During a disaster, the nurse sees a victim with a green triage tag. The nurse knows that the person has a) injuries that are minor and treatment can be delayed hours to days. A green triage tag (priority 3 or minimal) indicates injuries that are minor and treatment can be delayed hours to days.

During a disaster, the nurse sees a victim with a green triage
tag. The nurse knows that the person has
a) injuries that are minor and treatment can be delayed hours to days.
A green triage tag (priority 3 or minimal) indicates injuries that are
minor and treatment can be delayed hours to days.
b) injuries that are life-threatening but survivable with minimal
intervention.
A red triage tag (priority 1 or immediate) indicates injuries that are
life-threatening but survivable with minimal intervention.
c) injuries that are significant and require medical care, but can wait
hours without threat to life or limb.
A yellow triage tag (priority 2 or delayed) indicates injuries that are
significant and require medical care, but can wait hours without threat
to life or limb.
d) indicates injuries that are extensive and chances of survival are
unlikely even with definitive care.
A black triage tag (priority 4 or expectant) indicates injuries that are
extensive and chances of survival are unlikely even with definitive
care.
by

1 Answer

Answer :

a) injuries that are minor and treatment can be delayed hours to days.
A green triage tag (priority 3 or minimal) indicates injuries that are
minor and treatment can be delayed hours to days.
by

Related questions

The nurse assesses the dressing of a patient with a basal skull fracture and sees the halo sign - a blood stain surrounded by a yellowish stain. The nurse knows that this sign a) is highly suggestive of a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak. The halo sign - a blood stain surrounded by a yellowish stain is highly suggestive of a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak.

Description : The nurse assesses the dressing of a patient with a basal skull fracture and sees the halo sign - a blood stain surrounded by a yellowish stain. The nurse knows that this sign a) is highly ... following a basal skull fracture. The halo sign is highly suggestive of a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak.

Last Answer : a) is highly suggestive of a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak. The halo sign - a blood stain surrounded by a yellowish stain is highly suggestive of a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak.

When the nurse reviews the physician’s progress notes for the patient who has sustained a head injury and sees that the physician observed Battle’s sign when the patient was in the Emergency Department, the nurse knows that the physician observed a) an area of bruising over the mastoid bone. Battle’s sign may indicate skull fracture.

Description : When the nurse reviews the physician's progress notes for the patient who has sustained a head injury and sees that the physician observed Battle's sign when the patient was in the Emergency Department, the ... CSF) from the patient's nose. Escape of CSF from the patient's nose is termed rhinorrhea.

Last Answer : a) an area of bruising over the mastoid bone. Battle’s sign may indicate skull fracture.

When the patient has been field triaged and categorized as blue, the nurse recognizes that the patient requires a) fast-track or psychological support. When a patient is categorized as blue, field triage has identified fasttrack or psychological support needs.

Description : When the patient has been field triaged and categorized as blue, the nurse recognizes that the patient requires a) fast-track or psychological support. When a patient is categorized as blue, field ... . d) urgent care. Field triaged patients who require urgent care will be categorized as green.

Last Answer : a) fast-track or psychological support. When a patient is categorized as blue, field triage has identified fasttrack or psychological support needs.

The Emergency Department nurse teaches patients with sports injuries to remember the acronym RICE, which stands for which of the following combinations of treatment? a) Rest, ice, compression, elevation RICE is used for the treatment of contusions, sprains, and strains.

Description : The Emergency Department nurse teaches patients with sports injuries to remember the acronym RICE, which stands for which of the following combinations of treatment? a) Rest, ice, compression ... contraindicated when injury is suspected, and examination, while indicated, does not provide treatment.

Last Answer : a) Rest, ice, compression, elevation RICE is used for the treatment of contusions, sprains, and strains.

The nurse advises the patient undergoing photodynamic therapy (PDT) for macular degeneration to avoid exposure to direct sunlight or bright lights for a) the first five days after the procedure. Photodynamic therapy includes the use of verteporfin, a light-activated dye. The dye within the blood vessels near the surface of the skin could become activated with exposure to strong light, such as sunlight or bright lights. Ordinary indoor light is not a problem. The patient should be counseled to wear protective clothing, such as long-sleeved shirts, sunglasses, and wide-brimmed hats, if the patient has to go outdoors during daylight hours in the first five days post-treatment. Inadvertent sunlight exposure can lead to severe blistering of the skin and sunburn.

