projectile vomiting may occur with increased pressure on the reflex center in the medulla.

Description : Later signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) later include which of the following? a) Projectile vomiting Projectile vomiting may occur with increased pressure on the reflex center in the ... , the pulse pressure (the difference between the systolic and the diastolic pressure) widens.

Last Answer : a) Projectile vomiting Projectile vomiting may occur with increased pressure on the reflex center in the medulla.

Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for transient ischemic attacks and ischemic strokes? a) History of smoking. Modifiable risk factors for TIAs and ischemic stroke include hypertension, Type 1 diabetes, cardiac disease, history of smoking, and chronic alcoholism.

Description : Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for transient ischemic attacks and ischemic strokes? a) History of smoking. Modifiable risk factors for TIAs and ischemic stroke include hypertension, Type ... ) Advanced age Advanced age, gender, and race are non-modifiable risk factors for stroke.

Last Answer : a) History of smoking. Modifiable risk factors for TIAs and ischemic stroke include hypertension, Type 1 diabetes, cardiac disease, history of smoking, and chronic alcoholism.

Structural and motor changes related to aging that may be assessed in geriatric patients during an examination of neurologic function include which of the following? a) Decreased or absent deep tendon reflexes Structural and motor changes related to aging that may be assessed in geriatric patients include decreased or absent deep tendon reflexes.

Description : Structural and motor changes related to aging that may be assessed in geriatric patients during an examination of neurologic function include which of the following? a) Decreased or absent deep ... and movement times Strength and agility are diminished and reaction and movement times are decreased.

Last Answer : a) Decreased or absent deep tendon reflexes Structural and motor changes related to aging that may be assessed in geriatric patients include decreased or absent deep tendon reflexes.

Which of the following factors are associated with increased fluid requirements in the management of patients with burn injury? a) Inhalation injuries Factors associated with increased fluid requirements include inhalation injuries, delayed resuscitation, scald burn injuries, high-voltage electrical injuries, hyperglycemia, alcohol intoxification and chronic diuretic therapy.

Description : Which of the following factors are associated with increased fluid requirements in the management of patients with burn injury? a) Inhalation injuries Factors associated with increased fluid ... fluid requirements. d) Hypoglycemia Hypoglycemia is not associated with increased fluid requirements.

Last Answer : a) Inhalation injuries Factors associated with increased fluid requirements include inhalation injuries, delayed resuscitation, scald burn injuries, high-voltage electrical injuries, hyperglycemia, alcohol intoxification and chronic diuretic therapy.

Most skin conditions related to HIV disease may be helped primarily by a) highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). The goals of all HIV-related conditions include improvement of CD4 count and lowering of viral load. Initiation of HAART (highly active antiretroviral therapy) will help improve most skin conditions related to HIV disease. Symptomatic relief will be required until the skin condition improves.

Description : Most skin conditions related to HIV disease may be helped primarily by a) highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). The goals of all HIV-related conditions include improvement of CD4 count and ... for the overall treatment of HIV disease; it is not specific for treatment of skin conditions.

Last Answer : a) highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). The goals of all HIV-related conditions include improvement of CD4 count and lowering of viral load. Initiation of HAART (highly active ... conditions related to HIV disease. Symptomatic relief will be required until the skin condition improves.

Which of the following reflect the pathophysiology of cutaneous signs of HIV disease? a) Immune function deterioration Cutaneous signs may be the first manifestations of HIV, appearing in more than 90 per cent of HIV infected patients as the immune function deteriorates. Common complaints include pruritis, folliculitis, and chronic actinic dermatitis.

Description : Which of the following reflect the pathophysiology of cutaneous signs of HIV disease? a) Immune function deterioration Cutaneous signs may be the first manifestations of HIV, appearing in more ... Decrease in normal skin flora Cutaneous signs of HIV disease appear as immune function deteriorates.

Last Answer : a) Immune function deterioration Cutaneous signs may be the first manifestations of HIV, appearing in more than 90 per cent of HIV infected patients as the immune function deteriorates. Common complaints include pruritis, folliculitis, and chronic actinic dermatitis.

Of the following classifications of medications, which is known to inhibit prostaglandin synthesis or release? a) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) in large doses NSAIDs include aspirin and ibuprofen.

Description : Of the following classifications of medications, which is known to inhibit prostaglandin synthesis or release? a) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) in large doses NSAIDs ... to cause immunosuppression. d) Antineoplastic agents Antineoplastic agents are known to cause immunosuppression.

