67. The physician ordered bilateral lower extremities Doppler ultrasound. Which of the following is the physician interested to find out through this diagnostic test?

67. The physician ordered bilateral lower extremities Doppler
ultrasound. Which of the following is the physician
interested to find out through this diagnostic test?
by

1 Answer

Answer :

C. Occlusion of large vessels and arterioles
by

Related questions

To confirm the diagnosis of cholecystitis, the attending physician ordered a procedure that can detect gallstones as small as 1 – 2 cm and inflammation. The nurse would prepare the client for which specific diagnostic procedure? A. Cholangiography B. Ultrasonography C. Gall bladder series D. Oral cholecystogram

Description : To confirm the diagnosis of cholecystitis, the attending physician ordered a procedure that can detect gallstones as small as 1 - 2 cm and inflammation. The nurse would prepare ... specific diagnostic procedure? A. Cholangiography B. Ultrasonography C. Gall bladder series D. Oral cholecystogram

Last Answer : B. Ultrasonography

30. A T-tube was inserted and the physician ordered, “Monitor the amount, color, consistency and odor of drainage.” Which of the following procedures can the nurse perform without the doctor’s order?

Description : 30. A T-tube was inserted and the physician ordered, “Monitor the amount, color, consistency and odor of drainage.” Which of the following procedures can the nurse perform without the doctor’s order?

Last Answer : D. Emptying the drainage

Which of the following terms refers to a muscular, cramp-like pain in the extremities consistently reproduced with the same degree of exercise and relieved by rest? a) Intermittent claudication Intermittent claudication is a sign of peripheral arterial insufficiency. b) Aneurysm An aneurysm is a localized sac of an artery wall formed at a weak point in the vessel. c) Bruit A bruit is the sound produced by turbulent blood flow through an irregular, tortuous, stenotic, or dilated vessel. d) Ischemia Ischemia is a term used to denote deficient blood supply.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to a muscular, cramp-like pain in the extremities consistently reproduced with the same degree of exercise and relieved by rest? a) Intermittent claudication Intermittent ... or dilated vessel. d) Ischemia Ischemia is a term used to denote deficient blood supply.

Last Answer : a) Intermittent claudication Intermittent claudication is a sign of peripheral arterial insufficiency.

A diagnostic test that involves injection of a contrast media into the venous system through a dorsal vein in the foot is termed a) contrast phlebography. When a thrombus exists, an x-ray image will disclose an unfilled segment of a vein. b) air plethysmography Air plethysmography quantifies venous reflux and calf muscle pump ejection.

Description : A diagnostic test that involves injection of a contrast media into the venous system through a dorsal vein in the foot is termed a) contrast phlebography. When a thrombus exists, an x ... d) lymphoscintigraphy. In lymphoscintigraphy, a radioactive-labeled colloid is injected into the lymph system.

Last Answer : a) contrast phlebography. When a thrombus exists, an x-ray image will disclose an unfilled segment of a vein.

Of the following common problems of the upper extremities, which results from entrapment of the median nerve at the wrist? a) Carpal tunnel syndrome Carpal tunnel syndrome is commonly due to repetitive hand activities.

Description : Of the following common problems of the upper extremities, which results from entrapment of the median nerve at the wrist? a) Carpal tunnel syndrome Carpal tunnel syndrome is commonly due to ... syndrome Impingement syndrome is associated with the shoulder and may progress to a rotator cuff tear.

Last Answer : a) Carpal tunnel syndrome Carpal tunnel syndrome is commonly due to repetitive hand activities.

Which of the following terms is used to describe rapid, jerky, involuntary, purposeless movements of the extremities? a) Chorea Choreiform movements, such as grimacing, may also be observed in the face.

Description : Which of the following terms is used to describe rapid, jerky, involuntary, purposeless movements of the extremities? a) Chorea Choreiform movements, such as grimacing, may also be ... movements. d) Spondylosis Spondylosis refers to degenerative arthritis of the cervical or lumbar vertebrae.

Last Answer : a) Chorea Choreiform movements, such as grimacing, may also be observed in the face.