Description : The nurse advises the patient undergoing photodynamic therapy (PDT) for macular degeneration to avoid exposure to direct sunlight or bright lights for a) the first five days after the procedure. ... should avoid exposure to direct sunlight or bright lights for the first five days post-treatment.

Last Answer : a) the first five days after the procedure. Photodynamic therapy includes the use of verteporfin, a light-activated dye. The dye within the blood vessels near the surface of the skin could ... days post-treatment. Inadvertent sunlight exposure can lead to severe blistering of the skin and sunburn.

Which of the following factors are associated with increased fluid requirements in the management of patients with burn injury? a) Inhalation injuries Factors associated with increased fluid requirements include inhalation injuries, delayed resuscitation, scald burn injuries, high-voltage electrical injuries, hyperglycemia, alcohol intoxification and chronic diuretic therapy.

Description : Which of the following factors are associated with increased fluid requirements in the management of patients with burn injury? a) Inhalation injuries Factors associated with increased fluid ... fluid requirements. d) Hypoglycemia Hypoglycemia is not associated with increased fluid requirements.

Last Answer : a) Inhalation injuries Factors associated with increased fluid requirements include inhalation injuries, delayed resuscitation, scald burn injuries, high-voltage electrical injuries, hyperglycemia, alcohol intoxification and chronic diuretic therapy.

The term given to the category of triage that refers to lifethreatening or potentially life-threatening injury or illness requiring immediate treatment is a) emergent. The patient triaged as emergent must be seen immediately.

Description : The term given to the category of triage that refers to lifethreatening or potentially life-threatening injury or illness requiring immediate treatment is a) emergent. The patient triaged as emergent ... . The triage category of immediate refers to non-acute, non-lifethreatening injury or illness.

Last Answer : a) emergent. The patient triaged as emergent must be seen immediately.

When the patient tells the nurse that his vision is 20/200, and asks what that means, the nurse informs the patient that a person with 20/200 vision a) sees an object from 20 feet away that a person with normal vision sees from 200 feet away. The fraction 20/20 is considered the standard of normal vision.

Description : When the patient tells the nurse that his vision is 20/200, and asks what that means, the nurse informs the patient that a person with 20/200 vision a) sees an object from 20 feet away that a person ... 20/20 line, the person of normal vision will be standing at a distance of 20 feet from the chart.

Last Answer : a) sees an object from 20 feet away that a person with normal vision sees from 200 feet away. The fraction 20/20 is considered the standard of normal vision.

When the patient with known angina pectoris complains that he is experiencing chest pain more frequently even at rest, the period of pain is longer, and it takes less stress for the pain to occur, the nurse recognizes that the patient is describing a) unstable angina. Unstable angina is also called crescendo or pre-infarction angina and indicates the need for a change in treatment.

Description : When the patient with known angina pectoris complains that he is experiencing chest pain more frequently even at rest, the period of pain is longer, and it takes less stress for the ... or refractory angina produces severe, incapacitating chest pain that does not respond to conventional treatment.

Last Answer : a) unstable angina. Unstable angina is also called crescendo or pre-infarction angina and indicates the need for a change in treatment.

Which of the following statements accurately reflects a rule of thumb upon which the nurse may rely in assessing the patient’s fluid balance? a) Minimal intake of 1.5 liters per day If food and fluids are withheld, IV fluids (3L/day) are usually prescribed. b) Minimal urine output of 50 milliliters per hour Minimal urine output may be less than 50 mL/hr. c) Minimal urine output of 10 milliliters per hour Minimal urine output must exceed 10 mL/hr. d) Minimal intake of 2 liters per day Minimal intake, as a rule of thumb, is less than 2 liters per day.

Description : Which of the following statements accurately reflects a rule of thumb upon which the nurse may rely in assessing the patient's fluid balance? a) Minimal intake of 1.5 liters per day If food and fluids are ... 2 liters per day Minimal intake, as a rule of thumb, is less than 2 liters per day.

