To assess circulating oxygen levels the 2001 Kidney Disease Outcomes Quality Initiative: Management of Anemia Guidelines recommends the use of which of the following diagnostic tests? a) Hemoglobin Although hematocrit has always been the blood test of choice to assess for anemia, the 2001 Kidney Disease Outcomes Quality Initiative: Management of Anemia Guidelines, recommend that anemia be quantified using hemoglobin rather than hematocrit measurements, as it is more accurate in assessment of circulating oxygen.

To assess circulating oxygen levels the 2001 Kidney Disease
Outcomes Quality Initiative: Management of Anemia Guidelines
recommends the use of which of the following diagnostic tests?
a) Hemoglobin
Although hematocrit has always been the blood test of choice to
assess for anemia, the 2001 Kidney Disease Outcomes Quality
Initiative: Management of Anemia Guidelines, recommend that anemia
be quantified using hemoglobin rather than hematocrit measurements,
as it is more accurate in assessment of circulating oxygen.
b) Hematocrit
Hemoglobin is recommended as it is more accurate in the assessment
of circulating oxygen than hematocrit.
c) Serum iron levels
Serum iron levels measure iron storage in the body.
d) Arterial blood gases
Arterial blood gases assess the adequacy of oxygenation, ventilation,
and acid-base status.
by

1 Answer

Answer :

a) Hemoglobin
Although hematocrit has always been the blood test of choice to
assess for anemia, the 2001 Kidney Disease Outcomes Quality
Initiative: Management of Anemia Guidelines, recommend that anemia
be quantified using hemoglobin rather than hematocrit measurements,
as it is more accurate in assessment of circulating oxygen.
by

Related questions

Which of the following is/are acceptable reasons for the transfusion of red blood cells based on currently available data? A. Rapid, acute blood loss with unstable vital signs but no available hematocrit or hemoglobin determination. B. Symptomatic anemia: orthostatic hypotension, severe tachycardia (greater than 120 beats per minute), evidence of myocardial ischemia, including angina. C. To increase wound healing. D. A hematocrit of 26% in an otherwise stable, asymptomatic patient.

Description : Which of the following is/are acceptable reasons for the transfusion of red blood cells based on currently available data? A. Rapid, acute blood loss with unstable vital signs but no available ... increase wound healing. D. A hematocrit of 26% in an otherwise stable, asymptomatic patient.

Last Answer : Answer: AB DISCUSSION: Currently accepted guidelines for the transfusion of packed red blood cells include acute ongoing blood loss, as might occur in an injured patient, and the development of ... not be given based solely or predominantly on a numerical value such as a hematocrit of 28%

Of the following oxygen administration devices, which has the advantage of providing high oxygen concentration? a) Non-rebreather mask The non-rebreather mask provides high oxygen concentration but is usually poor fitting. b) Venturi mask The Venturi mask provides low levels of supplemental oxygen. c) Catheter The catheter is an inexpensive device that provides a variable fraction of inspired oxygen and may cause gastric distention. d) Face tent A face tent provides a fairly accurate fraction of inspired oxygen, but is bulky and uncomfortable. It would not be the device of choice to provide high oxygen concentration.

Description : Of the following oxygen administration devices, which has the advantage of providing high oxygen concentration? a) Non-rebreather mask The non-rebreather mask provides high oxygen concentration but is ... and uncomfortable. It would not be the device of choice to provide high oxygen concentration.

Last Answer : a) Non-rebreather mask The non-rebreather mask provides high oxygen concentration but is usually poor fitting.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the diagnosis and management of hypovolemic shock? a. A fall in hematocrit or hemoglobin always accompanies hemorrhagic shock b. The treatment of shock is generic regardless of the etiology c. Pharmacologic intervention to increase myocardial contractility in hypovolemic shock is an important part the early management d. Complications are less frequent after treatment of hemorrhagic shock than septic or traumatic shock

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning the diagnosis and management of hypovolemic shock? a. A fall in hematocrit or hemoglobin always accompanies hemorrhagic shock b. The ... d. Complications are less frequent after treatment of hemorrhagic shock than septic or traumatic shock

Last Answer : Answer: d Hypovolemic shock is readily diagnosed when there is an obvious source of volume loss and overt signs of hemodynamic instability and increased adrenergic output are present. ... response systems and consequences of their disseminated, indiscriminate cellular injury can be quite profound

During which step of the nursing process does the nurse analyze data related to the patient’s health status? a) Assessment Analysis of data is included as part of the assessment. b) Implementation Implementation is the actualization of the plan of care through nursing interventions. c) Diagnosis Diagnosis is the identification of patient problems. d) Evaluation Evaluation is the determination of the patient’s responses to the nursing interventions and the extent to which the outcomes have been achieved.