Which of the following terms refers to enlarged, red, and tender lymph nodes? a) Lymphadenitis Acute lymphadenitis is demonstrated by enlarged, red and tender lymph nodes. b) Lymphangitis Lymphangitis is an acute inflammation of the lymphatic channels. c) Lymphedema Lymphedema is demonstrated by swelling of tissues in the extremities because of an increased quantity of lymph that results from an obstruction of lymphatic vessels. d) Elephantiasis Elephantiasis refers to a condition in which chronic swelling of the extremity recedes only slightly with elevation.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to enlarged, red, and tender lymph nodes? a) Lymphadenitis Acute lymphadenitis is demonstrated by enlarged, red and tender lymph nodes. b) Lymphangitis ... refers to a condition in which chronic swelling of the extremity recedes only slightly with elevation.

Last Answer : a) Lymphadenitis Acute lymphadenitis is demonstrated by enlarged, red and tender lymph nodes.

The nurse teaches the patient with peripheral vascular disease to refrain from smoking because nicotine causes a) vasospasm. Nicotine causes vasospasm and can thereby dramatically reduce circulation to the extremities. b) slowed heart rate. Nicotine has stimulant effects. c) depression of the cough reflex. Nicotine does not suppress cough. Smoking irritates the bronchial tree, causing coughing. d) diuresis. Nicotine does not cause diuresis.

Description : The nurse teaches the patient with peripheral vascular disease to refrain from smoking because nicotine causes a) vasospasm. Nicotine causes vasospasm and can thereby dramatically reduce circulation to the ... the bronchial tree, causing coughing. d) diuresis. Nicotine does not cause diuresis.

Last Answer : a) vasospasm. Nicotine causes vasospasm and can thereby dramatically reduce circulation to the extremities.

To assess circulating oxygen levels the 2001 Kidney Disease Outcomes Quality Initiative: Management of Anemia Guidelines recommends the use of which of the following diagnostic tests? a) Hemoglobin Although hematocrit has always been the blood test of choice to assess for anemia, the 2001 Kidney Disease Outcomes Quality Initiative: Management of Anemia Guidelines, recommend that anemia be quantified using hemoglobin rather than hematocrit measurements, as it is more accurate in assessment of circulating oxygen.

Description : To assess circulating oxygen levels the 2001 Kidney Disease Outcomes Quality Initiative: Management of Anemia Guidelines recommends the use of which of the following diagnostic tests? a) Hemoglobin ... gases Arterial blood gases assess the adequacy of oxygenation, ventilation, and acid-base status.

Last Answer : a) Hemoglobin Although hematocrit has always been the blood test of choice to assess for anemia, the 2001 Kidney Disease Outcomes Quality Initiative: Management of Anemia Guidelines, recommend that ... rather than hematocrit measurements, as it is more accurate in assessment of circulating oxygen.

Which of the following items is considered the single most important factor in assisting the health professional in arriving at a diagnosis or determining the person’s needs? a) History of present illness The history of the present illness is the single most important factor in assisting the health professional in arriving at a diagnosis or determining the person’s needs. b) Physical examination The physical examination is helpful but often only validates the information obtained from the history. c) Diagnostic test results Diagnostic test results can be helpful, but they often only verify rather than establish the diagnosis. d) Biographical data Biographical information puts the health history in context but does not focus the diagnosis.

Description : Which of the following items is considered the single most important factor in assisting the health professional in arriving at a diagnosis or determining the person's needs? a) History of ... data Biographical information puts the health history in context but does not focus the diagnosis.

Last Answer : a) History of present illness The history of the present illness is the single most important factor in assisting the health professional in arriving at a diagnosis or determining the person’s needs.

The patient with cardiac failure is taught to report which of the following symptoms to the physician or clinic immediately? a) Persistent cough Persistent cough may indicate an onset of left-heart failure. b) Increased appetite Loss of appetite should be reported immediately. c) Weight loss Weight gain should be reported immediately. d) Ability to sleep through the night Frequent urination, causing interruption of sleep, should be reported immediately.

Description : The patient with cardiac failure is taught to report which of the following symptoms to the physician or clinic immediately? a) Persistent cough Persistent cough may indicate an onset of ... sleep through the night Frequent urination, causing interruption of sleep, should be reported immediately.

Last Answer : a) Persistent cough Persistent cough may indicate an onset of left-heart failure.

The basic difference between nursing diagnoses and collaborative problems is that a) Nurses manage collaborative problems using physician-prescribed interventions. Collaborative problems are physiologic complications that nurses monitor to detect onset or changes and manage through the use of physician-prescribed and nursing-prescribed interventions to minimize the complications of events.