Last Answer : a) Minimal intake of 1.5 liters per day If food and fluids are withheld, IV fluids (3L/day) are usually prescribed.

Which of the following observations regarding ulcer formation on the patient’s lower extremity indicate to the nurse that the ulcer is a result of venous insufficiency? a) The border of the ulcer is irregular. The border of an ulcer caused by arterial insufficiency is circular. b) The ulcer is very painful to the patient, even though superficial. Superficial venous insufficiency ulcers cause minimal pain. c) The ulcer base is pale to black. The base of a venous insufficiency ulcer shows beefy red to yellow fibrinous color. d) The ulcer is deep, involving the joint space. Venous insufficiency ulcers are usually superficial.

Description : Which of the following observations regarding ulcer formation on the patient's lower extremity indicate to the nurse that the ulcer is a result of venous insufficiency? a) The border of the ... d) The ulcer is deep, involving the joint space. Venous insufficiency ulcers are usually superficial.

Last Answer : a) The border of the ulcer is irregular. The border of an ulcer caused by arterial insufficiency is circular.

The client complained of abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting with abdominal distention. The nurse anticipates which of the following priority management after referring to the surgeon? A. Gastric decompression B. Possible surgery C. Endoscopy D. Rectal tube insertion

Description : The client complained of abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting with abdominal distention. The nurse anticipates which of the following priority management after referring to the surgeon? A. Gastric decompression B. Possible surgery C. Endoscopy D. Rectal tube insertion

Last Answer : A. Gastric decompression

A patient has had neurologic deficits lasting for more than 24 hours, and now the symptoms are resolving. The nurse concludes that the patient has had which type of stroke? a) Reversible ischemic neurologic deficit With a reversible ischemic neurologic deficit, the patient has more pronounced signs and symptoms that last more than 24 hours; symptoms resolve in a matter of days without any permanent neurologic deficit.

Description : A patient has had neurologic deficits lasting for more than 24 hours, and now the symptoms are resolving. The nurse concludes that the patient has had which type of stroke? a) Reversible ... and symptoms have stabilized with no indication of further progression of the hypoxic insult to the brain.

Last Answer : a) Reversible ischemic neurologic deficit With a reversible ischemic neurologic deficit, the patient has more pronounced signs and symptoms that last more than 24 hours; symptoms resolve in a matter of days without any permanent neurologic deficit.

A patient with fungal encephalitis receiving amphotericin B complaints of fever, chills, and body aches. The nurse knows that these symptoms a) may be controlled by the administration of diphenhydramine (Benedryl) and acetaminophen (Tylenol) approximately 30 minutes prior to administration of the amphotericin. Administration of amphotericin B may cause fever, chills and body aches. The administration of diphenhydramine (Benedryl) and acetaminophen (Tylenol) approximately 30 minutes prior to the administration of amphotericin B may prevent these side effects.

Description : A patient with fungal encephalitis receiving amphotericin B complaints of fever, chills, and body aches. The nurse knows that these symptoms a) may be controlled by the administration of ... and cerebral spinal fluid (CSF) cultures. Blood and CSF cultures help diagnosis fungal encephalitis.

Last Answer : a) may be controlled by the administration of diphenhydramine (Benedryl) and acetaminophen (Tylenol) approximately 30 minutes prior to administration of the amphotericin. Administration of amphotericin B ... 30 minutes prior to the administration of amphotericin B may prevent these side effects.

A patient who has had a previous stroke and is taking warfarin tells the nurse that he started taking garlic to help reduce his blood pressure. The nurse knows that garlic when taken together with warfarin a) can greatly increase the international normalization ratio (INR) and therefore increase the risk of bleeding. Garlic and warfarin taken together can greatly increase the INR, increasing the risk of bleeding.

Description : A patient who has had a previous stroke and is taking warfarin tells the nurse that he started taking garlic to help reduce his blood pressure. The nurse knows that garlic when taken ... headaches. Garlic and warfarin taken together can greatly increase the INR, increasing the risk of bleeding.