Description : During which step of the nursing process does the nurse analyze data related to the patient's health status? a) Assessment Analysis of data is included as part of the assessment. b) ... patient's responses to the nursing interventions and the extent to which the outcomes have been achieved.

Last Answer : a) Assessment Analysis of data is included as part of the assessment.

Of the following tests, which uses a tuning fork between two positions to assess hearing? a) Rinne’s In the Rinne’s test, the examiner shifts the stem of a vibrating tuning fork between two positions to test air conduction of sound and bone conduction of sound.

Description : Of the following tests, which uses a tuning fork between two positions to assess hearing? a) Rinne's In the Rinne's test, the examiner shifts the stem of a vibrating tuning fork between two positions ... 's auricle. d) Weber's The Weber's test uses bone conduction to test lateralization of sound.

Last Answer : a) Rinne’s In the Rinne’s test, the examiner shifts the stem of a vibrating tuning fork between two positions to test air conduction of sound and bone conduction of sound.

Which of the following items is considered the single most important factor in assisting the health professional in arriving at a diagnosis or determining the person’s needs? a) History of present illness The history of the present illness is the single most important factor in assisting the health professional in arriving at a diagnosis or determining the person’s needs. b) Physical examination The physical examination is helpful but often only validates the information obtained from the history. c) Diagnostic test results Diagnostic test results can be helpful, but they often only verify rather than establish the diagnosis. d) Biographical data Biographical information puts the health history in context but does not focus the diagnosis.

Description : Which of the following items is considered the single most important factor in assisting the health professional in arriving at a diagnosis or determining the person's needs? a) History of ... data Biographical information puts the health history in context but does not focus the diagnosis.

Last Answer : a) History of present illness The history of the present illness is the single most important factor in assisting the health professional in arriving at a diagnosis or determining the person’s needs.

Asking the patient questions to determine if the person understands the health teaching provided would be included during which step of the nursing process? a) Evaluation Evaluation includes observing the person, asking questions, and comparing the patient’s behavioral responses with the expected outcomes. b) Assessment Assessment includes determining the patient’s readiness regarding learning. c) Planning and goals Planning includes identification of teaching strategies and writing the teaching plan. d) Implementation Implementation is the step during which the teaching plan is put into action.

Description : Asking the patient questions to determine if the person understands the health teaching provided would be included during which step of the nursing process? a) Evaluation Evaluation includes observing ... ) Implementation Implementation is the step during which the teaching plan is put into action.

Last Answer : a) Evaluation Evaluation includes observing the person, asking questions, and comparing the patient’s behavioral responses with the expected outcomes.

Which nerve is assessed when the nurse asks the patient to spread all fingers? a) Ulnar Asking the patient to spread all fingers allows the nurse to assess motor function affected by ulnar innervation while pricking the fat pad at the top of the small finger allows assessment of the sensory function affected by the ulnar nerve. b) Peroneal The peroneal nerve is assessed by asking the patient to dorsiflex the ankle and extend the toes. c) Radial The radial nerve is assessed by asking the patient to stretch out the thumb, then the wrist, and then the fingers at the metacarpal joints. d) Median The median nerve is assessed by asking the patient to touch the thumb to the little finger.

Description : Which nerve is assessed when the nurse asks the patient to spread all fingers? a) Ulnar Asking the patient to spread all fingers allows the nurse to assess motor function affected by ulnar innervation ... The median nerve is assessed by asking the patient to touch the thumb to the little finger.

Last Answer : a) Ulnar Asking the patient to spread all fingers allows the nurse to assess motor function affected by ulnar innervation while pricking the fat pad at the top of the small finger allows assessment of the sensory function affected by the ulnar nerve.