Last Answer : a) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) in large doses NSAIDs include aspirin and ibuprofen.

The obstructive and irritative symptom complex caused by benign prostatic hypertrophy is termed a) prostatism. Symptoms of prostatism include increased frequency of urination, nocturia, urgency, dribbling, and a sensation that the bladder has not completely emptied.

Description : The obstructive and irritative symptom complex caused by benign prostatic hypertrophy is termed a) prostatism. Symptoms of prostatism include increased frequency of urination, nocturia, urgency, dribbling, ... . d) prostatectomy. Prostatectomy refers to the surgical removal of the prostate gland.

Last Answer : a) prostatism. Symptoms of prostatism include increased frequency of urination, nocturia, urgency, dribbling, and a sensation that the bladder has not completely emptied.

If an indwelling catheter is necessary, nursing interventions that should be implemented to prevent infection include a) performing meticulous perineal care daily with soap and water. Cleanliness of the area will reduce potential for infection.

Description : If an indwelling catheter is necessary, nursing interventions that should be implemented to prevent infection include a) performing meticulous perineal care daily with soap and water. Cleanliness of the area ... it is clamped because it may cause backflow of urine from the tubing into the bladder.

Last Answer : a) performing meticulous perineal care daily with soap and water. Cleanliness of the area will reduce potential for infection.

Which of the following is a reversible cause of urinary incontinence in the older adult? a) Constipation. Constipation is a reversible cause of urinary incontinence in the older adult. Other reversible causes include acute urinary tract infection, infection elsewhere in the body, decreased fluid intake, a change in a chronic disease pattern, and decreased estrogen levels in the menopausal women.

Description : Which of the following is a reversible cause of urinary incontinence in the older adult? a) Constipation. Constipation is a reversible cause of urinary incontinence in the older adult. Other ... level in the menopausal woman is a reversible cause of urinary incontinence in the older woman.

Last Answer : a) Constipation. Constipation is a reversible cause of urinary incontinence in the older adult. Other reversible causes include acute urinary tract infection, infection elsewhere in the body, decreased ... a change in a chronic disease pattern, and decreased estrogen levels in the menopausal women.

Typical signs and symptoms of appendicitis include: a) Nausea Nausea is typically associated with appendicitis with or without vomiting.

Description : Typical signs and symptoms of appendicitis include: a) Nausea Nausea is typically associated with appendicitis with or without vomiting. b) Left lower quadrant pain Pain is generally felt in the ... may be present with appendicitis. d) High fever Low-grade fever is associated with appendicitis.

Last Answer : a) Nausea Nausea is typically associated with appendicitis with or without vomiting.

Which of the following terms refers to a form of white blood cell involved in immune response? a) Lymphocyte Both B and T lymphocytes respond to exposure to antigens. b) Granulocyte Granulocytes include basophils, neutrophils, and eosinophils. c) Spherocyte A spherocyte is a red blood cell without central pallor, seen with hemolysis. d) Thrombocyte A thombocyte is a platelet.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to a form of white blood cell involved in immune response? a) Lymphocyte Both B and T lymphocytes respond to exposure to antigens. b) Granulocyte Granulocytes ... blood cell without central pallor, seen with hemolysis. d) Thrombocyte A thombocyte is a platelet.

Last Answer : a) Lymphocyte Both B and T lymphocytes respond to exposure to antigens.

Which type of sleep apnea is characterized by lack of airflow due to pharyngeal occlusion? a) Obstructive Obstructive sleep apnea occurs usually in men, especially those who are older and overweight. b) Simple Types of sleep apnea do not include a simple characterization. c) Mixed Mixed sleep apnea is a combination of central and obstructive apnea with one apneic episode. d) Central In central sleep apnea, the patient demonstrates simultaneous cessation of both airflow and respiratory movements.

Description : Which type of sleep apnea is characterized by lack of airflow due to pharyngeal occlusion? a) Obstructive Obstructive sleep apnea occurs usually in men, especially those who are older ... central sleep apnea, the patient demonstrates simultaneous cessation of both airflow and respiratory movements.

Last Answer : a) Obstructive Obstructive sleep apnea occurs usually in men, especially those who are older and overweight.