Last Answer : a) can greatly increase the international normalization ratio (INR) and therefore increase the risk of bleeding. Garlic and warfarin taken together can greatly increase the INR, increasing the risk of bleeding.

The nurse knows that a postoperative vision-threatening complication of LASIK refractive surgery, diffuse lamellar keratitis (DLK) occurs a) in the first week after surgery. DLK is a peculiar, non-infectious, inflammatory reaction in the lamellar interface after LASIK. It is characterized by a white granular, diffuse culture-negative lamellar keratitis occurring in the first week after surgery. Studies suggest that since no single agent appears to be solely the cause of DLK, a multifactorial etiology is likely.

Description : The nurse knows that a postoperative vision-threatening complication of LASIK refractive surgery, diffuse lamellar keratitis (DLK) occurs a) in the first week after surgery. DLK is a peculiar, non-infectious, ... after surgery. d) 6 months after surgery. DLK occurs in the first week after surgery.

Last Answer : a) in the first week after surgery. DLK is a peculiar, non-infectious, inflammatory reaction in the lamellar interface after LASIK. It is characterized by a white granular, diffuse culture-negative ... no single agent appears to be solely the cause of DLK, a multifactorial etiology is likely.

The nurse reading the physician’s report of an elderly patient’s physical examination knows a notation that the patient demonstrates xanthelasma refers to a) yellowish waxy deposits on upper eyelids. The change is a common, benign manifestation of aging skin or it can sometimes signal hyperlipidemia.

Description : The nurse reading the physician's report of an elderly patient's physical examination knows a notation that the patient demonstrates xanthelasma refers to a) yellowish waxy deposits on upper eyelids. The change is ... red moles. Cherry angioma is the term that is used to describe a bright red mole.

Last Answer : a) yellowish waxy deposits on upper eyelids. The change is a common, benign manifestation of aging skin or it can sometimes signal hyperlipidemia.

When caring for a patient with an uncomplicated, mild urinary tract infection (UTI), the nurse knows that recent studies have shown which of the following drugs to be a good choice for shortcourse (e.g. 3-day) therapy? a) Levofloxacin (Levaquin) Levofloxacin, a floroquinolone, is a good choice for short-course therapy of uncomplicated, mild to moderate UTI. Clinical trial data show high patient compliance with the 3-day regimen (95.6%) and a high eradication rate for all pathogens (96.4%).

Description : When caring for a patient with an uncomplicated, mild urinary tract infection (UTI), the nurse knows that recent studies have shown which of the following drugs to be a good choice for ... to be significantly more effective than TMP-SMX in community-based patients and in nursing home residents.

Last Answer : a) Levofloxacin (Levaquin) Levofloxacin, a floroquinolone, is a good choice for short-course therapy of uncomplicated, mild to moderate UTI. Clinical trial data show high patient compliance with the 3-day regimen (95.6%) and a high eradication rate for all pathogens (96.4%).

82. The OR nurse knows that the correct way to count sponge is

Description : 82. The OR nurse knows that the correct way to count sponge is

Last Answer : D. Scrub nurse and circulating nurse count singly, audibly and concurrently

When assisting the patient to interpret a negative HIV test result, the nurse informs the patient that the results mean a) his body has not produced antibodies to the AIDS virus. A negative test result indicates that antibodies to the AIDS virus are not present in the blood at the time the blood sample for the test is drawn.

Description : When assisting the patient to interpret a negative HIV test result, the nurse informs the patient that the results mean a) his body has not produced antibodies to the AIDS virus. A negative test ... When antibodies to the AIDS virus are detected in the blood, the test is interpreted as positive.

Last Answer : a) his body has not produced antibodies to the AIDS virus. A negative test result indicates that antibodies to the AIDS virus are not present in the blood at the time the blood sample for the test is drawn.

When the nurse administers intravenous gamma-globulin infusion, she recognizes that which of the following complaints, if reported by the patient, may indicate an adverse effect of the infusion? a) Tightness in the chest Flank pain, tightness in the chest, or hypotension indicates adverse effects of gamma-globulin infusion.

Description : When the nurse administers intravenous gamma-globulin infusion, she recognizes that which of the following complaints, if reported by the patient, may indicate an adverse effect of the infusion? a) ... urination is a sign of urinary tract infection, not an adverse effect of gamma-globulin infusion.