Which of the following statements describes accurate information related to chronic illness? a) Most people with chronic conditions do not consider themselves sick or ill. Although some people take on a sick role identity, most people with chronic conditions do not consider themselves sick or ill and try to live

Description : Which of the following statements describes accurate information related to chronic illness? a) Most people with chronic conditions do not consider themselves sick or ill. Although some people ... are easily controlled. Many chronic conditions require therapeutic regimens to keep them under control.

Last Answer : a) Most people with chronic conditions do not consider themselves sick or ill. Although some people take on a sick role identity, most people with chronic conditions do not consider themselves sick or ill and try to live as normal a life as is possible.

Regarding tolerance and addiction, the nurse understands that a) although patients may need increasing levels of opioids, they are not addicted. Physical tolerance usually occurs in the absence of addiction. b) tolerance to opioids is uncommon. Tolerance to opioids is common. c) addiction to opioids commonly develops. Addiction to opioids is rare. d) the nurse must be primarily concerned about development of addiction by the patient in pain. Addiction is rare and should never be the primary concern for a patient in pain.

Description : Regarding tolerance and addiction, the nurse understands that a) although patients may need increasing levels of opioids, they are not addicted. Physical tolerance usually occurs in the absence of addiction. b ... pain. Addiction is rare and should never be the primary concern for a patient in pain.

Last Answer : a) although patients may need increasing levels of opioids, they are not addicted. Physical tolerance usually occurs in the absence of addiction.

Nurse Mercy is setting up for an emergency caesarian section. The linen packs were damp although these were just taken from the sterilizer. The nurse’s appropriate action is A. Bring the linen packs back to the Central Supply section for quality control B. Change the damp linen pack C. Open the linen pack and allow to dry D. Do not use the damp linen

Description : Nurse Mercy is setting up for an emergency caesarian section. The linen packs were damp although these were just taken from the sterilizer. The nurse's appropriate action is A. Bring the linen packs back to the ... linen pack C. Open the linen pack and allow to dry D. Do not use the damp linen

Last Answer : D. Do not use the damp linen

Budgeting money to Quality initiative will lead to these outcomes except: a. decrease R&D time. b. increase Demand. c. increase Labor Costs. d. increase efficiency. e. produce administrative savings.

Description : Budgeting money to Quality initiative will lead to these outcomes except: a. decrease R&D time. b. increase Demand. c. increase Labor Costs. d. increase efficiency. e. produce administrative savings.

Last Answer : c. increase Labor Costs.

A diagnostic test that involves injection of a contrast media into the venous system through a dorsal vein in the foot is termed a) contrast phlebography. When a thrombus exists, an x-ray image will disclose an unfilled segment of a vein. b) air plethysmography Air plethysmography quantifies venous reflux and calf muscle pump ejection.

Description : A diagnostic test that involves injection of a contrast media into the venous system through a dorsal vein in the foot is termed a) contrast phlebography. When a thrombus exists, an x ... d) lymphoscintigraphy. In lymphoscintigraphy, a radioactive-labeled colloid is injected into the lymph system.

Last Answer : a) contrast phlebography. When a thrombus exists, an x-ray image will disclose an unfilled segment of a vein.

67. The physician ordered bilateral lower extremities Doppler ultrasound. Which of the following is the physician interested to find out through this diagnostic test?

Description : 67. The physician ordered bilateral lower extremities Doppler ultrasound. Which of the following is the physician interested to find out through this diagnostic test?

Last Answer : C. Occlusion of large vessels and arterioles

Which of the following categories identifies the focus of community/public health nursing practice? a) Promoting and maintaining the health of populations and preventing and minimizing the progress of disease Although nursing interventions used by public health nurses might involve individuals, families, or small groups, the central focus remains promoting health and preventing disease in the entire community. b) Rehabilitation and restorative services Rehabilitation and restorative services are the focus of extended care facilities and home care nursing.

Description : Which of the following categories identifies the focus of community/public health nursing practice? a) Promoting and maintaining the health of populations and preventing and minimizing the progress of ... care delivery Hospice care delivery refers to the delivery of services to the terminally ill.

Last Answer : a) Promoting and maintaining the health of populations and preventing and minimizing the progress of disease Although nursing interventions used by public health nurses might involve individuals, ... , the central focus remains promoting health and preventing disease in the entire community.

The nurse recommends which of the following types of therapeutic baths for its antipruritic action? a) Colloidal (Aveeno, oatmeal) Aveeno or oatmeal baths are recommended to decrease itching associated with a dermatologic disorder.