Description : The basic difference between nursing diagnoses and collaborative problems is that a) Nurses manage collaborative problems using physician-prescribed interventions. Collaborative problems are physiologic ... or potential health problems that can be managed by independent nursing interventions.

Last Answer : a) Nurses manage collaborative problems using physician-prescribed interventions. Collaborative problems are physiologic complications that nurses monitor to detect onset or changes and manage ... physician-prescribed and nursing-prescribed interventions to minimize the complications of events.

Retinoblastoma is the most common eye tumor of childhood; it is hereditary in a) 30-40% of cases. Retinoblastoma can be hereditary or nonhereditary. It is hereditary in 30-40% of cases. All bilateral cases are hereditary.

Description : Retinoblastoma is the most common eye tumor of childhood; it is hereditary in a) 30-40% of cases. Retinoblastoma can be hereditary or nonhereditary. It is hereditary in 30-40% of cases. All bilateral cases are ... 30-40% of cases. d) 50-75% of cases. Retinoblastoma is hereditary in 30-40% of cases.

Last Answer : a) 30-40% of cases. Retinoblastoma can be hereditary or nonhereditary. It is hereditary in 30-40% of cases. All bilateral cases are hereditary.

When providing care to the patient with bilateral nephrostomy tubes, the nurse never does which of the following? a) Clamps each nephrostomy tube when the patient is moved The nurse must never clamp a nephrostomy tube because it could cause obstruction and resultant pyelonephritis.

Description : When providing care to the patient with bilateral nephrostomy tubes, the nurse never does which of the following? a) Clamps each nephrostomy tube when the patient is moved The nurse must never clamp a ... saline q8h as ordered The nurse may irrigate a nephrostomy tube with specific orders to do so.

Last Answer : a) Clamps each nephrostomy tube when the patient is moved The nurse must never clamp a nephrostomy tube because it could cause obstruction and resultant pyelonephritis.

If a case of smallpox is suspected, the nurse should a) Call the CDC Emergency Preparedness Office. Anyone suspecting a case of smallpox should call the CDC Emergency Preparedness Office at 770-488-7100. The CDC will respond by immmediate provision of diagnostic support and eventual release of vaccine if a case is confirmed. Until instructed otherwise by the CDC, healthcare providers should carefully establish isolation with negative pressure, and maintain thorough lists of all those who have contact with the patient.

Description : If a case of smallpox is suspected, the nurse should a) Call the CDC Emergency Preparedness Office. Anyone suspecting a case of smallpox should call the CDC Emergency Preparedness Office ... very different from that of chickenpox. With chickenpox, lesions appear at different developmental stages.

Last Answer : a) Call the CDC Emergency Preparedness Office. Anyone suspecting a case of smallpox should call the CDC Emergency Preparedness Office at 770-488-7100. The CDC will respond by immmediate provision ... with negative pressure, and maintain thorough lists of all those who have contact with the patient.

For women aged 19-39 years, recommended health screening diagnostic testing includes which of the following? a) Pap smear A Pap smear is recommended for women aged 19-39 years, as well as for women aged 40 and older. b) Mammography Mammography is recommended for health screening for women aged 40 years and older. c) Cholesterol and lipid profile Cholesterol and lipid profile is recommended for women aged 40 years and older. d) Bone mineral density testing Bone mineral density testing is recommended for women aged 40 years and older.

Description : For women aged 19-39 years, recommended health screening diagnostic testing includes which of the following? a) Pap smear A Pap smear is recommended for women aged 19-39 years, as well as ... Bone mineral density testing Bone mineral density testing is recommended for women aged 40 years and older.

Last Answer : a) Pap smear A Pap smear is recommended for women aged 19-39 years, as well as for women aged 40 and older.

Which of the following mitral valve conditions generally produces no symptoms? a) Prolapse Mitral valve prolpase is a deformity that usually produces no symptoms and has been diagnosed more frequently in recent years, probably as a result of improved diagnostic methods. b) Stenosis Mitral valve stenosis usually causes progressive fatigue. c) Regurgitation Mitral valve regurgitation, in its acute stage, usually presents as severe heart failure. d) Infection Mitral valve infection, when acute, will produce symptoms typical of infective endocarditis.