Last Answer : a) Tightness in the chest Flank pain, tightness in the chest, or hypotension indicates adverse effects of gamma-globulin infusion.

When the results of a Pap smear are reported as class 5, the nurse recognizes that the common interpretation is a) malignant. A class 5 Pap smear, according to the Bethesda Classification, indicates squamous cell carcinoma. b) normal. A class 1 Pap smear is interpreted as normal. c) probably normal. A class 2 Pap smear is interpreted as probably normal. d) suspicious. A class 3 Pap smear is interpreted as suspicious.

Description : When the results of a Pap smear are reported as class 5, the nurse recognizes that the common interpretation is a) malignant. A class 5 Pap smear, according to the Bethesda Classification, ... is interpreted as probably normal. d) suspicious. A class 3 Pap smear is interpreted as suspicious.

Last Answer : a) malignant. A class 5 Pap smear, according to the Bethesda Classification, indicates squamous cell carcinoma.

When the nurse notes that the post cardiac surgery patient demonstrates low urine output (< 25 ml/hr) with high specific gravity (> 1.025), the nurse suspects: a) Inadequate fluid volume Urine output of less than 25 ml/hr may indicate a decrease in cardiac output. A high specific gravity indicates increased concentration of solutes in the urine which occurs with inadequate fluid volume. b) Normal glomerular filtration Indices of normal glomerular filtration are output of 25 ml or greater per hour and specific gravity between 1.010 and 1.025. c) Overhydration Overhydration is manifested by high urine output with low specific gravity. d) Anuria The anuric patient does not produce urine.

Description : When the nurse notes that the post cardiac surgery patient demonstrates low urine output (< 25 ml/hr) with high specific gravity (> 1.025), the nurse suspects: a) Inadequate fluid volume Urine ... by high urine output with low specific gravity. d) Anuria The anuric patient does not produce urine.

Last Answer : a) Inadequate fluid volume Urine output of less than 25 ml/hr may indicate a decrease in cardiac output. A high specific gravity indicates increased concentration of solutes in the urine which occurs with inadequate fluid volume.

Which of the following terms refers to injuries that occur when a person is caught between objects, run over by a moving vehicle, or compressed by machinery? a) Crush injuries Crush injuries are those that occur when a person is caught between objects, run over by a moving vehicle, or compressed by machinery.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to injuries that occur when a person is caught between objects, run over by a moving vehicle, or compressed by machinery? a) Crush injuries Crush ... wounds. d) Intra-abdominal injuries Intra-abdominal injuries are categorized as penetrating and blunt trauma.

Last Answer : a) Crush injuries Crush injuries are those that occur when a person is caught between objects, run over by a moving vehicle, or compressed by machinery.

The nurse recognizes that the patient with a duodenal ulcer will likely experience a) pain 2-3 hours after a meal. The patient with a gastric ulcer often awakens between 1-2 A.M. with pain and ingestion of food brings relief. b) vomiting. Vomiting is uncommon in the patient with duodenal ulcer. c) hemorrhage. Hemorrhage is less likely in the patient with duodenal ulcer than the patient with gastric ulcer. d) weight loss. The patient with a duodenal ulcer may experience weight gain.

Description : The nurse recognizes that the patient with a duodenal ulcer will likely experience a) pain 2-3 hours after a meal. The patient with a gastric ulcer often awakens between 1-2 A.M. with pain ... patient with gastric ulcer. d) weight loss. The patient with a duodenal ulcer may experience weight gain.

Last Answer : a) pain 2-3 hours after a meal. The patient with a gastric ulcer often awakens between 1-2 A.M. with pain and ingestion of food brings relief.

If tube feeding is continuous, the placement of the feeding tube should be checked a) every shift. Each nurse caring for the patient is responsible for verifying that the tube is located in the proper area for continuous feeding. b) every hour. Checking for placement each hour is unnecessary unless the patient is extremely restless or there is basis for rechecking the tube based on other patient activities. c) every 24 hours. Checking for placement every 24 hours does not meet the standard of care due the patient receiving continuous tube feedings. d) when a tube feeding is continuous, it is unnecessary to check placement. Even though the feedings are continuous, the placement must be assessed.

