The patient with Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) encephalitis is receiving acyclovir (Zovirax). The nurse monitors blood chemistry test results and urinary output for a) renal complications related to acyclovir therapy. Monitoring of blood chemistry test results and urinary output will alert the nurse to the presence of renal complications related to acyclovir therapy.

The patient with Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) encephalitis is
receiving acyclovir (Zovirax). The nurse monitors blood chemistry
test results and urinary output for
a) renal complications related to acyclovir therapy.
Monitoring of blood chemistry test results and urinary output will alert
the nurse to the presence of renal complications related to acyclovir
therapy.
b) signs and symptoms of cardiac insufficiency.
Monitoring of blood chemistry test results and urinary output will alert
the nurse to the presence of renal complications related to acyclovir
therapy.
c) signs of relapse.
Monitoring of blood chemistry test results and urinary output will alert
the nurse to the presence of renal complications related to acyclovir
therapy. To prevent relapse treatment with acyclovir should continue
for up to 3 weeks.
d) signs of improvement in the patient’s condition.
Monitoring of blood chemistry test results and urinary output will alert
the nurse to the presence of renal complications related to acyclovir
therapy.
by

1 Answer

Answer :

a) renal complications related to acyclovir therapy.
Monitoring of blood chemistry test results and urinary output will alert
the nurse to the presence of renal complications related to acyclovir
therapy.
by

Related questions

The most common cause of acute encephalitis in the United States is a) Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV). Viral infection is the most common cause of encephalitis. HSV is the most common cause of acute encephalitis in the U.S.

Description : The most common cause of acute encephalitis in the United States is a) Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV). Viral infection is the most common cause of encephalitis. HSV is the most common ... may cause fungal encephalitis. Fungal infections of the central nervous system occur rarely in healthy people.

Last Answer : a) Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV). Viral infection is the most common cause of encephalitis. HSV is the most common cause of acute encephalitis in the U.S.

The herpes simplex virus (HSV-1), which produces a cold sore (fever blister), has an incubation period of a) 2-12 days. HSV-1 is transmitted primarily by direct contact with infected secretions. b) 0-3 months. The time period 0-3 months exceeds the incubation period. c) 20-30 days. The time period 20-30 days exceeds the incubation period. d) 3-6 months. The time period 3-6 months exceeds the incubation period.

Description : The herpes simplex virus (HSV-1), which produces a cold sore (fever blister), has an incubation period of a) 2-12 days. HSV-1 is transmitted primarily by direct contact with infected secretions. b) ... the incubation period. d) 3-6 months. The time period 3-6 months exceeds the incubation period.

Last Answer : a) 2-12 days. HSV-1 is transmitted primarily by direct contact with infected secretions.

The following statement(s) is/are true concerning viral infections. a. The most common post-transplantation viral infections are caused by herpes viruses and include CMV and herpes simplex virus b. Viral infections occur at equal frequency anytime during the post-transplantation period c. CMV infection in the post-transplant patient is most likely a pulmonary process d. Herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection primarily presents with a mononucleosis-type syndrome with fever, lethargy, and cough

Description : The following statement(s) is/are true concerning viral infections. a. The most common post-transplantation viral infections are caused by herpes viruses and include CMV and herpes simplex virus ... HSV) infection primarily presents with a mononucleosis-type syndrome with fever, lethargy, and cough

Last Answer : Answer: a, c, Solid organ transplant patients are prone to develop viral infection by virtue of exogenous immunosuppression. The most common post-transplantation viral infections are those ... transplant patient or as painful herpes zoster in patients who have previously developed chicken pox

A patient with fungal encephalitis receiving amphotericin B complaints of fever, chills, and body aches. The nurse knows that these symptoms a) may be controlled by the administration of diphenhydramine (Benedryl) and acetaminophen (Tylenol) approximately 30 minutes prior to administration of the amphotericin. Administration of amphotericin B may cause fever, chills and body aches. The administration of diphenhydramine (Benedryl) and acetaminophen (Tylenol) approximately 30 minutes prior to the administration of amphotericin B may prevent these side effects.

Description : A patient with fungal encephalitis receiving amphotericin B complaints of fever, chills, and body aches. The nurse knows that these symptoms a) may be controlled by the administration of ... and cerebral spinal fluid (CSF) cultures. Blood and CSF cultures help diagnosis fungal encephalitis.

Last Answer : a) may be controlled by the administration of diphenhydramine (Benedryl) and acetaminophen (Tylenol) approximately 30 minutes prior to administration of the amphotericin. Administration of amphotericin B ... 30 minutes prior to the administration of amphotericin B may prevent these side effects.

