Description : ATC will only report wind as gusting if: a. Gust speed exceeds mean speed by >15kts b. Gusts to over 25kts c. Gusts exceed mean speed by 10kts d. Gusts to under 25kts
Last Answer : c. Gusts exceed mean speed by 10kts
Description : Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the METAR? 00000KT 0200 R14/0800U R16/P1500U FZFG VV001 m03/m03 Q1022 BECMG 0800 = a. Meteorological visibility 200m, RVR for ... 800m, vertical visibility 100ft, calm, meteorological visibility improving to 800m in the next 2 hours
Last Answer : d. RVR for runway 14 800m, vertical visibility 100ft, calm, meteorological visibility improving to 800m in the next 2 hours
Description : With regard to RVR and Met vis: a. Met vis is usually less than RVR b. Met vis is usually greater than RVR c. RVR is usually less than met vis d. Met vis and RVR are usually the same
Last Answer : a. Met vis is usually less than RVR
Description : An aeroplane is starting a non-precision approach with an MDH of 250ft and minimum visibility of 800 meters. ATC gives threshold, mid-runway and final third RVRs. When may the approach be started? ... than 800m. RVR is for precision approaches only. d. When threshold RVR is greater than 800m
Last Answer : d. When threshold RVR is greater than 800m
Description : You make a diversion from the route given in the flight plan and land at an uncontrolled airfield. Within what time after landing should you inform ATC? a. 10 mins b. 20 mins c. 30 mins d. 45 mins
Last Answer : c. 30 mins
Description : Your action in response to the instruction from ATC to “RESET SQUAWK” is to
Last Answer : reselect the numbers on the control unit
Description : The instruction “ORBIT”from ATC means that the aircraft should:
Last Answer : carry out one 360 degree turn only
Description : The instruction from ATC to an aircraft to abandon its take off includes the phrase:
Last Answer : STOP IMMEDIATELY
Description : The response to general call from ATC is for the aircraft to:
Last Answer : give no response
Description : The phrase “BRAKING CO-EFFICIENT 20” from ATC means that the braking action is:
Last Answer : poor
Description : The instruction “ORBIT” from ATC means that the aircraft should: a. Carry out a go around b. Continue with 360 degree turns c. Carry out one 360 degree turn only d. Reverse the direction of the turn
Last Answer : c. Carry out one 360 degree turn only
Description : The minimum content of a readback of the message from ATC “X-CD CHANGE FREQUENCY TO STEPHENVILLE TOWER 118.7” is: a. 118.7 b. CHANGING FREQUENCY X-CD c. TO STEPHENVILLE X-CD d. 118.7 X-CD
Last Answer : d. 118.7 X-CD
Description : The frequency on which ATIS can be found is: a. Discrete VHF or VOR frequency b. Discrete VHF only c. VOR frequency only d. Any ATC frequency
Last Answer : a. Discrete VHF or VOR frequency
Description : The response to general call from ATC is for the aircraft to: a. Respond in alphabetic order b. Respond in numerical order c. Give no response d. Request a repeat of the message
Last Answer : c. Give no response
Description : The ATC message “DISTRESS TRAFFIC ENDED” signifies that: a. All traffic are to end their transmissions b. All aircraft on the frequency are to change to another frequency c. Normal ATC is resumed after an emergency d. ATC is shutting shop
Last Answer : c. Normal ATC is resumed after an emergency
Description : The phrase “BRAKING CO-EFFICIENT 20” from ATC means that braking action: a. Poor b. Medium to poor c. Medium d. Slippery
Last Answer : a. Poor
Description : . If a transponder is unserviceable before an IFR departure, then the pilot: a. Has to cancel the flight b. May proceed with the flight with ATC permission c. Has to fly low level only d. Should fly for another company
Last Answer : b. May proceed with the flight with ATC permission
Description : The message “CHECK” to an aircraft means that you should: a. Confirm that you received and understood the last message b. Pass the required information to ATC c. Stay where you are d. Examine a system or procedure
Last Answer : d. Examine a system or procedure
Description : Clearance limit is defined as: a. The flight level to which an aircraft is granted ATC clearance b. The time at which the ATC clearance expires c. The point to which aircraft is granted ATC clearance d. The height below which you will hit the first obstacle
Last Answer : c. The point to which aircraft is granted ATC clearance
Description : f an ATC clearance is not suitable, the PIC may: a. Offer ATC an acceptable clearance b. Request and if practicable accept an amended clearance c. Demand an alternative clearance and ATC must comply d. Decline the clearance on the grounds that it is not in accordance with the field flight plan
Last Answer : b. Request and if practicable accept an amended clearance
Description : Aircraft A flies in VMC with an ATC clearance within a control area. Aircraft B without ATC clearance approaches at roughly the same height on a converging heading. Who has the right of way? a. Aircraft A, regardless of ... A, if B is to the right of him d. Aircraft B, if A is to the left of him
Last Answer : d. Aircraft B, if A is to the left of him
Description : The person having overall responsibility of an aircraft during flight is the: a. Pilot in command b. Operator c. ATC controller if the aircraft is in controlled airspace d. Owner of the aircraft
Last Answer : a. Pilot in command