Fentanyl (Sublimaze) is categorized as which type of intravenous anesthetic agent? a) Neuroleptanalgesic Fentanyl is 75-100 times more potent than morphine and has about 25% of the duration of morphine (IV). b) Tranquilizer Examples of tranquilizers include midazolam (Versed) and diazepam (Valium). c) Opioid Opioids include morphine and meperidine hydrochloride (Demerol). d) Dissociative agent Ketamine is a dissociative agent.

Description : Fentanyl (Sublimaze) is categorized as which type of intravenous anesthetic agent? a) Neuroleptanalgesic Fentanyl is 75-100 times more potent than morphine and has about 25% of the duration ... morphine and meperidine hydrochloride (Demerol). d) Dissociative agent Ketamine is a dissociative agent.

Last Answer : a) Neuroleptanalgesic Fentanyl is 75-100 times more potent than morphine and has about 25% of the duration of morphine (IV).

The drug, Interleukin-2, is an example of which type of biologic response modifier? a) Cytokine Other cytokines include interferon alfa and filgrastim. b) Monoclonal antibodies Monoclonal antibodies include rituximab, trastuzumab, and gemtuzumab. c) Retinoids Retinoic acid is an example of a retinoid. d) Antimetabolites Antimetabolites are cell cycle-specific antineoplastic agents.

Description : The drug, Interleukin-2, is an example of which type of biologic response modifier? a) Cytokine Other cytokines include interferon alfa and filgrastim. b) Monoclonal antibodies Monoclonal ... an example of a retinoid. d) Antimetabolites Antimetabolites are cell cycle-specific antineoplastic agents.

Last Answer : a) Cytokine Other cytokines include interferon alfa and filgrastim.

Of the following stages of grieving as described by Kubler-Ross, which is the initial? a) Denial The stages include: denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance. b) Anger Anger is the second stage of the process. c) Bargaining Bargaining is the third stage of the process. d) Depression Depression is the fourth stage of the process.

Description : Of the following stages of grieving as described by Kubler-Ross, which is the initial? a) Denial The stages include: denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance. b) Anger Anger is the second ... is the third stage of the process. d) Depression Depression is the fourth stage of the process.

Last Answer : a) Denial The stages include: denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance.

Establishing financial security has been identified as a developmental task of which of the following groups? a) Middle adult The middle adult’s tasks also include launching children, and refocusing on one’s marital relationship. b) Older adult The older adult’s tasks include adapting to retirement and declining physical stamina. c) Young adult The young adult’s tasks include establishing a lifestyle and independence. d) Teenager The teenager’s primary developmental tasks include developing an identity and intimacy.

Description : Establishing financial security has been identified as a developmental task of which of the following groups? a) Middle adult The middle adult's tasks also include launching children, and ... . d) Teenager The teenager's primary developmental tasks include developing an identity and intimacy.

Last Answer : a) Middle adult The middle adult’s tasks also include launching children, and refocusing on one’s marital relationship.

The relaxation techniques of progressive muscle relaxation, relaxation with guided imagery, and the Benson Relaxation Response share which of the following elements? a) A mental device (something on which to focus the attention) Similar elements also include a quiet environment, a comfortable position, and a passive attitude. b) Nutritional foundation Relaxation techniques do not encompass specific nutritional guidelines. c) Analgesic preparation Relaxation techniques are used to reduce one’s response to stress and do not require analgesia prior to practicing the techniques. d) Physician’s order A physician’s order is not required to assist an individual to learn techniques to reduce one’s response to stress.

Description : The relaxation techniques of progressive muscle relaxation, relaxation with guided imagery, and the Benson Relaxation Response share which of the following elements? a) A mental device (something on which ... required to assist an individual to learn techniques to reduce one's response to stress.

Last Answer : a) A mental device (something on which to focus the attention) Similar elements also include a quiet environment, a comfortable position, and a passive attitude.

Which of the following types of cells have a latent ability to regenerate? a) Stable Stable cells have a latent ability to regenerate if they are damaged or destroyed and are found in the kidney, liver, and pancreas, among other body organs. b) Labile Labile cells multiply constantly to replace cells worn out by normal physiologic processes. c) Permanent Permanent cells include neurons — the nerve cell bodies, not their axons. Destruction of a neuron causes permanent loss, but axons may regenerate. d) Epithelial Epithelial cells are a type of labile cell that multiply constantly to replace cells worn out by normal physiologic processes.