Description : If tube feeding is continuous, the placement of the feeding tube should be checked a) every shift. Each nurse caring for the patient is responsible for verifying that the tube is located ... is unnecessary to check placement. Even though the feedings are continuous, the placement must be assessed.

Last Answer : a) every shift. Each nurse caring for the patient is responsible for verifying that the tube is located in the proper area for continuous feeding.

When the nurse prepares to give a bolus tube feeding to the patient and determines that the residual gastric content is 150 cc, her best action is to a) reassess the residual gastric content in 1 hour. If the gastric residual exceeds 100 cc 2 hours in a row, the physician should be notified.

Description : When the nurse prepares to give a bolus tube feeding to the patient and determines that the residual gastric content is 150 cc, her best action is to a) reassess the residual gastric content in ... residual exceeds 100 cc, the tube feeding should be withheld at that time, but not indefinitely.

Last Answer : a) reassess the residual gastric content in 1 hour. If the gastric residual exceeds 100 cc 2 hours in a row, the physician should be notified.

The nurse teaches the patient with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) which of the following measures to manage his disease? a) Avoid eating or drinking 2 hours before bedtime. The patient should not recline with a full stomach. b) Minimize intake of caffeine, ****, milk, and foods containing peppermint and spearmint. The patient should be instructed to avoid the listed foods and food components. c) Elevate the foot of the bed on 6- to 8-inch blocks The patient should be instructed to elevate the head of the bed on 6- to 8-inch blocks. d) Eat a low carbohydrate diet The patient is instructed to eat a low-fat diet

Description : The nurse teaches the patient with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) which of the following measures to manage his disease? a) Avoid eating or drinking 2 hours before bedtime. The patient should not ... blocks. d) Eat a low carbohydrate diet The patient is instructed to eat a low-fat diet

Last Answer : a) Avoid eating or drinking 2 hours before bedtime. The patient should not recline with a full stomach.

Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the nurse to take when the patient demonstrates subcutaneous emphysema along the suture line or chest dressing 2 hours after chest surgery? a) Record the observation. Subcutaneous emphysema occurs after chest surgery as the air that is located within the pleural cavity is expelled through the tissue opening created by the surgical procedure.

Description : Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the nurse to take when the patient demonstrates subcutaneous emphysema along the suture line or chest dressing 2 hours after chest ... finding to the physician immediately. Subcutaneous emphysema results from air entering the tissue planes.

Last Answer : a) Record the observation. Subcutaneous emphysema occurs after chest surgery as the air that is located within the pleural cavity is expelled through the tissue opening created by the surgical procedure.

When the indication for surgery is without delay, the nurse recognizes that the surgery will be classified as a) emergency. Emergency surgery means that the patient requires immediate attention and the disorder may be life-threatening. b) urgent. Urgent surgery means that the patient requires prompt attention within 24-30 hours. c) required. Required surgery means that the patient needs to have surgery, and it should be planned within a few weeks or months. d) elective. Elective surgery means that there is an indication for surgery, but failure to have surgery will not be catastrophic.

Description : When the indication for surgery is without delay, the nurse recognizes that the surgery will be classified as a) emergency. Emergency surgery means that the patient requires immediate attention and the ... there is an indication for surgery, but failure to have surgery will not be catastrophic.

Last Answer : a) emergency. Emergency surgery means that the patient requires immediate attention and the disorder may be life-threatening.

89. A nurse has to attend a committee meeting for two hours. She delegates her work to another nurse. What primary consideration should be observed?

Description : 89. A nurse has to attend a committee meeting for two hours. She delegates her work to another nurse. What primary consideration should be observed?