The nurse teaches the patient who demonstrates herpes zoster (shingles) that a) the infection results from reactivation of the chickenpox virus. It is assumed that herpes zoster represents a reactivation of latent varicella (chickenpox) virus and reflects lowered immunity.

Description : The nurse teaches the patient who demonstrates herpes zoster (shingles) that a) the infection results from reactivation of the chickenpox virus. It is assumed that herpes zoster represents a ... is arrested if oral antiviral agents are administered within 24 hours of the initial eruption.

Last Answer : a) the infection results from reactivation of the chickenpox virus. It is assumed that herpes zoster represents a reactivation of latent varicella (chickenpox) virus and reflects lowered immunity.

What is true of acyclovir treatment of genital herpes simplex: A. Topical treatment affords symptomatic relief in primary as well as recurrent disease B. Oral therapy for 10 days affords symptomatic relief as well as prevents recurrences C. Oral therapy for 10 days affords symptomatic relief but does not prevent recurrences D. Continuous long-term topical therapy is recommended to prevent recurrences

Description : What is true of acyclovir treatment of genital herpes simplex: A. Topical treatment affords symptomatic relief in primary as well as recurrent disease B. Oral therapy for 10 days affords ... does not prevent recurrences D. Continuous long-term topical therapy is recommended to prevent recurrences

Last Answer : C. Oral therapy for 10 days affords symptomatic relief but does not prevent recurrences

When assisting the patient to interpret a negative HIV test result, the nurse informs the patient that the results mean a) his body has not produced antibodies to the AIDS virus. A negative test result indicates that antibodies to the AIDS virus are not present in the blood at the time the blood sample for the test is drawn.

Description : When assisting the patient to interpret a negative HIV test result, the nurse informs the patient that the results mean a) his body has not produced antibodies to the AIDS virus. A negative test ... When antibodies to the AIDS virus are detected in the blood, the test is interpreted as positive.

Last Answer : a) his body has not produced antibodies to the AIDS virus. A negative test result indicates that antibodies to the AIDS virus are not present in the blood at the time the blood sample for the test is drawn.

What is true in treating a patient with secondary herpes simplex:** A. Acyclovir inhibits viral transcription when applied in the prodromal phase B. Idoxuridine is better than acyclovir when applied topically C. Antivirals are contra indicated in immuno-compromised patient

Description : What is true in treating a patient with secondary herpes simplex:** A. Acyclovir inhibits viral transcription when applied in the prodromal phase B. Idoxuridine is better than acyclovir when applied topically C. Antivirals are contra indicated in immuno-compromised patient

Last Answer : A. Acyclovir inhibits viral transcription when applied in the prodromal phase

Ganciclovir is preferred over acyclovir in the following condition: A. Herpes simplex keratitis B. Herpes zoster C. Chickenpox D. Cytomegalovirus retinitis in AIDS patient

Description : Ganciclovir is preferred over acyclovir in the following condition: A. Herpes simplex keratitis B. Herpes zoster C. Chickenpox D. Cytomegalovirus retinitis in AIDS patient

Last Answer : D. Cytomegalovirus retinitis in AIDS patients

When caring for a patient with an uncomplicated, mild urinary tract infection (UTI), the nurse knows that recent studies have shown which of the following drugs to be a good choice for shortcourse (e.g. 3-day) therapy? a) Levofloxacin (Levaquin) Levofloxacin, a floroquinolone, is a good choice for short-course therapy of uncomplicated, mild to moderate UTI. Clinical trial data show high patient compliance with the 3-day regimen (95.6%) and a high eradication rate for all pathogens (96.4%).

Description : When caring for a patient with an uncomplicated, mild urinary tract infection (UTI), the nurse knows that recent studies have shown which of the following drugs to be a good choice for ... to be significantly more effective than TMP-SMX in community-based patients and in nursing home residents.

Last Answer : a) Levofloxacin (Levaquin) Levofloxacin, a floroquinolone, is a good choice for short-course therapy of uncomplicated, mild to moderate UTI. Clinical trial data show high patient compliance with the 3-day regimen (95.6%) and a high eradication rate for all pathogens (96.4%).