Description : The transition from IFR to VFR is done: a. On the Captain’s initiative b. Whenever an aircraft in VMC leaves controlled airspace c. If told by ATC d. At the clearance limit, disregarding the weather situation
Last Answer : a. On the Captain’s initiative
Description : When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall continuously operate this mode: a. Only when directed by ATC b. Unless otherwise directed by ATC c. Only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace d. Regardless of ATC instructions
Last Answer : b. Unless otherwise directed by ATC
Description : Pilots are not allowed to use the indent function on their SSR, unless: a. They operate outside controlled airspace b. If asked by ATC c. Within controlled airspace d. They operate a transponder with mode C
Last Answer : b. If asked by ATC
Description : When the Captain cannot comply with an ATC clearance: a. The Captain must accept the ATC clearance, because it is based on a filed flight plan b. He/she may request an amended clearance and, if ... appropriate ATC must grant him/her that clearance d. He/she may suggest a new clearance to ATC
Last Answer : b. He/she may request an amended clearance and, if executable, he/she will accept that clearance
Description : If the track on an instrument departure is published, the pilot is expected to: a. Correct for the correct wind so as to stay within controlled airspace b. Ask ATC for another heading to steer ... proceed with a heading equal to the track d. Ask ATC for permission to correct heading for wind
Last Answer : a. Correct for the correct wind so as to stay within controlled airspace
Description : A controlled flight is required to inform the concerned ATC unit when the average TAS at cruising level deviates or is expected to deviate compared to that given TAS in the Flight Plan by at least plus or minus: a. 10% b. 3% c. 5% d. 2%
Last Answer : d. 2%
Description : Except when cleared by an ATC unit, a VFR flight cannot enter or leave a Control Zone when the cloud base is lower than: a. 1000 feet and less than 8km visibility b. 2000 feet and less than 5km visibility c. 1500 feet or less than 5km visibility d. 1000 feet and less than 5km visibility
Last Answer : c. 1500 feet or less than 5km visibility
Description : In which weather report would you expect to find information about icing conditions on the runway? a. GAFOR b. TAF c. METAR d. SIGMET
Last Answer : c. METAR
Description : Your reply to the message “REPORT FLIGHT CONDITONS” should be
Last Answer : VMC/IMC
Description : Your reply to the message “REPORT FLIGHT CONDITIONS” should be: a. VFR/IFR b. SMOOTH/TURBULENT c. NOT BAD/SO SO d. VMC/IMC
Last Answer : d. VMC/IMC
Description : What cannot be left out from a position report? a. Callsign, Flight Level and Time b. Callsign, Position and Time c. Position, Time, Flight Level, Next position and ETA d. Your signature
Last Answer : b. Callsign, Position and Time
Description : What is the minimum RVR for a CAT IIIC approach? a. No minimum b. 50m c. 75m d. 100m
Last Answer : a. No minimum
Description : Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the METAR? 00000KT 0200 R14/0800U R16/P1500U FZFG VV001 m03/m03 Q1022 BECMG 0800 = a. Meteorological visibility 200m, RVR for ... 14 800m, vertical visibility 100ft, calm, meteorological visibility improving to 800m in the next 2 hours
Description : You're 36,000 ft. above earth and a hole erupts in the fuselage of the aircraft you are in. What are your thoughts and what would you do?
Last Answer : I am not very religious but I think I would pray.
Description : When did FEDEX add the B777 to their fleet?
Last Answer : UScitizen Try this ==> http://mediacenter.fedex.designcdt.com/taxonomy/term/753 Last fall.
Description : Aircraft Carrier
Last Answer : An aircraft carrier gets about 6 inches per gallon of fuel.
Description : What Positions are connected by isobars on the surface weather chart?
Last Answer : OSITIONS WITH THE SAME AIR PRESSURE AT A GIVEN LEVEL
Description : The station pressure used in surface weather charts is
Last Answer : Qff
Description : If you are flying at FL300 in an airmass that is 15*C warmer than a standard atmosphere, what is the outside temperature likely to be?
Last Answer : 30*C
Description : How would you characterize an air temperature of -55*C at the 200HPA level over western Europe?
Last Answer : WITH IN + 5*C OF ISA
Description : What is the boundary layer between troposphere and stratosphere called?
Last Answer : TROPOPAUSE
Description : The greater the pressure gradient the: a. Closer the isobars and the lower the temperatures b. Further the isobars will be apart and the higher the temperature c. Closer the isobars and the stronger the wind
Last Answer : c. Closer the isobars and the stronger the wind
Description : In an area of converging air a. Clouds cannot be formed b. Clouds can be formed c. Convective clouds can be dissolved d. Stratified clouds can be dissolved
Last Answer : b. Clouds can be formed
Description : In which zone of a jetstream is the strongest CAT to be expected? a. The warm air side of the core b. Exactly in the center of the core c. About 12,000ft above the core d. The cold air side of the core
Last Answer : d. The cold air side of the core
Description : From a pre-flight briefing you know a jet stream is at 31,000ft whilst you are at FL270. You experience moderate CAT. What would be the best course of action? a. Stay level b. Descend c. Climb d. Reduce speed
Last Answer : b. Descend