Description : The nurse recommends which of the following types of therapeutic baths for its antipruritic action? a) Colloidal (Aveeno, oatmeal) Aveeno or oatmeal baths are recommended to decrease itching ... Saline Saline baths have the same effects as saline dressings, not known to counteract itching.

Last Answer : a) Colloidal (Aveeno, oatmeal) Aveeno or oatmeal baths are recommended to decrease itching associated with a dermatologic disorder.

Of the following hemolytic anemias, which is categorized as inherited? a) Sickle cell anemia Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency is an inherited abnormality resulting in hemolytic anemia. b) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia Autoimmune hemolytic anemia is an acquired anemia. c) Cold agglutinin disease Cold agglutinin disease is an acquired anemia. d) Hypersplenism Hypersplenism results in an acquired hemolytic anemia.

Description : Of the following hemolytic anemias, which is categorized as inherited? a) Sickle cell anemia Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency is an inherited abnormality resulting in hemolytic anemia. b ... is an acquired anemia. d) Hypersplenism Hypersplenism results in an acquired hemolytic anemia.

Last Answer : a) Sickle cell anemia Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency is an inherited abnormality resulting in hemolytic anemia.

51. Albert came to the hospital with chest pain and fever. After a thorough assessment by the doctor, he was admitted for pericarditis management. The nurse positions the client to reduce pain and discomfort. Describe this position.

Description : 51. Albert came to the hospital with chest pain and fever. After a thorough assessment by the doctor, he was admitted for pericarditis management. The nurse positions the client to reduce pain and discomfort. Describe this position.

Last Answer : C. Sit the client upright and lean forward

Which of the following mitral valve conditions generally produces no symptoms? a) Prolapse Mitral valve prolpase is a deformity that usually produces no symptoms and has been diagnosed more frequently in recent years, probably as a result of improved diagnostic methods. b) Stenosis Mitral valve stenosis usually causes progressive fatigue. c) Regurgitation Mitral valve regurgitation, in its acute stage, usually presents as severe heart failure. d) Infection Mitral valve infection, when acute, will produce symptoms typical of infective endocarditis.

Description : Which of the following mitral valve conditions generally produces no symptoms? a) Prolapse Mitral valve prolpase is a deformity that usually produces no symptoms and has been diagnosed more ... ) Infection Mitral valve infection, when acute, will produce symptoms typical of infective endocarditis.

Last Answer : a) Prolapse Mitral valve prolpase is a deformity that usually produces no symptoms and has been diagnosed more frequently in recent years, probably as a result of improved diagnostic methods.

Central venous pressure is measured in which of the following heart chambers? a) Right atrium The pressure in the right atrium is used to assess right ventricular function and venous blood return to the heart. b) Left atrium The left atrium receives oxygenated blood from the pulmonary circulation. c) Left ventricle The left ventricle receives oxygenated blood from the left atrium. d) Right ventricle The right ventricle is not the central collecting chamber of venous circulation.

Description : Central venous pressure is measured in which of the following heart chambers? a) Right atrium The pressure in the right atrium is used to assess right ventricular function and venous blood return ... d) Right ventricle The right ventricle is not the central collecting chamber of venous circulation.

Last Answer : a) Right atrium The pressure in the right atrium is used to assess right ventricular function and venous blood return to the heart.

Which of the following terms refers to an abnormal decrease in white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets? a) Pancytopenia Pancytopenia may be congenital or acquired. b) Anemia Anemia refers to decreased red cell mass. c) Leukopenia Leukopenia refers to a less-than-normal amount of WBCs in circulation. d) Thrombocytopenia Thrombocytopenia refers to a lower-than-normal platelet count.

Description : Which of the following terms refers to an abnormal decrease in white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets? a) Pancytopenia Pancytopenia may be congenital or acquired. b) Anemia ... of WBCs in circulation. d) Thrombocytopenia Thrombocytopenia refers to a lower-than-normal platelet count.

Last Answer : a) Pancytopenia Pancytopenia may be congenital or acquired.