Description : Which of the following mitral valve conditions generally produces no symptoms? a) Prolapse Mitral valve prolpase is a deformity that usually produces no symptoms and has been diagnosed more ... ) Infection Mitral valve infection, when acute, will produce symptoms typical of infective endocarditis.

Last Answer : a) Prolapse Mitral valve prolpase is a deformity that usually produces no symptoms and has been diagnosed more frequently in recent years, probably as a result of improved diagnostic methods.

37. When do you carry out the order of the physician?

Description : 37. When do you carry out the order of the physician?

Last Answer : B. When the physician has signed the order

The most common complication after knee arthroscopy is a) joint effusion. Joint effusion produces marked pain, and the physician may need to aspirate the joint to remove fluid and relieve the pressure.

Description : The most common complication after knee arthroscopy is a) joint effusion. Joint effusion produces marked pain, and the physician may need to aspirate the joint to remove fluid and relieve the ... Complaints of the knee locking are associated with functioning of the injured knee prior to arthroscopy.

Last Answer : a) joint effusion. Joint effusion produces marked pain, and the physician may need to aspirate the joint to remove fluid and relieve the pressure.

The nurse anticipates that the physician will perform joint aspiration and wrapping with compression elastic dressing for which of the following musculoskeletal problems? a) Joint effusion The described treatments are used with joint effusions and hemarthrosis.

Description : The nurse anticipates that the physician will perform joint aspiration and wrapping with compression elastic dressing for which of the following musculoskeletal problems? a) Joint effusion The described ... of tissue due to insufficient blood supply and may be associated with steroid use.

Last Answer : a) Joint effusion The described treatments are used with joint effusions and hemarthrosis.

When the nurse reviews the physician’s progress notes for the patient who has sustained a head injury and sees that the physician observed Battle’s sign when the patient was in the Emergency Department, the nurse knows that the physician observed a) an area of bruising over the mastoid bone. Battle’s sign may indicate skull fracture.

Description : When the nurse reviews the physician's progress notes for the patient who has sustained a head injury and sees that the physician observed Battle's sign when the patient was in the Emergency Department, the ... CSF) from the patient's nose. Escape of CSF from the patient's nose is termed rhinorrhea.

Last Answer : a) an area of bruising over the mastoid bone. Battle’s sign may indicate skull fracture.

Before the patient diagnosed with a concussion is released from the Emergency Department, the nurse teaches the family or friends who will be tending to the patient to contact the physician or return to the ED if the patient a) vomits. Vomiting is a sign of increasing intracranial pressure and should be reported immediately.

Description : Before the patient diagnosed with a concussion is released from the Emergency Department, the nurse teaches the family or friends who will be tending to the patient to contact the physician or ... for short periods of time. Difficulty in waking the patient should be reported or treated immediately.

Last Answer : a) vomits. Vomiting is a sign of increasing intracranial pressure and should be reported immediately.

Which of the following observations in the patient who has undergone allograft for treatment of burn site must be reported to the physician immediately? a) Crackles in the lungs Crackles in the lungs may indicate a fluid buildup indicative of congestive heart failure and pulmonary edema.

Description : Which of the following observations in the patient who has undergone allograft for treatment of burn site must be reported to the physician immediately? a) Crackles in the lungs Crackles in the lungs ... pain at the recipient site is anticipated since the wound has been protected by the graft.

Last Answer : a) Crackles in the lungs Crackles in the lungs may indicate a fluid buildup indicative of congestive heart failure and pulmonary edema.

When the nurse prepares to give a bolus tube feeding to the patient and determines that the residual gastric content is 150 cc, her best action is to a) reassess the residual gastric content in 1 hour. If the gastric residual exceeds 100 cc 2 hours in a row, the physician should be notified.

Description : When the nurse prepares to give a bolus tube feeding to the patient and determines that the residual gastric content is 150 cc, her best action is to a) reassess the residual gastric content in ... residual exceeds 100 cc, the tube feeding should be withheld at that time, but not indefinitely.

Last Answer : a) reassess the residual gastric content in 1 hour. If the gastric residual exceeds 100 cc 2 hours in a row, the physician should be notified.

Health education of the patient by the nurse a) Is an independent function of nursing practice. Health education is an independent function of nursing practice and is included in all state nurse practice acts. b) Requires a physician’s order. Teaching, as a function of nursing, is included in all state nurse practice acts. c) Must be approved by the physician. Health education is a primary responsibility of the nursing profession. d) Must focus on wellness issues. Health education by the nurse focuses on promoting, maintaining, and restoring health; preventing illness; and assisting people to adapt to the residual effects of illness.

