If a person has been exposed to radiation, presenting symptoms, such as nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, diarrhea, or fatigue can be expected to occur within _______ hours after exposure? a) 48 to 72 The prodromal phase (presenting symptoms) of radiation exposure occurs within 48 to 72 hours after exposure. Signs and symptoms include nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, diarrhea, and fatigue. With high-dose radiation exposure, the signs and symptoms may include fever, respiratory distress, and increased excitability.

If a person has been exposed to radiation, presenting
symptoms, such as nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, diarrhea, or
fatigue can be expected to occur within _______ hours after
exposure?
a) 48 to 72
The prodromal phase (presenting symptoms) of radiation exposure
occurs within 48 to 72 hours after exposure. Signs and symptoms
include nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, diarrhea, and fatigue. With
high-dose radiation exposure, the signs and symptoms may include
fever, respiratory distress, and increased excitability.
b) 6 to 12
The prodromal phase (presenting symptoms) of radiation exposure
occurs within 48 to 72 hours after exposure.
c) 12 to 24
The prodromal phase (presenting symptoms) of radiation exposure
occurs within 48 to 72 hours after exposure.
d) 24 to 48
The prodromal phase (presenting symptoms) of radiation exposure
occurs within 48 to 72 hours after exposure.
by

1 Answer

Answer :

a) 48 to 72
The prodromal phase (presenting symptoms) of radiation exposure
occurs within 48 to 72 hours after exposure. Signs and symptoms
include nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, diarrhea, and fatigue. With
high-dose radiation exposure, the signs and symptoms may include
fever, respiratory distress, and increased excitability.
by

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During which stage or phase of bone healing after fracture is devitalized tissue removed and new bone reorganized into its former structural arrangement? a) Remodeling Remodeling is the final stage of fracture repair. b) Inflammation During inflammation, macrophages invade and debride the fracture area. c) Revascularization Revascularization occurs within about 5 days after the fracture. d) Reparative Callus formation occurs during the reparative stage but is disrupted by excessive motion at the fracture site.

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For individuals known to be dying by virtue of age and/or diagnoses, which of the following signs indicate approaching death: a) Increased restlessness As the oxygen supply to the brain decreases, the patient may become restless. b) Increased wakefulness As the body weakens, the patient will sleep more and begin to detach from the environment. c) Increased eating For many patients, refusal of food is an indication that they are ready to die. d) Increased urinary output Based upon decreased intake, urinary output generally decreases in amount and frequency.

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Decrease in absorption of which of the following vitamins in the geriatric patient results in pernicious anemia? a) B12 Vitamin B12 requires the intrinsic factor secreted by the gastric mucosa for absorption. b) C Lack of vitamin C may cause development of signs and symptoms of scurvy. c) D Vitamin D deficiency results in an inability to absorb calcium. d) B6 Vitamin B6 affects neuromuscular function.

Description : Decrease in absorption of which of the following vitamins in the geriatric patient results in pernicious anemia? a) B12 Vitamin B12 requires the intrinsic factor secreted by the gastric mucosa for ... results in an inability to absorb calcium. d) B6 Vitamin B6 affects neuromuscular function.

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Halitosis and a sour taste in the mouth are signs and symptoms associated most directly with a) esophageal diverticula. Because the diverticula may retain decomposed food, halitosis and a sour taste in the mouth are frequent complaints. b) achalasia. Achalasia presents as difficulty in swallowing both liquids and solids. c) gastroesophageal reflux. Gastroesophageal reflux presents as burning in the esophagus, indigestion, and difficulty in or pain upon swallowing. d) hiatal hernia. Hiatal hernia presents as heartburn, regurgitation, and dysphagia in many patients while at least 50% are asymptomatic.

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A post-traumatic seizure classified as early occurs a) within 1-7 days of injury. Posttraumatic seizures are classified as immediate (occurring within 24 hours of injury), early, (occurring within 1-7 days of injury) or late, occurring more than 7 days following injury.

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Last Answer : a) 60-80% Patients who survived the polio epidemic of the 1950s, many now elderly, are developing new symptoms of weakness, fatigue and musculoskeletal pain. It is estimated that between 60% and 80% of the 640,000 polio survivors are experiencing the phenomenon known as post-polio syndrome.

How effective will Unani treatment be for nightmares , weakness of body , loss of appetite , nausea , irritable mood ?

Description : How effective will Unani treatment be for nightmares , weakness of body , loss of appetite , nausea , irritable mood ?