Which of the following terms is used to describe inability to breathe easily except in an upright position? a) Orthopnea Patients with orthopnea are placed in a high Fowler’s position to facilitate breathing. b) Dyspnea Dyspnea refers to labored breathing or shortness of breath. c) Hemoptysis Hemoptysis refers to expectoration of blood from the respiratory tract. d) Hypoxemia Hypoxemia refers to low oxygen levels in the blood.

Description : Which of the following terms is used to describe inability to breathe easily except in an upright position? a) Orthopnea Patients with orthopnea are placed in a high Fowler's position to facilitate ... blood from the respiratory tract. d) Hypoxemia Hypoxemia refers to low oxygen levels in the blood.

Last Answer : a) Orthopnea Patients with orthopnea are placed in a high Fowler’s position to facilitate breathing.

Which type of jaundice in adults is the result of increased destruction of red blood cells? a) Hemolytic Hemolytic jaundice results because, although the liver is functioning normally, it cannot excrete the bilirubin as quickly as it is formed.

Description : Which type of jaundice in adults is the result of increased destruction of red blood cells? a) Hemolytic Hemolytic jaundice results because, although the liver is functioning normally, it cannot ... is the result of liver disease. d) Non-obstructive Non-obstructive jaundice occurs with hepatitis.

Last Answer : a) Hemolytic Hemolytic jaundice results because, although the liver is functioning normally, it cannot excrete the bilirubin as quickly as it is formed.

The function of hemoglobin is------? A. Transportation of oxygen (Answer) B. Destruction of bacteria C. Prevention of anemia D. Utilization of energy

Description : The function of hemoglobin is------? A. Transportation of oxygen (Answer) B. Destruction of bacteria C. Prevention of anemia D. Utilization of energy

Last Answer : A. Transportation of oxygen (Answer)

The function of hemoglobin is A.Transportation of oxygen B.Destruction of bacteria C.Prevention of anemia D.Utilization of energy

Description : The function of hemoglobin is A.Transportation of oxygen B.Destruction of bacteria C.Prevention of anemia D.Utilization of energy

Last Answer : A.Transportation of oxygen

The following statement(s) is/are true concerning initial microbiologic diagnostic techniques. a. Appropriate expeditious transport of specimens to the microbiology laboratory is essential for obtaining accurate clinical information b. The use of potassium hydroxide in preparing a specimen slide for light microscopy will be useful in identification of anaerobic bacteria c. Antibiotic sensitivity is determined by exposing the specific microorganism to varying amounts of antibiotic with the concentration of the antibiotic inhibiting growth referred to as the MIC (minimal inhibitory concentration) d. Serum levels of antimicrobial agents should achieve in excess of a 4-to 8-fold increase over the MIC to be considered clinically efficacious.

Description : The following statement(s) is/are true concerning initial microbiologic diagnostic techniques. a. Appropriate expeditious transport of specimens to the microbiology laboratory is essential for obtaining accurate ... a 4-to 8-fold increase over the MIC to be considered clinically efficacious.

Last Answer : Answer: a, c, d Because most surgical infections are polymicrobial, specimens should be cultured for aerobic and anaerobic bacteria, as well as fungi. Although aerobic and aerotolerant ... fold increase over MIC during the peak serum level have been demonstrated to be clinically efficacious

Rank the following laboratory tests and procedures in terms of their relative value to a 65-year-old woman who is to undergo elective resection of a sigmoid cancer. A. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA). B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN). C. Electrocardiogram (ECG). D. Hemoglobin concentration (Hgb). E. Serum creatinine (Cr). F. Arterial blood oxygen tension (PaO 2) on room air. G. Serum sodium concentration (Na+).

Description : Rank the following laboratory tests and procedures in terms of their relative value to a 65-year-old woman who is to undergo elective resection of a sigmoid cancer. A. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA). B. ... Arterial blood oxygen tension (PaO 2) on room air. G. Serum sodium concentration (Na+).