Choose the correct statement about famciclovir: A. It is active against acyclovir resistant strains of herpes simplex virus B. It does not need conversion to an active metabolite C. It is used orally to treat genital herpes simplex D. It is the drug of choice for cytomegalovirus retinitis

Description : Choose the correct statement about famciclovir: A. It is active against acyclovir resistant strains of herpes simplex virus B. It does not need conversion to an active metabolite C. It is used orally to treat genital herpes simplex D. It is the drug of choice for cytomegalovirus retinitis

Last Answer : C. It is used orally to treat genital herpes simplex

Which of the following viruses is most susceptible to acyclovir: A. Herpes simplex type I virus B. Herpes simplex type II virus C. Varicella-zoster virus D. Epstein-Barr virus

Description : Which of the following viruses is most susceptible to acyclovir: A. Herpes simplex type I virus B. Herpes simplex type II virus C. Varicella-zoster virus D. Epstein-Barr virus

Last Answer : A. Herpes simplex type I virus

When caring for a patient receiving autolytic debridement therapy, the nurse a) advises the patient about the foul odor that will occur during therapy. During autolytic debridement therapy a foul odor will be produced by the breakdown of cellular debris. This odor does not indicate that the wound is infected.

Description : When caring for a patient receiving autolytic debridement therapy, the nurse a) advises the patient about the foul odor that will occur during therapy. During autolytic debridement ... Pancrease. Commercially available enzymatic debriding agents include Accuzyme, Clooagenase, Granulex, and Zymase.

Last Answer : a) advises the patient about the foul odor that will occur during therapy. During autolytic debridement therapy a foul odor will be produced by the breakdown of cellular debris. This odor does not indicate that the wound is infected.

The nurse teaches the patient about diabetes including which of the following statements? a) Elevated blood glucose levels contribute to complications of diabetes, such as diminished vision. When blood glucose levels are well controlled, the potential for complications of diabetes is reduced.

Description : The nurse teaches the patient about diabetes including which of the following statements? a) Elevated blood glucose levels contribute to complications of diabetes, such as diminished vision. When blood ... be able to resume previous methods for control of diabetes when the stress is resolved.

Last Answer : a) Elevated blood glucose levels contribute to complications of diabetes, such as diminished vision. When blood glucose levels are well controlled, the potential for complications of diabetes is reduced.

The most significant nursing problem related to continuous tube feedings is a) potential for aspiration Because the normal swallowing mechanism is bypassed, consideration of the danger of aspiration must be foremost in the mind of the nurse caring for the patient receiving continuous tube feedings. b) interruption of GI integrity Tube feedings preserve GI integrity by intraluminal delivery of nutrients. c) disturbance in the sequence of intestinal and hepatic metabolism Tube feedings preserve the normal sequence of intestinal and hepatic metabolism. d) interruption in fat metabolism and lipoprotein synthesis Tube feedings maintain fat metabolism and lipoprotein synthesis.

Description : The most significant nursing problem related to continuous tube feedings is a) potential for aspiration Because the normal swallowing mechanism is bypassed, consideration of the danger of ... in fat metabolism and lipoprotein synthesis Tube feedings maintain fat metabolism and lipoprotein synthesis.

Last Answer : a) potential for aspiration Because the normal swallowing mechanism is bypassed, consideration of the danger of aspiration must be foremost in the mind of the nurse caring for the patient receiving continuous tube feedings.

A 55-year-old renal transplant patient has been hospitalized in a Surgical Intensive Care Unit, receiving a prolonged course of antibiotics following an attack of acute cholecystitis. The following statement(s) is/are true concerning his management. a. Due to the potential risk of Candida infection, prophylaxis with oral nystatin should be instituted early in the patient’s course b. A Candida urinary tract infection should be treated with systemic amphotericin B c. Changes of Candida retinitis are of little significance d. The presence of a virulent Candida bacteremia should suggest a dosage reduction in immunosuppressive agents until the infection can be adequately controlled

Description : A 55-year-old renal transplant patient has been hospitalized in a Surgical Intensive Care Unit, receiving a prolonged course of antibiotics following an attack of acute cholecystitis. The ... suggest a dosage reduction in immunosuppressive agents until the infection can be adequately controlled

Last Answer : Answer: a, d Infections due to fungal pathogens have become increasingly common during the past decade, frequently occurring in patients undergoing prolonged hospitalization in the Surgical ... agents should be discontinued until evidence of infection is absolutely controlled or is eradicated

The nurse providing education regarding sexually transmitted diseases includes which of the following statements regarding herpes virus 2 (herpes genitalis)? a) In pregnant women with active herpes virus, babies delivered vaginally may become infected with the virus. Therefore, a cesarean delivery may be performed if the virus recurs near the time of delivery.