Description : Health education of the patient by the nurse a) Is an independent function of nursing practice. Health education is an independent function of nursing practice and is included in all state ... restoring health; preventing illness; and assisting people to adapt to the residual effects of illness.

Last Answer : a) Is an independent function of nursing practice. Health education is an independent function of nursing practice and is included in all state nurse practice acts.

39. In case of telephone orders, the concerned physician needs to countersign the order within

Description : 39. In case of telephone orders, the concerned physician needs to countersign the order within

Last Answer : C. A time frame according to hospital policy

The most controversial way of communicating doctor’s orders is by phone. It becomes valid and legal only when A. Countersigned by the receiving RN B. Signed by the physician who gave the order C. Signed by the resident physician on duty D. Countersigned by the medical doctor

Description : The most controversial way of communicating doctor’s orders is by phone. It becomes valid and legal only when A. Countersigned by the receiving RN B. Signed by the physician who gave the order C. Signed by the resident physician on duty D. Countersigned by the medical doctor

Last Answer : B. Encourage the client to discuss feelings/pain or discomfort openly

The patient receiving mitoxantrone (Novantrone) for treatment of secondary progressive multiple sclerosis (MS) is closely monitored for a) leukopenia and cardiac toxicity. Mitoxantrone is an antineoplastic agent used primarily to treat leukemia and lyphoma but is also used to treat secondary progressive MS. Patients need to have laboratory tests ordered and the results closely monitored due to the potential for leukopenia and cardiac toxicity.

Description : The patient receiving mitoxantrone (Novantrone) for treatment of secondary progressive multiple sclerosis (MS) is closely monitored for a) leukopenia and cardiac toxicity. Mitoxantrone is an ... d) hypoxia. Patients receiving mitoxantrone are closely monitored for leukopenia and cardiac toxicity.

Last Answer : a) leukopenia and cardiac toxicity. Mitoxantrone is an antineoplastic agent used primarily to treat leukemia and lyphoma but is also used to treat secondary progressive MS. Patients need to have ... ordered and the results closely monitored due to the potential for leukopenia and cardiac toxicity.

98. Phlebotomy was ordered as part of the therapy. You instructed the client and emphasized that the procedure can be repeated. The client inquired, “What is the primary aim of the procedure?” Your appropriate response is

Description : 98. Phlebotomy was ordered as part of the therapy. You instructed the client and emphasized that the procedure can be repeated. The client inquired, “What is the primary aim of the procedure?” Your appropriate response is

Last Answer : D. “It keeps the hematocrit within normal range.”

40. The nurse should ensure that all components of medications are documented. Identify all these components. 1. Dosage, route and frequency 2. Name of client and medication 3. Date and time the medication was ordered 4. Dosage, route, frequency and strength 5. Physician’s signature and specialty 6. Physician’s signature and PRC license number

Description : 40. The nurse should ensure that all components of medications are documented. Identify all these components. 1. Dosage, route and frequency 2. Name of client and medication 3. Date and time ... and strength 5. Physician's signature and specialty 6. Physician's signature and PRC license number

Last Answer : C. All except 5 and 6

45. Aling Juana, 67, diabetic, complained of elevated blood glucose since she strained her back a week ago despite following her diet and drug prescription. Your best explanation would be

Description : 45. Aling Juana, 67, diabetic, complained of elevated blood glucose since she strained her back a week ago despite following her diet and drug prescription. Your best explanation would be

Last Answer : A. Physiologic and psychologic stress can elevate blood glucose level

External pneumatic compression has been advocated for the prevention of deep venous thrombosis during operative procedures. Which of the following statement(s) concerning the use of external pneumatic compression devices is/are true? a. Intermittent pneumatic compression is as effective as low-dose heparin in prevention of venous thrombosis b. These devices function by compressing the lower extremities therefore augmenting venous return c. Pneumatic compression devices may also exhibit their antithrombotic effect through stimulating local and systemic fibrinolysis d. The length of time that intermittent pneumatic compression should be used includes through the operation and for at least several days in the postoperative period

Description : External pneumatic compression has been advocated for the prevention of deep venous thrombosis during operative procedures. Which of the following statement(s) concerning the use of external pneumatic ... includes through the operation and for at least several days in the postoperative period

Last Answer : Answer: b, c, d In many well-controlled studies of venous prophylaxis, intermittent pneumatic compression has been found to be as effective as low-dose heparin therapy. In addition to augmentation ... be used through the operation and for at least five days in the face or prolonged immobilization

What groups would be interested in a Buddhist-inspired book on coping with illness (for the chronically ill and their caregivers)?