Last Answer : Answer: CDFEBAG DISCUSSION: The most important test by far is the electrocardiogram, with its capacity to indicate signs of occult heart disease. The second most important evaluation is the hemoglobin ... for resection of the colon is always normal and would be of least value among these tests

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning hypoadrenal shock? a. In the United States, idiopathic adrenal atrophy (Addison’s disease) is the most common cause b. Laboratory abnormalities include hyponatremia, hypochloremia, and hyperkalemia c. Fever may be seen with hypoadrenal shock d. ACTH stimulation test is the diagnostic test of choice to confirm hypoadrenal shock

Description : Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning hypoadrenal shock? a. In the United States, idiopathic adrenal atrophy (Addison's disease) is the most common cause b. Laboratory ... hypoadrenal shock d. ACTH stimulation test is the diagnostic test of choice to confirm hypoadrenal shock

Last Answer : Answer: b, c, d Shock of a dramatic nature, poorly responsive to resuscitation, may develop as a consequence of adrenal insufficiency. In this country, adrenal insufficiency most ... of an ACTH stimulation test. A significant major cortisol response should be elicited by ACTH administration

The clinical instructor assigned a nursing student to assist the operation. When the nursing student entered the OR suite, her curly long hair was not covered by the head cap. What would the circulating nurse do? A. Welcome the nursing student to the OR B. Request the clinical instructor to tell the nursing student to use the head cap properly C. Assist the nursing student to tuck-in all her hair inside the head cap D. Do not allow the nursing student to scrub in

Description : The clinical instructor assigned a nursing student to assist the operation. When the nursing student entered the OR suite, her curly long hair was not covered by the head cap. What would the circulating nurse ... in all her hair inside the head cap D. Do not allow the nursing student to scrub in

Last Answer : D. Remind the surgeon to scrub again

During which stage of the immune response does the circulating lymphocyte containing the antigenic message return to the nearest lymph node? a) Proliferation Once in the node, the sensitized lymphocyte stimulates some of the resident dormant T and B lymphocytes to enlarge, divide, and proliferate.

Description : During which stage of the immune response does the circulating lymphocyte containing the antigenic message return to the nearest lymph node? a) Proliferation Once in the node, the sensitized lymphocyte ... cellular response reaches and couples with the antigen on the surface of the foreign invader.

Last Answer : a) Proliferation Once in the node, the sensitized lymphocyte stimulates some of the resident dormant T and B lymphocytes to enlarge, divide, and proliferate.

Which of the following disorders is characterized by a group of symptoms produced by an excess of free circulating cortisol from the adrenal cortex? a) Cushing’s syndrome The patient with Cushing’s syndrome demonstrates truncal obesity, moon face, acne, abdominal striae, and hypertension.

Description : Which of the following disorders is characterized by a group of symptoms produced by an excess of free circulating cortisol from the adrenal cortex? a) Cushing's syndrome The patient ... individual with Hashimoto's disease demonstrates inflammation of the thyroid gland, resulting in hypothyroidism.

Last Answer : a) Cushing’s syndrome The patient with Cushing’s syndrome demonstrates truncal obesity, moon face, acne, abdominal striae, and hypertension.

84. The circulating nurse will document “surgical count” in which of the following?

Description : 84. The circulating nurse will document “surgical count” in which of the following?

Last Answer : B. Intraoperative record

83. The scrub nurse and circulating nurse also counted the sharps and miscellaneous items like instruments before the procedure. Continuous accounting for these items can primarily

Description : 83. The scrub nurse and circulating nurse also counted the sharps and miscellaneous items like instruments before the procedure. Continuous accounting for these items can primarily

Last Answer : C. Minimize injuries and/or liabilities to sterile surgical team

81. The scrub and circulating nurse should perform sponge count during which phases of an abdominal hysterectomy procedure? 1. Before the procedure 2. Before closing the endometrium 3. Before closing the peritoneum 4. At the skin closure 5. When the scrub nurse goes for a lunch break

Description : 81. The scrub and circulating nurse should perform sponge count during which phases of an abdominal hysterectomy procedure? 1. Before the procedure 2. Before closing the endometrium 3. Before closing the peritoneum 4. At the skin closure 5. When the scrub nurse goes for a lunch break

Last Answer : A. All except 5

76. A client is being positioned for radical vulvectomy and a couple of clinical clerks wanted to come in to watch the surgery. The circulating nurse advise them to enter the OR suite later. Foremost, this decision of the nurse is directed towards

Description : 76. A client is being positioned for radical vulvectomy and a couple of clinical clerks wanted to come in to watch the surgery. The circulating nurse advise them to enter the OR suite later. Foremost, this decision of the nurse is directed towards