Description : The nurse providing education regarding sexually transmitted diseases includes which of the following statements regarding herpes virus 2 (herpes genitalis)? a) In pregnant women with active herpes virus, babies ... very difficult to kill. Usually, the virus is killed at room temperature by drying.

Last Answer : a) In pregnant women with active herpes virus, babies delivered vaginally may become infected with the virus. Therefore, a cesarean delivery may be performed if the virus recurs near the time of delivery.

When the patient who has undergone laryngectomy suffers wound breakdown, the nurse monitors him very carefully because he is identified as being at high risk for a) carotid artery hemorrhage. The carotid artery lies close to the stoma and may rupture from erosion if the wound does not heal properly. b) pulmonary embolism. Pulmonary embolism is associated with immobility. c) dehydration. Dehydration may lead to poor wound healing and breakdown. d) pneumonia. Pneumonia is a risk for any postoperative patient.

Description : When the patient who has undergone laryngectomy suffers wound breakdown, the nurse monitors him very carefully because he is identified as being at high risk for a) carotid artery hemorrhage. The ... poor wound healing and breakdown. d) pneumonia. Pneumonia is a risk for any postoperative patient.

Last Answer : a) carotid artery hemorrhage. The carotid artery lies close to the stoma and may rupture from erosion if the wound does not heal properly.

The nurse who provides teaching to the female patient regarding prevention of recurrent urinary tract infections includes which of the following statements? a) Void immediately after sexual intercourse. Voiding will serve to flush the urethra, expelling contaminants.

Description : The nurse who provides teaching to the female patient regarding prevention of recurrent urinary tract infections includes which of the following statements? a) Void immediately after sexual intercourse. Voiding ... encouraged to void every 2-3 hours during the day and completely empty the bladder.

Last Answer : a) Void immediately after sexual intercourse. Voiding will serve to flush the urethra, expelling contaminants.

As the nurse monitors the client, she notices a bright red spot on the dressings which measures 4cm in diameter. The nurse should initially do which appropriate nursing intervention? A. Change the top dressing B. Continue to monitor the vital signs C. Notify the clients surgeon of a potential hemorrhage D. Assess the presence of a drain

Description : As the nurse monitors the client, she notices a bright red spot on the dressings which measures 4cm in diameter. The nurse should initially do which appropriate nursing intervention? A. Change the ... C. Notify the clients surgeon of a potential hemorrhage D. Assess the presence of a drain

Last Answer : D. Assess the presence of a drain

Which of the following solutions should the nurse anticipate for fluid replacement in the male patient? a) Lactated Ringer’s solution Replacement fluids may include isotonic electrolyte solutions and blood component therapy.

Description : Which of the following solutions should the nurse anticipate for fluid replacement in the male patient? a) Lactated Ringer's solution Replacement fluids may include isotonic electrolyte solutions and ... only to treat severe symptomatic hyponatremia and should be used only in intensive care units.

Last Answer : a) Lactated Ringer’s solution Replacement fluids may include isotonic electrolyte solutions and blood component therapy.

The nurse advises the patient undergoing photodynamic therapy (PDT) for macular degeneration to avoid exposure to direct sunlight or bright lights for a) the first five days after the procedure. Photodynamic therapy includes the use of verteporfin, a light-activated dye. The dye within the blood vessels near the surface of the skin could become activated with exposure to strong light, such as sunlight or bright lights. Ordinary indoor light is not a problem. The patient should be counseled to wear protective clothing, such as long-sleeved shirts, sunglasses, and wide-brimmed hats, if the patient has to go outdoors during daylight hours in the first five days post-treatment. Inadvertent sunlight exposure can lead to severe blistering of the skin and sunburn.

Description : The nurse advises the patient undergoing photodynamic therapy (PDT) for macular degeneration to avoid exposure to direct sunlight or bright lights for a) the first five days after the procedure. ... should avoid exposure to direct sunlight or bright lights for the first five days post-treatment.

Last Answer : a) the first five days after the procedure. Photodynamic therapy includes the use of verteporfin, a light-activated dye. The dye within the blood vessels near the surface of the skin could ... days post-treatment. Inadvertent sunlight exposure can lead to severe blistering of the skin and sunburn.

If tube feeding is continuous, the placement of the feeding tube should be checked a) every shift. Each nurse caring for the patient is responsible for verifying that the tube is located in the proper area for continuous feeding. b) every hour. Checking for placement each hour is unnecessary unless the patient is extremely restless or there is basis for rechecking the tube based on other patient activities. c) every 24 hours. Checking for placement every 24 hours does not meet the standard of care due the patient receiving continuous tube feedings. d) when a tube feeding is continuous, it is unnecessary to check placement. Even though the feedings are continuous, the placement must be assessed.