Description : What groups would be interested in a Buddhist-inspired book on coping with illness (for the chronically ill and their caregivers)?

Last Answer : I think spiritualists and or the Yoga community would have an interest in this type of read. I am in both of those camps and spend a large part of my time learning how to be healthy, happy and well ... when we are hurt. May as well be prepared for that day when we are no longer healthy and well.

Lower motor neuron lesions cause a) flaccid muscle paralysis. Lower motor neuron lesions cause flaccid muscle paralysis, muscle atrophy, decreased muscle tone, and loss of voluntary control.

Description : Lower motor neuron lesions cause a) flaccid muscle paralysis. Lower motor neuron lesions cause flaccid muscle paralysis, muscle atrophy, decreased muscle tone, and loss of voluntary control. ... d) hyperactive and abnormal reflexes. Upper motor neuron lesions cause hyperactive and abnormal reflexes.

Last Answer : a) flaccid muscle paralysis. Lower motor neuron lesions cause flaccid muscle paralysis, muscle atrophy, decreased muscle tone, and loss of voluntary control.

Which of the following terms refers to weakness of both legs and the lower part of the trunk? a) Paraparesis Paraparesis is a frequent manifestation of degenerative neurologic disorders.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to weakness of both legs and the lower part of the trunk? a) Paraparesis Paraparesis is a frequent manifestation of degenerative neurologic disorders. b) ... four extremities. d) Paraplegia Paraplegia refers to paralysis of both legs and the lower trunk.

Last Answer : a) Paraparesis Paraparesis is a frequent manifestation of degenerative neurologic disorders.

Which of the following terms refers to an abnormal decrease in white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets? a) Pancytopenia Pancytopenia may be congenital or acquired. b) Anemia Anemia refers to decreased red cell mass. c) Leukopenia Leukopenia refers to a less-than-normal amount of WBCs in circulation. d) Thrombocytopenia Thrombocytopenia refers to a lower-than-normal platelet count.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to an abnormal decrease in white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets? a) Pancytopenia Pancytopenia may be congenital or acquired. b) Anemia ... of WBCs in circulation. d) Thrombocytopenia Thrombocytopenia refers to a lower-than-normal platelet count.

Last Answer : a) Pancytopenia Pancytopenia may be congenital or acquired.

Which of the following observations regarding ulcer formation on the patient’s lower extremity indicate to the nurse that the ulcer is a result of venous insufficiency? a) The border of the ulcer is irregular. The border of an ulcer caused by arterial insufficiency is circular. b) The ulcer is very painful to the patient, even though superficial. Superficial venous insufficiency ulcers cause minimal pain. c) The ulcer base is pale to black. The base of a venous insufficiency ulcer shows beefy red to yellow fibrinous color. d) The ulcer is deep, involving the joint space. Venous insufficiency ulcers are usually superficial.

Description : Which of the following observations regarding ulcer formation on the patient's lower extremity indicate to the nurse that the ulcer is a result of venous insufficiency? a) The border of the ... d) The ulcer is deep, involving the joint space. Venous insufficiency ulcers are usually superficial.

Last Answer : a) The border of the ulcer is irregular. The border of an ulcer caused by arterial insufficiency is circular.

The nurse auscultates the apex beat at which of the following anatomical locations? a) Fifth intercostal space, midclavicular line The left ventricle is responsible for the apex beat or the point of maximum impulse, which is normally palpable in the left midclavicular line of the chest wall at the fifth intercostal space. b) Mid-sternum The right ventricle lies anteriorly, just beneath the sternum. c) 2” to the left of the lower end of the sternum Use of inches to identify the location of the apex beat is inappropriate based upon variations in human anatomy. d) 1” to the left of the xiphoid process Auscultation below and to the left of the xiphoid process will detect gastrointestinal sounds, but not the apex beat of the heart.