Last Answer : D. Preserving privacy

When the intern-in-charge did the skin prep and catheterized the client, the circulating nurse noticed when the intern withdrew the catheter from the vagina. What is your appropriate and immediate action? A. Stop the intern and do the catheterization yourself B. Offer to change the catheter C. Alcoholize the tip of the catheter before reinserting the catheter

Description : When the intern-in-charge did the skin prep and catheterized the client, the circulating nurse noticed when the intern withdrew the catheter from the vagina. What is your appropriate and ... . Offer to change the catheter C. Alcoholize the tip of the catheter before reinserting the catheter

Last Answer : B. Offer to change the catheter

Which skill needed by the nurse to think critically involves identification of patient problems indicated by data? a) Analysis Analysis is used to identify patient problems indicated by data. b) Interpretation Interpretation is used to determine the significance of data that is gathered. c) Inferencing Inferences are used by the nurse to draw conclusions. d) Explanation Explanation is the justification of actions or interventions used to address patient problems and to help a patient move toward desired outcomes.

Description : Which skill needed by the nurse to think critically involves identification of patient problems indicated by data? a) Analysis Analysis is used to identify patient problems indicated by data. b) ... or interventions used to address patient problems and to help a patient move toward desired outcomes.

Last Answer : a) Analysis Analysis is used to identify patient problems indicated by data.

If a case of smallpox is suspected, the nurse should a) Call the CDC Emergency Preparedness Office. Anyone suspecting a case of smallpox should call the CDC Emergency Preparedness Office at 770-488-7100. The CDC will respond by immmediate provision of diagnostic support and eventual release of vaccine if a case is confirmed. Until instructed otherwise by the CDC, healthcare providers should carefully establish isolation with negative pressure, and maintain thorough lists of all those who have contact with the patient.

Description : If a case of smallpox is suspected, the nurse should a) Call the CDC Emergency Preparedness Office. Anyone suspecting a case of smallpox should call the CDC Emergency Preparedness Office ... very different from that of chickenpox. With chickenpox, lesions appear at different developmental stages.

Last Answer : a) Call the CDC Emergency Preparedness Office. Anyone suspecting a case of smallpox should call the CDC Emergency Preparedness Office at 770-488-7100. The CDC will respond by immmediate provision ... with negative pressure, and maintain thorough lists of all those who have contact with the patient.

For women aged 19-39 years, recommended health screening diagnostic testing includes which of the following? a) Pap smear A Pap smear is recommended for women aged 19-39 years, as well as for women aged 40 and older. b) Mammography Mammography is recommended for health screening for women aged 40 years and older. c) Cholesterol and lipid profile Cholesterol and lipid profile is recommended for women aged 40 years and older. d) Bone mineral density testing Bone mineral density testing is recommended for women aged 40 years and older.

Description : For women aged 19-39 years, recommended health screening diagnostic testing includes which of the following? a) Pap smear A Pap smear is recommended for women aged 19-39 years, as well as ... Bone mineral density testing Bone mineral density testing is recommended for women aged 40 years and older.

Last Answer : a) Pap smear A Pap smear is recommended for women aged 19-39 years, as well as for women aged 40 and older.

To confirm the diagnosis of cholecystitis, the attending physician ordered a procedure that can detect gallstones as small as 1 – 2 cm and inflammation. The nurse would prepare the client for which specific diagnostic procedure? A. Cholangiography B. Ultrasonography C. Gall bladder series D. Oral cholecystogram

Description : To confirm the diagnosis of cholecystitis, the attending physician ordered a procedure that can detect gallstones as small as 1 - 2 cm and inflammation. The nurse would prepare ... specific diagnostic procedure? A. Cholangiography B. Ultrasonography C. Gall bladder series D. Oral cholecystogram

Last Answer : B. Ultrasonography

Which nerve is assessed when the nurse asks the patient to dorsiflex the ankle and extend the toes? a) Peroneal The motor function of the peroneal nerve is assessed by asking the patient to dorsiflex the ankle and extend the toes while the sensory function is assessed by pricking the skin between the great and center toes. b) Radial The radial nerve is assessed by asking the patient to stretch out the thumb, then the wrist, and then the fingers at the metacarpal joints. c) Median The median nerve is assessed by asking the patient to touch the thumb to the little finger. d) Ulnar Asking the patient to spread all fingers allows the nurse to assess motor function affected by ulnar innervation.