Description : If tube feeding is continuous, the placement of the feeding tube should be checked a) every shift. Each nurse caring for the patient is responsible for verifying that the tube is located ... is unnecessary to check placement. Even though the feedings are continuous, the placement must be assessed.

Last Answer : a) every shift. Each nurse caring for the patient is responsible for verifying that the tube is located in the proper area for continuous feeding.

When interpreting the results of a Mantoux test, the nurse explains to the patient that a reaction occurs when the intradermal injection site shows a) redness and induration. The site is inspected for redness and palpated for hardening. b) drainage. Drainage at the site does not indicate a reaction to the tubercle bacillus. c) tissue sloughing. Sloughing of tissue at the site of injection does not indicate a reaction to the tubercle bacillus. d) bruising. Bruising of tissue at the site may occur from the injection, but does not indicate a reaction to the tubercle bacillus.

Description : When interpreting the results of a Mantoux test, the nurse explains to the patient that a reaction occurs when the intradermal injection site shows a) redness and induration. The site is inspected for ... site may occur from the injection, but does not indicate a reaction to the tubercle bacillus.

Last Answer : a) redness and induration. The site is inspected for redness and palpated for hardening.

Along with effective antimicrobial therapy, corticosteroids are indicated in the following infective conditions except: A. Tubercular meningitis B. Severe P. carinii pneumonia in AIDS patient C. Herpes simplex keratitis D. Erythema nodosum leprosum

Description : Along with effective antimicrobial therapy, corticosteroids are indicated in the following infective conditions except: A. Tubercular meningitis B. Severe P. carinii pneumonia in AIDS patient C. Herpes simplex keratitis D. Erythema nodosum leprosum

Last Answer : C. Herpes simplex keratitis

The nurse recognizes which of the following signs as typical of the patient in shock? a) Rapid, weak, thready pulse Pulse increases as the body tries to compensate. b) Flushed face Pallor is an indicator of shock. c) Warm, dry skin Skin is generally cool and moist in shock. d) Increased urine output Usually, a low blood pressure and concentrated urine are observed in the patient in shock.

Description : The nurse recognizes which of the following signs as typical of the patient in shock? a) Rapid, weak, thready pulse Pulse increases as the body tries to compensate. b) Flushed face Pallor is ... urine output Usually, a low blood pressure and concentrated urine are observed in the patient in shock.

Last Answer : a) Rapid, weak, thready pulse Pulse increases as the body tries to compensate.

Bleeding complications are frequently associated with fibrinolytic therapy. Which of the following statement(s) concerning complications of fibrinolytic therapy is/are true? a. Careful monitoring of prothrombin time and aPTT time are necessary to avoid bleeding complications b. A level of serum fibrinogen less than 100 mg/dl is associated with an increased risk of bleeding c. Recent (less than 10 days) major surgery is a contraindication to systemic but not regional fibrinolytic therapy d. A patient with a cerebrovascular event occurring less than two months ago can be treated with fibrinolytic therapy if head CT scan is normal

Description : Bleeding complications are frequently associated with fibrinolytic therapy. Which of the following statement(s) concerning complications of fibrinolytic therapy is/are true? a. Careful monitoring of prothrombin time ... months ago can be treated with fibrinolytic therapy if head CT scan is normal

Last Answer : Answer: b Fibrinolytic therapy induces a hemostatic defect through a combination of factors. Hypofibrinogenemia and fibrin degradation products inhibit fibrin polymerization and, in combination ... is considered a major relative contraindication to either regional or systemic thrombolytic therapy

What safety actions does the nurse need to take for a patient on oxygen therapy who is undergoing magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)? a) Ensure that no patient care equipment containing metal enters the room where the MRI is located. For patient safety the nurse must make sure no patient care equipment (e.g., portable oxygen tanks) that contains metal or metal parts enters the room where the MRI is located. The magnetic field generated by the unit is so strong that any metal-containing items will be strongly attracted and can literally be pulled away with such great force that they can fly like projectiles towards the magnet.

Description : What safety actions does the nurse need to take for a patient on oxygen therapy who is undergoing magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)? a) Ensure that no patient care equipment containing metal enters the ... oxygen tanks) that contains metal or metal parts enters the room where the MRI is located.