Last Answer : Yes, if you take Hamdard medicine, then you have to take it regularly for 2/3 months, then you will get rid of the problem. In fact, Unani medicine works slowly. However, there are no ... . Due to which you are facing this problem. So skip masturbation first. Take treatment and stay healthy.

Lifestyle risk factors for osteoporosis include a) lack of exposure to sunshine. Lifestyle risk factors for osteoporosis include lack of exposure to sunshine, low calcium and vitamin D diet, cigarette smoking, use of alcohol and/or caffeine, and lack of weight-bearing exercise.

Description : Lifestyle risk factors for osteoporosis include a) lack of exposure to sunshine. Lifestyle risk factors for osteoporosis include lack of exposure to sunshine, low calcium and vitamin D diet, ... of osteoporosis, low initial bone mass, and contributing co-existing medical conditions and medications.

Last Answer : a) lack of exposure to sunshine. Lifestyle risk factors for osteoporosis include lack of exposure to sunshine, low calcium and vitamin D diet, cigarette smoking, use of alcohol and/or caffeine, and lack of weight-bearing exercise.

Which of the following terms refers to a form of white blood cell involved in immune response? a) Lymphocyte Both B and T lymphocytes respond to exposure to antigens. b) Granulocyte Granulocytes include basophils, neutrophils, and eosinophils. c) Spherocyte A spherocyte is a red blood cell without central pallor, seen with hemolysis. d) Thrombocyte A thombocyte is a platelet.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to a form of white blood cell involved in immune response? a) Lymphocyte Both B and T lymphocytes respond to exposure to antigens. b) Granulocyte Granulocytes ... blood cell without central pallor, seen with hemolysis. d) Thrombocyte A thombocyte is a platelet.

Last Answer : a) Lymphocyte Both B and T lymphocytes respond to exposure to antigens.

In which stage of COPD is the forced expiratory volume (FEV1) < 30%? a) III Stage III patients demonstrate FEV1 < 30% with respiratory failure or clinical signs of right heart failure b) II Stage II patients demonstrate FEV1 between > 30% and 80% c) I Stage I is mild COPD with FEV1 < 70%. d) O Stage O is characterized by normal spirometry

Description : In which stage of COPD is the forced expiratory volume (FEV1) < 30%? a) III Stage III patients demonstrate FEV1 < 30% with respiratory failure or clinical signs of right heart failure b) II Stage II ... I Stage I is mild COPD with FEV1 < 70%. d) O Stage O is characterized by normal spirometry

Last Answer : a) III Stage III patients demonstrate FEV1 < 30% with respiratory failure or clinical signs of right heart failure

When the nurse notes that the post cardiac surgery patient demonstrates low urine output (< 25 ml/hr) with high specific gravity (> 1.025), the nurse suspects: a) Inadequate fluid volume Urine output of less than 25 ml/hr may indicate a decrease in cardiac output. A high specific gravity indicates increased concentration of solutes in the urine which occurs with inadequate fluid volume. b) Normal glomerular filtration Indices of normal glomerular filtration are output of 25 ml or greater per hour and specific gravity between 1.010 and 1.025. c) Overhydration Overhydration is manifested by high urine output with low specific gravity. d) Anuria The anuric patient does not produce urine.

Description : When the nurse notes that the post cardiac surgery patient demonstrates low urine output (< 25 ml/hr) with high specific gravity (> 1.025), the nurse suspects: a) Inadequate fluid volume Urine ... by high urine output with low specific gravity. d) Anuria The anuric patient does not produce urine.

Last Answer : a) Inadequate fluid volume Urine output of less than 25 ml/hr may indicate a decrease in cardiac output. A high specific gravity indicates increased concentration of solutes in the urine which occurs with inadequate fluid volume.

When the nurse observes the patient’s urine to be orange, she further assesses the patient for a) intake of medication such as phenytoin (Dilantin). Urine that is orange may be caused by intake of Dilantin or other medications. Orange to amber colored urine may also indicate concentrated urine due to dehydration or fever.

Description : When the nurse observes the patient's urine to be orange, she further assesses the patient for a) intake of medication such as phenytoin (Dilantin). Urine that is orange may be caused by intake ... white urine may indicate infection, pyruria, or in the female patient, the use of vaginal creams.

Last Answer : a) intake of medication such as phenytoin (Dilantin). Urine that is orange may be caused by intake of Dilantin or other medications. Orange to amber colored urine may also indicate concentrated urine due to dehydration or fever.