Description : Which nerve is assessed when the nurse asks the patient to dorsiflex the ankle and extend the toes? a) Peroneal The motor function of the peroneal nerve is assessed by asking the patient to ... the patient to spread all fingers allows the nurse to assess motor function affected by ulnar innervation.

Last Answer : a) Peroneal The motor function of the peroneal nerve is assessed by asking the patient to dorsiflex the ankle and extend the toes while the sensory function is assessed by pricking the skin between the great and center toes.

75. At the start of thyroid replacement post-total thyroidectomy, the nurse must monitor for side effects. Which side effects would the nurse expect to assess? 1. Hypertension 2. Tremors 3. Hirsutism 4. Insomnia 5. Tachycardia 6. Hyperglycemia

Description : 75. At the start of thyroid replacement post-total thyroidectomy, the nurse must monitor for side effects. Which side effects would the nurse expect to assess? 1. Hypertension 2. Tremors 3. Hirsutism 4. Insomnia 5. Tachycardia 6. Hyperglycemia

Last Answer : A. 3, 4, 5, and 6

As the nurse monitors the client, she notices a bright red spot on the dressings which measures 4cm in diameter. The nurse should initially do which appropriate nursing intervention? A. Change the top dressing B. Continue to monitor the vital signs C. Notify the clients surgeon of a potential hemorrhage D. Assess the presence of a drain

Description : As the nurse monitors the client, she notices a bright red spot on the dressings which measures 4cm in diameter. The nurse should initially do which appropriate nursing intervention? A. Change the ... C. Notify the clients surgeon of a potential hemorrhage D. Assess the presence of a drain

Last Answer : D. Assess the presence of a drain

After admitting the patient to the PACU, the first action of the nurse would be to A. Assess patency of the airway B. Check the rate of the IV infusion C. Monitor the vital signs D. Assess the clients pain

Description : After admitting the patient to the PACU, the first action of the nurse would be to A. Assess patency of the airway B. Check the rate of the IV infusion C. Monitor the vital signs D. Assess the clients pain

Last Answer : A. Assess patency of the airway

Which of the following terms related to aphasia refers to the inability to perform previously learned purposeful motor acts on a voluntary basis? a) Apraxia Verbal apraxia refers to difficulty in forming and organizing intelligible words although the musculature is intact.

Description : Which of the following terms related to aphasia refers to the inability to perform previously learned purposeful motor acts on a voluntary basis? a) Apraxia Verbal apraxia refers to difficulty in ... continued and automatic repetition of an activity or word or phrase that is no longer appropriate.

Last Answer : a) Apraxia Verbal apraxia refers to difficulty in forming and organizing intelligible words although the musculature is intact.

Which of the following statements reflect the treatment of HIV infection? a) Treatment of HIV infection for an individual patient is based on the clinical condition of the patient, CD4 T cell count level, and HIV RNA (viral load). Although specific therapies vary, treatment of HIV infection for an individual patient is based on three factors: the clinical condition of the patient, CD4 T cell count level, and HIV RNA (viral load).

Description : Which of the following statements reflect the treatment of HIV infection? a) Treatment of HIV infection for an individual patient is based on the clinical condition of the patient, CD4 T cell count level, and ... CD4+ T cells/mm3 or plasma HIV RNA levels exceeding 55,000 copies/mL (RT-PCR assay).

Last Answer : a) Treatment of HIV infection for an individual patient is based on the clinical condition of the patient, CD4 T cell count level, and HIV RNA (viral load). Although specific therapies vary, treatment of ... : the clinical condition of the patient, CD4 T cell count level, and HIV RNA (viral load).

The nurse notes that the patient demonstrates generalized pallor and recognizes that this finding may be indicative of a) anemia. In the light-skinned individual, generalized pallor is a manifestation of anemia. In brown- and black-skinned individuals, anemia is demonstrated as a dull skin appearance.

Description : The nurse notes that the patient demonstrates generalized pallor and recognizes that this finding may be indicative of a) anemia. In the light-skinned individual, generalized pallor is a ... . d) local arterial insufficiency. Local arterial insufficiency is characterized by marked localized pallor.

Last Answer : a) anemia. In the light-skinned individual, generalized pallor is a manifestation of anemia. In brown- and black-skinned individuals, anemia is demonstrated as a dull skin appearance.