Last Answer : a) Ensure that no patient care equipment containing metal enters the room where the MRI is located. For patient safety the nurse must make sure no patient care equipment (e.g., portable oxygen ... literally be pulled away with such great force that they can fly like projectiles towards the magnet.

The patient receiving mitoxantrone (Novantrone) for treatment of secondary progressive multiple sclerosis (MS) is closely monitored for a) leukopenia and cardiac toxicity. Mitoxantrone is an antineoplastic agent used primarily to treat leukemia and lyphoma but is also used to treat secondary progressive MS. Patients need to have laboratory tests ordered and the results closely monitored due to the potential for leukopenia and cardiac toxicity.

Description : The patient receiving mitoxantrone (Novantrone) for treatment of secondary progressive multiple sclerosis (MS) is closely monitored for a) leukopenia and cardiac toxicity. Mitoxantrone is an ... d) hypoxia. Patients receiving mitoxantrone are closely monitored for leukopenia and cardiac toxicity.

Last Answer : a) leukopenia and cardiac toxicity. Mitoxantrone is an antineoplastic agent used primarily to treat leukemia and lyphoma but is also used to treat secondary progressive MS. Patients need to have ... ordered and the results closely monitored due to the potential for leukopenia and cardiac toxicity.

For individuals known to be dying by virtue of age and/or diagnoses, which of the following signs indicate approaching death: a) Increased restlessness As the oxygen supply to the brain decreases, the patient may become restless. b) Increased wakefulness As the body weakens, the patient will sleep more and begin to detach from the environment. c) Increased eating For many patients, refusal of food is an indication that they are ready to die. d) Increased urinary output Based upon decreased intake, urinary output generally decreases in amount and frequency.

Description : For individuals known to be dying by virtue of age and/or diagnoses, which of the following signs indicate approaching death: a) Increased restlessness As the oxygen supply to the ... Increased urinary output Based upon decreased intake, urinary output generally decreases in amount and frequency.

Last Answer : a) Increased restlessness As the oxygen supply to the brain decreases, the patient may become restless.

Which of the following reflects basic nursing measures in the care of the patient with viral encephalitis? a) Providing comfort measures Providing comfort measures directed at the headache, include dimmed lights, limited noise, and analgesics are the basic nursing measures in the care of the patient with a viral encephalitis.

Description : Which of the following reflects basic nursing measures in the care of the patient with viral encephalitis? a) Providing comfort measures Providing comfort measures directed at the headache, include ... output to alert the nurse to the presence of renal complications related to acyclovir therapy.

Last Answer : a) Providing comfort measures Providing comfort measures directed at the headache, include dimmed lights, limited noise, and analgesics are the basic nursing measures in the care of the patient with a viral encephalitis.

Which of the following statements reflects nursing care of the woman with mild to moderate ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS)? a) Advise the patient to decrease her activity, monitor her urine output and to return for frequent office visits. Management in mild and moderate cases of OHSS consists of decreased activity, monitoring of urine output and frequent office visits as designated by the reproductive endocrinologist.

Description : Which of the following statements reflects nursing care of the woman with mild to moderate ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS)? a) Advise the patient to decrease her activity, monitor ... for immediate hospitalization. The patient with severe OHSS is hospitalized for monitoring and treatment.

Last Answer : a) Advise the patient to decrease her activity, monitor her urine output and to return for frequent office visits. Management in mild and moderate cases of OHSS consists of decreased activity, monitoring of urine output and frequent office visits as designated by the reproductive endocrinologist.

Medical management of arthropod-borne virus (arboviral) encephalitis is aimed at a) controlling seizures and increased intracranical pressure. There is no specific medication for arboviral encephalitis. Medical management is aimed at controlling seizures and increased intracranial pressure.

Description : Medical management of arthropod-borne virus (arboviral) encephalitis is aimed at a) controlling seizures and increased intracranical pressure. There is no specific medication for arboviral ... muscular atrophy. Medical management is aimed at controlling seizures and increased intracranial pressure.

Last Answer : a) controlling seizures and increased intracranical pressure. There is no specific medication for arboviral encephalitis. Medical management is aimed at controlling seizures and increased intracranial pressure.

The primary North American vector transmitting arthropodborne virus encephalitis is the a) mosquito Arthropod vectors transmit several types of viruses that cause encephalitis. The primary vector in North America is the mosquito.

Description : The primary North American vector transmitting arthropodborne virus encephalitis is the a) mosquito Arthropod vectors transmit several types of viruses that cause encephalitis. The primary vector in North America is ... the mosquito. d) flea. The primary vector in North America is the mosquito.