Last Answer : D. Competency to perform the given function

54. Albert is prescribed NSAID every four hours to relieve, fever, inflammation, and pericardial pain. To maximize the effect of the drug, the nurse would administer it

Description : 54. Albert is prescribed NSAID every four hours to relieve, fever, inflammation, and pericardial pain. To maximize the effect of the drug, the nurse would administer it

Last Answer : C. Round the clock on a consistent basis

The charge nurse reported to the chief nurse that the Demerol 50 cc vial inventory has been incorrect for the last 24 hours. The most appropriate action of the narcotic nurse is: A. Log every injection of Demerol B. Make fraction dosage like 0.5 ml as 1 ml C. Demerol inventory must be checked every endorsement by the narcotic nurse D. Review endorsement of clients who received Demerol within the last 24 hours

Description : The charge nurse reported to the chief nurse that the Demerol 50 cc vial inventory has been incorrect for the last 24 hours. The most appropriate action of the narcotic nurse is: A. Log ... by the narcotic nurse D. Review endorsement of clients who received Demerol within the last 24 hours

Last Answer : D. Review endorsement of clients who received Demerol within the last 24 hours

41. For a client complaining of mild musculoskeletal pain, the nurse will anticipate that the treatment for this client’s level of discomfort will include which of the following?

Description : 41. For a client complaining of mild musculoskeletal pain, the nurse will anticipate that the treatment for this client’s level of discomfort will include which of the following?

Last Answer : B. Acetaminophen

72. The client is to have surgery in 10 days. Lugol’s solution 4 gtts po was prescribed in 10 days. The client asked the nurse for the purpose of the drug. Which response of the nurse is correct?

Description : 72. The client is to have surgery in 10 days. Lugol’s solution 4 gtts po was prescribed in 10 days. The client asked the nurse for the purpose of the drug. Which response of the nurse is correct?

Last Answer : A. It decreases the risk of bleeding

The leading health problems of elementary school children include a) Cancer. The leading health problems of elementary school children are injuries, infections, malnutrition, dental disease, and cancer. b) Alcohol and drug abuse. Alcohol and drug abuse are leading health problems for high school students. c) Mental and emotional problems. Mental and emotional problems are leading health problems for high school students. d) Homicide. Homicide is a leading health problem for high school children.

Description : The leading health problems of elementary school children include a) Cancer. The leading health problems of elementary school children are injuries, infections, malnutrition, dental disease, and cancer. ... school students. d) Homicide. Homicide is a leading health problem for high school children.

Last Answer : a) Cancer. The leading health problems of elementary school children are injuries, infections, malnutrition, dental disease, and cancer.

Which of the following statements describes the clinical manifestations of a delayed hypersensitivity (type IV) allergic reaction to latex? a) Signs and symptoms are localized to the area of exposure, usually the back of the hands. Clinical manifestations of a delayed hypersensitivity reaction are localized to the area of exposure.

Description : Which of the following statements describes the clinical manifestations of a delayed hypersensitivity (type IV) allergic reaction to latex? a) Signs and symptoms are localized to the area of ... minutes after exposure to latex, an immediate hypersensitivity (type I) allergic reaction has occurred.

Last Answer : a) Signs and symptoms are localized to the area of exposure, usually the back of the hands. Clinical manifestations of a delayed hypersensitivity reaction are localized to the area of exposure.

When up to a 6-month period elapses between the experience of trauma and the onset of symptoms of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD), the episode is termed a) delayed. In the case of delayed PTSD, there may be up to a 6-month period of time that elapses between the trauma and the manifestation of symptoms. b) acute. Acute PTSD is defined as the experience of symptoms for less than a 3-month period. c) chronic. Chronic PTSD is defined as the experience of symptoms lasting longer than 3 months. d) primary. The concept of primary disease is not used in relation to PTSD.

Description : When up to a 6-month period elapses between the experience of trauma and the onset of symptoms of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD), the episode is termed a) delayed. In the case of delayed PTSD, there ... than 3 months. d) primary. The concept of primary disease is not used in relation to PTSD.

Last Answer : a) delayed. In the case of delayed PTSD, there may be up to a 6-month period of time that elapses between the trauma and the manifestation of symptoms.

59. Priority discharge plans should include which of the following?

Description : 59. Priority discharge plans should include which of the following?

Last Answer : D. 1 and 2

Which of the following statements reflects the nursing management of the patient with West Nile Virus infection? There is no treatment for West Nile Virus infection. Patients are supported by fluid replacement, airway management, and standard nursing care support during the time that the patient has meningitis symptoms. a) The incubation period is three to five days. The incubation period (from mosquito bite until onset of symptoms) is between 5–15 days.