Description : Which of the following types of cells have a latent ability to regenerate? a) Stable Stable cells have a latent ability to regenerate if they are damaged or destroyed and are found in the ... a type of labile cell that multiply constantly to replace cells worn out by normal physiologic processes.

Last Answer : a) Stable Stable cells have a latent ability to regenerate if they are damaged or destroyed and are found in the kidney, liver, and pancreas, among other body organs.

The leading health problems of elementary school children include a) Cancer. The leading health problems of elementary school children are injuries, infections, malnutrition, dental disease, and cancer. b) Alcohol and drug abuse. Alcohol and drug abuse are leading health problems for high school students. c) Mental and emotional problems. Mental and emotional problems are leading health problems for high school students. d) Homicide. Homicide is a leading health problem for high school children.

Description : The leading health problems of elementary school children include a) Cancer. The leading health problems of elementary school children are injuries, infections, malnutrition, dental disease, and cancer. ... school students. d) Homicide. Homicide is a leading health problem for high school children.

Last Answer : a) Cancer. The leading health problems of elementary school children are injuries, infections, malnutrition, dental disease, and cancer.

64. The client was placed on a low sodium diet. The wife asks the nurse which foods to include in the client’s diet while at home. The nurse should instruct to include which of these?

Description : 64. The client was placed on a low sodium diet. The wife asks the nurse which foods to include in the client’s diet while at home. The nurse should instruct to include which of these?

Last Answer : C. Fruits and vegetables

41. For a client complaining of mild musculoskeletal pain, the nurse will anticipate that the treatment for this client’s level of discomfort will include which of the following?

Description : 41. For a client complaining of mild musculoskeletal pain, the nurse will anticipate that the treatment for this client’s level of discomfort will include which of the following?

Last Answer : B. Acetaminophen

34. The nurse monitors for signs of peritonitis, a potential complication postoperatively. The manifestations include the following except

Description : 34. The nurse monitors for signs of peritonitis, a potential complication postoperatively. The manifestations include the following except

Last Answer : D. Soft abdomen

If the discharge of a sewer running half is 628 1.p.s., i = 0.001, and n = 0.010, the diameter of the sewer, is A. 1.39 m B. 1.49 m C. 1.59 m D. 1.69 m

Description : If the discharge of a sewer running half is 628 1.p.s., i = 0.001, and n = 0.010, the diameter of the sewer, is A. 1.39 m B. 1.49 m C. 1.59 m D. 1.69 m

Last Answer : ANS: D

Discharge criteria following ambulatory surgery include: A. Ability to eat solid food. B. Stable vital signs. C. Ability to ambulate. D. Ability to have protective airway reflexes.

Description : Discharge criteria following ambulatory surgery include: A. Ability to eat solid food. B. Stable vital signs. C. Ability to ambulate. D. Ability to have protective airway reflexes.

Last Answer : Answer: BCD DISCUSSION: Discharge criteria following ambulatory surgery include the patient's being fully awake and oriented, the ability to have protective airway reflexes, stable vital signs, adequate ... with them to transport them-and ideally to stay with them on the first postoperative night

What is the minimum age for becoming a nurse in 19th century?

Description : What is the minimum age for becoming a nurse in 19th century?

Last Answer : Your question presumes that 21st cenury standards were applied in the 19th century. There was no certification of nurses until late in the 19th century. Florence Nightingale, the mother of Nursing didn; ... in 1890 was vastlly different from nursing in 1810. But both were in the 19th century.

What should I do with about 30 pints of frozen breast milk?

Description : What should I do with about 30 pints of frozen breast milk?

Last Answer : Well, do you have cats?

If you were sick in the hospital, what would differentiate a mediocre nurse from an outstanding nurse?

Description : If you were sick in the hospital, what would differentiate a mediocre nurse from an outstanding nurse?

Last Answer : Compassion and a cheerful and drama free personality. They care, and they’re patient, no matter how difficult their day is, you will never know it. A great nurse knows to quit if they burn out and start hating their job.

Which website is good for medical information?

Description : Which website is good for medical information?

Last Answer : I have gotten a lot of useful infor off WebMD.com.

Is pediatric nursing a good job?

Description : Is pediatric nursing a good job?

Last Answer : We had only one nurse on here and she is not active any more. I know that all kinds of nurses are in high demand; so I would think there are plenty of jobs for pediatric nurses. The question ... can handle the emotions. Why don't you see how you feel after you do the pediatric clinical rotation?