Last Answer : a) mosquito Arthropod vectors transmit several types of viruses that cause encephalitis. The primary vector in North America is the mosquito.

A 75-year-old man had been receiving gentamicin (an aminoglycoside antibiotic) to treat an urinary tract infection. After three months of therapy patient's serum creatinine levels were 10 mg/dL ( normal 0.5-1.2) and serum gentamicin concentrations obtained just before the last dose were 9 mg/dL (normal < 2). Which of the following is the most likely adverse drug reaction the patient was suffering from? a) Type II allergic reaction b)Type III allergic reaction c) Pseudo allergic reaction d) Overdose toxicity

Description : A 75-year-old man had been receiving gentamicin (an aminoglycoside antibiotic) to treat an urinary tract infection. After three months of therapy patient's serum creatinine levels were 10 mg/ ... Type II allergic reaction b)Type III allergic reaction c) Pseudo allergic reaction d) Overdose toxicity

Last Answer : d) Overdose toxicity 

When the nurse notes that the post cardiac surgery patient demonstrates low urine output (< 25 ml/hr) with high specific gravity (> 1.025), the nurse suspects: a) Inadequate fluid volume Urine output of less than 25 ml/hr may indicate a decrease in cardiac output. A high specific gravity indicates increased concentration of solutes in the urine which occurs with inadequate fluid volume. b) Normal glomerular filtration Indices of normal glomerular filtration are output of 25 ml or greater per hour and specific gravity between 1.010 and 1.025. c) Overhydration Overhydration is manifested by high urine output with low specific gravity. d) Anuria The anuric patient does not produce urine.

Description : When the nurse notes that the post cardiac surgery patient demonstrates low urine output (< 25 ml/hr) with high specific gravity (> 1.025), the nurse suspects: a) Inadequate fluid volume Urine ... by high urine output with low specific gravity. d) Anuria The anuric patient does not produce urine.

Last Answer : a) Inadequate fluid volume Urine output of less than 25 ml/hr may indicate a decrease in cardiac output. A high specific gravity indicates increased concentration of solutes in the urine which occurs with inadequate fluid volume.

During which step of the nursing process does the nurse analyze data related to the patient’s health status? a) Assessment Analysis of data is included as part of the assessment. b) Implementation Implementation is the actualization of the plan of care through nursing interventions. c) Diagnosis Diagnosis is the identification of patient problems. d) Evaluation Evaluation is the determination of the patient’s responses to the nursing interventions and the extent to which the outcomes have been achieved.

Description : During which step of the nursing process does the nurse analyze data related to the patient's health status? a) Assessment Analysis of data is included as part of the assessment. b) ... patient's responses to the nursing interventions and the extent to which the outcomes have been achieved.

Last Answer : a) Assessment Analysis of data is included as part of the assessment.

Which of the following terms is used to refer to inflammation of the renal pelvis? a) Pyelonephritis Pyelonephritis is an upper urinary tract inflammation, which may be acute or chronic.

Description : Which of the following terms is used to refer to inflammation of the renal pelvis? a) Pyelonephritis Pyelonephritis is an upper urinary tract inflammation, which may be acute or chronic. ... inflammation of the urethra. d) Interstitial nephritis Interstitial nephritis is inflammation of the kidney.

Last Answer : a) Pyelonephritis Pyelonephritis is an upper urinary tract inflammation, which may be acute or chronic.

Which of the following terms is given to hypertension in which the blood pressure, which is controlled with therapy, becomes uncontrolled (abnormally high) with the discontinuation of therapy? a) Rebound Rebound hypertension may precipitate a hypertensive crisis. b) Essential Essential or primary hypertension denotes high blood pressure from an unidentified source. c) Primary Essential or primary hypertension denotes high blood pressure from an unidentified source. d) Secondary Secondary hypertension denotes high blood pressure from an identified cause, such as renal disease.

Description : Which of the following terms is given to hypertension in which the blood pressure, which is controlled with therapy, becomes uncontrolled (abnormally high) with the discontinuation of therapy? ... Secondary hypertension denotes high blood pressure from an identified cause, such as renal disease.

Last Answer : a) Rebound Rebound hypertension may precipitate a hypertensive crisis.