Description : Which of the following statements reflects the nursing management of the patient with West Nile Virus infection? There is no treatment for West Nile Virus infection. Patients are supported by fluid replacement ... the virus to animals and humans. There is no human-to-human transmission of virus.

Last Answer : a) The incubation period is three to five days. The incubation period (from mosquito bite until onset of symptoms) is between 5–15 days.

When caring for a patient receiving autolytic debridement therapy, the nurse a) advises the patient about the foul odor that will occur during therapy. During autolytic debridement therapy a foul odor will be produced by the breakdown of cellular debris. This odor does not indicate that the wound is infected.

Description : When caring for a patient receiving autolytic debridement therapy, the nurse a) advises the patient about the foul odor that will occur during therapy. During autolytic debridement ... Pancrease. Commercially available enzymatic debriding agents include Accuzyme, Clooagenase, Granulex, and Zymase.

Last Answer : a) advises the patient about the foul odor that will occur during therapy. During autolytic debridement therapy a foul odor will be produced by the breakdown of cellular debris. This odor does not indicate that the wound is infected.

When the nurse auscultates chest sounds that are harsh and cracking, sounding like two pieces of leather being rubbed together, she records her finding as a) pleural friction rub. A pleural friction rub is heard secondary to inflammation and loss of lubricating pleural fluid. b) crackles. Crackles are soft, high-pitched, discontinuous popping sounds that occur during inspiration. c) sonorous wheezes. Sonorous wheezes are deep, low-pitched rumbling sounds heard primarily during expiration. d) sibilant wheezes. Sibilant wheezes are continuous, musical, high-pitched, whistle-like sounds heard during inspiration and expiration.

Description : When the nurse auscultates chest sounds that are harsh and cracking, sounding like two pieces of leather being rubbed together, she records her finding as a) pleural friction rub. A ... wheezes are continuous, musical, high-pitched, whistle-like sounds heard during inspiration and expiration.

Last Answer : a) pleural friction rub. A pleural friction rub is heard secondary to inflammation and loss of lubricating pleural fluid.

During which step of the nursing process does the nurse analyze data related to the patient’s health status? a) Assessment Analysis of data is included as part of the assessment. b) Implementation Implementation is the actualization of the plan of care through nursing interventions. c) Diagnosis Diagnosis is the identification of patient problems. d) Evaluation Evaluation is the determination of the patient’s responses to the nursing interventions and the extent to which the outcomes have been achieved.

Description : During which step of the nursing process does the nurse analyze data related to the patient's health status? a) Assessment Analysis of data is included as part of the assessment. b) ... patient's responses to the nursing interventions and the extent to which the outcomes have been achieved.

Last Answer : a) Assessment Analysis of data is included as part of the assessment.

81. The scrub and circulating nurse should perform sponge count during which phases of an abdominal hysterectomy procedure? 1. Before the procedure 2. Before closing the endometrium 3. Before closing the peritoneum 4. At the skin closure 5. When the scrub nurse goes for a lunch break

Description : 81. The scrub and circulating nurse should perform sponge count during which phases of an abdominal hysterectomy procedure? 1. Before the procedure 2. Before closing the endometrium 3. Before closing the peritoneum 4. At the skin closure 5. When the scrub nurse goes for a lunch break

Last Answer : A. All except 5

Before the nurse can develop a relevant care plan, the nurse understands that in post-laryngectomy, the trachea and the esophagus are permanently separated. Therefore, which of the following will the nurse expect? A. No risk of aspiration during swallowing; speech is lost B. Normal speaking, breathing and swallowing are restored C. Unable to communicate with difficulty of swallowing and breathing D. Permanent tracheostomy created; normal speech is lost

Description : Before the nurse can develop a relevant care plan, the nurse understands that in post-laryngectomy, the trachea and the esophagus are permanently separated. Therefore, which of the ... with difficulty of swallowing and breathing D. Permanent tracheostomy created; normal speech is lost

Last Answer : D. Permanent tracheostomy created; normal speech is lost