Description : The nurse auscultates the apex beat at which of the following anatomical locations? a) Fifth intercostal space, midclavicular line The left ventricle is responsible for the apex beat or the point of ... of the xiphoid process will detect gastrointestinal sounds, but not the apex beat of the heart.

Last Answer : a) Fifth intercostal space, midclavicular line The left ventricle is responsible for the apex beat or the point of maximum impulse, which is normally palpable in the left midclavicular line of the chest wall at the fifth intercostal space.

In general, chest drainage tubes are not used for the patient undergoing a) Pneumonectomy Usually, no drains are used for the pneumonectomy patient because the accumulation of fluid in the empty hemithorax prevents mediastinal shift. b) Lobectomy With lobectomy, two chest tubes are usually inserted for drainage, the upper for air and the lower for fluid c) Wedge resection With wedge resection, the pleural cavity usually is drained because of the possibility of an air or blood leak d) Segmentectomy With segmentectomy, drains are usually used because of the possibility of an air or blood leak.

Description : In general, chest drainage tubes are not used for the patient undergoing a) Pneumonectomy Usually, no drains are used for the pneumonectomy patient because the accumulation of fluid in the empty ... With segmentectomy, drains are usually used because of the possibility of an air or blood leak.

Last Answer : a) Pneumonectomy Usually, no drains are used for the pneumonectomy patient because the accumulation of fluid in the empty hemithorax prevents mediastinal shift.

Which type of chest configuration is typical of the patient with COPD? a) Barrel chest “Barrel chest” results from fixation of the ribs in the inspiratory position. b) Pigeon chest Pigeon chest results from a displaced sternum. c) Flail chest Flail chest results when the ribs are fractured. d) Funnel chest Funnel chest occurs when there is a depression in the lower portion of the sternum and is associated with Mafan’s syndrome or rickets.

Description : Which type of chest configuration is typical of the patient with COPD? a) Barrel chest Barrel chest results from fixation of the ribs in the inspiratory position. b) Pigeon chest Pigeon chest ... depression in the lower portion of the sternum and is associated with Mafan's syndrome or rickets.

Last Answer : a) Barrel chest “Barrel chest” results from fixation of the ribs in the inspiratory position.

The individual who demonstrates displacement of the sternum is described as having a a) pigeon chest. Pigeon chest may occur with rickets, Marfan’s syndrome, or severe kyphoscoliosis. b) barrel chest. A barrel chest is seen in patients with emphysema as a result of overinflation of the lungs. c) funnel chest. A funnel chest occurs when there is a depression in the lower portion of the sternum. d) kyphoscoliosis. Kyphoscoliosis is characterized by elevation of the scapula and a corresponding S-shaped spine.

Description : The individual who demonstrates displacement of the sternum is described as having a a) pigeon chest. Pigeon chest may occur with rickets, Marfan's syndrome, or severe kyphoscoliosis. ... kyphoscoliosis. Kyphoscoliosis is characterized by elevation of the scapula and a corresponding S-shaped spine.

Last Answer : a) pigeon chest. Pigeon chest may occur with rickets, Marfan’s syndrome, or severe kyphoscoliosis.

In order to help prevent the development of an external rotation deformity of the hip in a patient who must remain in bed for any period of time, the most appropriate nursing action would be to use a) a trochanter roll extending from the crest of the ilium to the midthigh. A trochanter roll, properly placed, provides resistance to the external rotation of the hip. b) pillows under the lower legs. Pillows under the legs will not prevent the hips from rotating externally. c) a hip-abductor pillow. A hip-abductor pillow is used for the patient after total hip replacement surgery. d) a footboard. A footboard will not prevent the hips from rotating externally.

Description : In order to help prevent the development of an external rotation deformity of the hip in a patient who must remain in bed for any period of time, the most appropriate nursing action would be ... hip replacement surgery. d) a footboard. A footboard will not prevent the hips from rotating externally.

Last Answer : a) a trochanter roll extending from the crest of the ilium to the midthigh. A trochanter roll, properly placed, provides resistance to the external rotation of the hip.

According to Maslow, which of the following categories of needs represents the most basic? a) Physiologic needs Physiologic needs must be met before an individual is able to move toward psychological health and well-being. b) Self-actualization Self-actualization is the highest level of need c) Safety and security needs Safety and security needs, while lower level, are not essential to physiologic survival. d) Belongingness Belongingness and affection needs are not essential to physiologic survival.