34. The nurse monitors for signs of peritonitis, a potential complication postoperatively. The manifestations include the following except

Description : 34. The nurse monitors for signs of peritonitis, a potential complication postoperatively. The manifestations include the following except

Last Answer : D. Soft abdomen

A classic sign of cardiogenic shock is a) Tissue hypoperfusion Tissue hypoperfusion is manifested as cerebral hypoxia (restlessness, confusion, agitation). b) High blood pressure Low blood pressure is a classic sign of cardiogenic shock. c) Hyperactive bowel sounds Hypoactive bowel sounds are classic signs of cardiogenic shock. d) Increased urinary output Decreased urinary output is a classic sign of cardiogenic shock.

Description : A classic sign of cardiogenic shock is a) Tissue hypoperfusion Tissue hypoperfusion is manifested as cerebral hypoxia (restlessness, confusion, agitation). b) High blood pressure Low blood pressure is ... . d) Increased urinary output Decreased urinary output is a classic sign of cardiogenic shock.

Last Answer : a) Tissue hypoperfusion Tissue hypoperfusion is manifested as cerebral hypoxia (restlessness, confusion, agitation).

90. When a telephone order is made, it should be documented by the nurse who is receiving the order. The following should be included in the order to be executed except

Description : 90. When a telephone order is made, it should be documented by the nurse who is receiving the order. The following should be included in the order to be executed except

Last Answer : A. Time the call was made and its duration

Which of the following microorganisms is known to cause retinitis in people with HIV/AIDS? a) Cytomegalovirus Cytomegalovirus is a species-specific herpes virus.

Description : Which of the following microorganisms is known to cause retinitis in people with HIV/AIDS? a) Cytomegalovirus Cytomegalovirus is a species-specific herpes virus. b) Cryptococcus neoformans Cryptococcus neoformans is ... is thought to be protozoan but believed to be a fungus based on its structure.

Last Answer : a) Cytomegalovirus Cytomegalovirus is a species-specific herpes virus.

The nurse assesses the dressing of a patient with a basal skull fracture and sees the halo sign - a blood stain surrounded by a yellowish stain. The nurse knows that this sign a) is highly suggestive of a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak. The halo sign - a blood stain surrounded by a yellowish stain is highly suggestive of a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak.

Description : The nurse assesses the dressing of a patient with a basal skull fracture and sees the halo sign - a blood stain surrounded by a yellowish stain. The nurse knows that this sign a) is highly ... following a basal skull fracture. The halo sign is highly suggestive of a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak.

Last Answer : a) is highly suggestive of a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak. The halo sign - a blood stain surrounded by a yellowish stain is highly suggestive of a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak.

A patient who has had a previous stroke and is taking warfarin tells the nurse that he started taking garlic to help reduce his blood pressure. The nurse knows that garlic when taken together with warfarin a) can greatly increase the international normalization ratio (INR) and therefore increase the risk of bleeding. Garlic and warfarin taken together can greatly increase the INR, increasing the risk of bleeding.

Description : A patient who has had a previous stroke and is taking warfarin tells the nurse that he started taking garlic to help reduce his blood pressure. The nurse knows that garlic when taken ... headaches. Garlic and warfarin taken together can greatly increase the INR, increasing the risk of bleeding.

Last Answer : a) can greatly increase the international normalization ratio (INR) and therefore increase the risk of bleeding. Garlic and warfarin taken together can greatly increase the INR, increasing the risk of bleeding.

When the patient’s eosinophil count is 50-90% of blood leukocytes, the nurse interprets the result as a) indicative of idiopathic hypereosinophilic syndrome. When eosinophils make up 50-90% of white cell count, the patient is demonstrating severe eosinophilia.

Description : When the patient's eosinophil count is 50-90% of blood leukocytes, the nurse interprets the result as a) indicative of idiopathic hypereosinophilic syndrome. When eosinophils make up 50-90% of white cell ... d) normal. Eosinophils normally make up 1-3% of the total number of white blood cells.

Last Answer : a) indicative of idiopathic hypereosinophilic syndrome. When eosinophils make up 50-90% of white cell count, the patient is demonstrating severe eosinophilia.

The nurse places the patient after liver biopsy in which of the following positions? a) On the right side In this position, the liver capsule at the site of penetration is compressed against the chest wall, and the escape of blood or bile through the perforation made for the biopsy is impeded.

Description : The nurse places the patient after liver biopsy in which of the following positions? a) On the right side In this position, the liver capsule at the site of penetration is compressed against the chest ... . d) High Fowler's High Fowler's position is not indicated for the patient after liver biopsy.

Last Answer : a) On the right side In this position, the liver capsule at the site of penetration is compressed against the chest wall, and the escape of blood or bile through the perforation made for the biopsy is impeded.