Description : According to Maslow, which of the following categories of needs represents the most basic? a) Physiologic needs Physiologic needs must be met before an individual is able to move ... physiologic survival. d) Belongingness Belongingness and affection needs are not essential to physiologic survival.

Last Answer : a) Physiologic needs Physiologic needs must be met before an individual is able to move toward psychological health and well-being.

63. A hypertensive client is taking herbal supplement for his hypertension. He was prescribed antihypertensive medication. The client wants to continue taking his herbal medication to lower his blood pressure. The nurse’s most appropriate action is to

Description : 63. A hypertensive client is taking herbal supplement for his hypertension. He was prescribed antihypertensive medication. The client wants to continue taking his herbal medication to lower his blood pressure. The nurse’s most appropriate action is to

Last Answer : B. Tell the client that herbal supplements have no proven therapeutic effects

I have amblyopia in my left eye. I am 67 and am interested in having the eye straight. I understand that at my age any surgery would not change my vision very much. I am interested in have some info for this surgery, costs and results. ?

Description : I have amblyopia in my left eye. I am 67 and am interested in having the eye straight. I understand that at my age any surgery would not change my vision very much. I am interested in have some info for this surgery, costs and results. ?

Last Answer : You need to have a detailed exam to determine the cause for your problem and then have it addressed accordingly. Age should not be an issue if you have good vision potential You are looking in the ball park of about $1500 for this surgery.

The patient with Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) encephalitis is receiving acyclovir (Zovirax). The nurse monitors blood chemistry test results and urinary output for a) renal complications related to acyclovir therapy. Monitoring of blood chemistry test results and urinary output will alert the nurse to the presence of renal complications related to acyclovir therapy.

Description : The patient with Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) encephalitis is receiving acyclovir (Zovirax). The nurse monitors blood chemistry test results and urinary output for a) renal complications related to ... output will alert the nurse to the presence of renal complications related to acyclovir therapy.

Last Answer : a) renal complications related to acyclovir therapy. Monitoring of blood chemistry test results and urinary output will alert the nurse to the presence of renal complications related to acyclovir therapy.

Of the following tests, which uses a tuning fork between two positions to assess hearing? a) Rinne’s In the Rinne’s test, the examiner shifts the stem of a vibrating tuning fork between two positions to test air conduction of sound and bone conduction of sound.

Description : Of the following tests, which uses a tuning fork between two positions to assess hearing? a) Rinne's In the Rinne's test, the examiner shifts the stem of a vibrating tuning fork between two positions ... 's auricle. d) Weber's The Weber's test uses bone conduction to test lateralization of sound.

Last Answer : a) Rinne’s In the Rinne’s test, the examiner shifts the stem of a vibrating tuning fork between two positions to test air conduction of sound and bone conduction of sound.

When assisting the patient to interpret a negative HIV test result, the nurse informs the patient that the results mean a) his body has not produced antibodies to the AIDS virus. A negative test result indicates that antibodies to the AIDS virus are not present in the blood at the time the blood sample for the test is drawn.

Description : When assisting the patient to interpret a negative HIV test result, the nurse informs the patient that the results mean a) his body has not produced antibodies to the AIDS virus. A negative test ... When antibodies to the AIDS virus are detected in the blood, the test is interpreted as positive.

Last Answer : a) his body has not produced antibodies to the AIDS virus. A negative test result indicates that antibodies to the AIDS virus are not present in the blood at the time the blood sample for the test is drawn.

When interpreting the results of a Mantoux test, the nurse explains to the patient that a reaction occurs when the intradermal injection site shows a) redness and induration. The site is inspected for redness and palpated for hardening. b) drainage. Drainage at the site does not indicate a reaction to the tubercle bacillus. c) tissue sloughing. Sloughing of tissue at the site of injection does not indicate a reaction to the tubercle bacillus. d) bruising. Bruising of tissue at the site may occur from the injection, but does not indicate a reaction to the tubercle bacillus.

Description : When interpreting the results of a Mantoux test, the nurse explains to the patient that a reaction occurs when the intradermal injection site shows a) redness and induration. The site is inspected for ... site may occur from the injection, but does not indicate a reaction to the tubercle bacillus.

Last Answer : a) redness and induration. The site is inspected for redness and palpated for hardening.